Please be patient as the PDF generation may take upto a minute.

A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca i.e. dithecous. Theca is separated often by :
1. A longitudinal groove running lengthwise.
2. A longitudinal groove running breadth wise.
3. A transverse groove running breadth wise.
4. A transverse groove running lengthwise.

Four statements are given below. How many of them are correct?
(1) The anther is a tetragonal structure, with four microsporangia at corners, two in each lobe.
(2) Microsporangia develops further and becomes a pollen sacs.
(3) A typical microsporangia is surrounded by four layered wall, 3-protective and 1 nutritional.
(4) The nutritive layer is densely cytoplasmic with more than one nucleus
Options :
1. 3                         
2. 4
3. 2                         
4. 1

When anther is young a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells are present in centre it is known as :-
1. Sporogenous tissue
2. Potential pollen mother cell
3. Both 1. and 2.
4. Conjunctive tissue

Which of the following structure is not associated with protection and dehiscence of anther?
1. Tapetum                               
2. Epidermis
3. Endothecium                       
4. Middle layer

Which of the following statement is not correct for pollen grain?
1. It represents male gametophyte.
2. It is a spherical structure, about 25-50 micrometers in diameter.
3. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.
4. In family rosaceae, leguminoseae and solanaceae pollen lose viability in 30 minute.

In which of the following plant there will be no seed set even after pollination?
1. Plant with monoecious flower.
2. Dioecious plant with staminate flowers.
3. Dioecious plant with pistillate flowers.
4. This statement is not true.

In biological world each organism has evolved its own mechanism of reproduction, which depends upon?
1. Habitat
2. Internal physiology
3. Size of organism
4. Both 1 and 2

Match each item in COLUMN I with one in COLUMN II and select your answer from the codes given:

Codes:
    A.    B.    C.     D.
1. c      a     d      b
2. c      a     b      d
3. a      b     c      d
4. a      c     d      b       

Identify the incorrect statement regarding experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor Mendel?

A plant, on repeated self pollination, preserves the trait expressed for many generations. Such a plant is said to be:

Which of the following is a recessive trait for a character chosen by Mendel in garden pea?

The F1 progeny in monohybrid crosses by Mendel resembled:

Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits or slightly different forms of the same gene are known as:
1.Alleles
2. Loci
3. Cistrons
4. Introns

In a true breeding the allelic pair of genes are
1. Homologous
2. Linked
3. Stable
4. Homozygous

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

To form a nucleoside, a nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose sugar:

Which of the following would be nucleoside found only in RNA?

In a strand of a nucleic acid. Two nucleotides are linked together by:

What is another name for thymine?

Watson and Crick based their model of DNA on X-ray diffraction data produced by:

According to Erwin Chargaff, for a double stranded DNA

According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter

Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. The converters are made up of metals namely
1. Fe, Cu and Rh         
2. Pt, Pd and Rh
3. Al, Pd and Th           
4. Fe, Cu and Pd

Identify 1., 2., 3. and 4. in the diagram

Which is incorrect about electrostatic precipitator (ESP)?
1. Corona produces electrons
2. Collecting plates are grounded, so use to attract the charged dust particle
3. Velocity of air between the plates must be low
4. Electrode wires that are maintained at several thousand volts produces corona

What is/are done by catalytic converters?

According to Euro-III norms, sulphur should be controlled at ______ in diesel and _____ in petrol

Which of the following causes thinning of fish eating bird’s egg shell and their premature breaking?

Select the incorrect statement

Identify a, b, c and d in the given figure.

The pie-chart for the number of species of major taxa of invertebrates represent respectively

Which of the following rainforest is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3000 of fishes, 1300 of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates?

Match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles:
Bioactive Substances: -
(i) Statins (ii) Cyclosporin A (iii) Streptokinase (iv) Lipase
Role-
A. Removal of oil stains
B. Removal of clots from blood vessels
C. Lowering of blood cholesterol
D. Immuno-suppressive agent
Choose the correct match:
1. i B, ii C, iii A, iv D
2. i D, ii B, iii A, iv C
3. i B, ii A, iii D, iv C
4. i C, ii D, iii B, iv A

Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and choose correct answer:   

           
The correct answer is:
1. i B, ii D, iii C, iv A     
2. i C, ii D, iii B, iv A
3. i D, ii A, iii B, iv C         
4. i C, ii D, iii A, iv A

Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in:
1. Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
2. Increasing its tolerance to drought
3. Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
4. Increasing its resistance to insects

Pusa komal is disease resistance variety of?
1. Cauliflower
2. Brassica
3. Cowpea
4. Chilli

Virus free plants can be obtained by
1. Only apical meristem
2. Only axillary meristem
3. Apical and axillary meristem
4. Embryo culture

Triangular age pyramid represents
1. Expanding population.
2. Declining population.
3. Mature population.
4. Both 1. and 3.

Choose the incorrect match

Each tropic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called
1. Standing crop                 2. Standing state
3. GPP                               4. NPP

State True (T) or False (F) for the following statements and select the correct option
a. Mammals from colder climates generally have larger ears and limbs to minimize the heat loss.
b. Experience of altitude sickness is due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes.
c. The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter.
d. Resources for growth for most of the animal population are finite and become limiting sooner
or later.
    a   b   c   d
1. T   T   T   T
2. F   T   T   T
3. F   F   F   F
4. T   F   T   F
 

If ‘N’ is the population density at time t, then its density at time ‘t+1’ will be
1. ${\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}+1}={\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}}\times \left[\left(\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{I}\right)-\left(\mathrm{D}+\mathrm{E}\right)\right]$
2. ${\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}+1}={\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}}+\left[\left(\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{I}\right)-\left(\mathrm{D}+\mathrm{E}\right)\right]$
3. ${\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}+1}={\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}}+\left[\left(\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{I}\right)+\left(\mathrm{D}+\mathrm{E}\right)\right]$
4. ${\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}+1}={\mathrm{N}}_{\mathrm{t}}\times \left[\left(\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{I}\right)+\left(\mathrm{D}+\mathrm{E}\right)\right]$

Choose the incorrect match regarding population interactions.
                                Species A        Species B
1. Amensalism                –                  –
2. Parasitism                  +                  –
3. Commensalism           +                  0
4. Mutualism                  +                  +

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere.
(b) The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock.
(c) Ecological pyramids do not accommodate food web.
1. Only statement (a) is correct.
2. Only statement (b) is correct.
3. All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
4. All (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.

In logistic growth pattern, the influence of environmental resistances over the biotic potential is denoted by
1. r N                        2. $1-\frac{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}$
3. (b-d)×N                 4. None

Read the following statements :-
(A) Desert lizard lack physiological ability that mammals have to deal with high temperature of their habitat.
(B) Kangaroo rat has the ability to concentrate its urine.
1. Only (A) is correct
2. Both statements are incorrect
3. Only (B) is correct
4. Both statements are correct

A selectable marker is used to
1. help in eliminating the non- transformants, so
that the transformants can be regenerated
2. identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien
organism
3. select a suitable vector for transformation in a
specific crop
4. mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation
using restriction enzyme

If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for
ampicillin resistance is transferred into E.coli
cells and the host cells are spread on agar plates
containing ampicillin, then
1. both transformed and untransformed recipient
cells will be
2. both transformed and untransformed recipient
cells will grow
3. transformed recipient cells will grow and
untransformed recipient cells will be
4. transformed recipient cells will die and
untransformed recipient cell will die

The first recombinant DNA was constructed
by linking an antibiotic resistant gene with the
native plasmid of
1. Escherichia coli
2. Salmonella typhimurium
3. Clostridium butylicum
4. Acetobacter aceti

Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning
because
1. these are small circular DNA molecules, which
can integrate with host chromosomal DNA
2. these are small circular DNA molecules with
their own replication origin site
3. these can shuttle between prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells
4. these often carry antibiotic resistance genes

Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:

Select the correct option from the following:
1. I, III and IV
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Main objective of production/use of herbicide
resistant GM crops is to
1. eliminate weeds from the field without the use
of the manual labour
2. eliminate weeds from the field with the use
of the manual labour
3. encourage eco- friendly herbicides
4. reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles
for health safety

The genetic defect- Adenosine Deasminase
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently
by
1. periodic infusion of genetically engineered
lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
2. administering adenosine deaminase activators
3. introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA
into cells at early embryonic stages
4. enzyme replacement therapy

Find the incorrect statement.
1. Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique
used to treat disease at molecular level by
replacing defective genes with normal genes
2. Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant
product in the treatment of infertility
3. Bt toxin is biodegradable insecticide obtained
from Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Trichoderma sp. is a biocontrol agent for fungal
diseases of plants

Exploration of molecular , genetic and species
level diversity for novel products of economic
importance is known as
1. biopiracy                      2. bioenergetics
3. bioremediation              4. bioprospecting

Genetic engineering has been successfully
used for producing
1. transgenic mice for testing safety of polio
vaccine before use in humans
2. transgenic models for studying new treatments
for certain cardiac diseases
3. transgenic cow Rosie, which produces high fat
milk for making ghee
4. animals like bulls for farm work as they have
super power

The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds
upon
1. erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of colon
2. mucosa and submucosa of colon only
3. food in intestine
4. blood only

Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
1. pneumonia is a communicable disease, whereas
the common cold is a nutritional deficiency
disease
2. pneumonia can be prevented by a live
attenuated bacterial vaccine, whereas the
common cold has no effective vaccine
3. pneumonia is caused by a virus , while the
common cold is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus influenzae
4. pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the
common cold affects nose and respiratory
passage, but not the lungs

‘Lock jaw’ is another name of
1. malaria            2. kala-azar
3. tetanus            4. diphtheria

During an allergic reaction, the binding of
antigens to IgE antibodies initiates a response,
in which chemicals cause the dilation of blood
vessels and a host of other physiological
changes, Such chemicals are
1. interferons             2. hormones
3. histamines             4. acetylamine

Which one of the following is not a property of
cancerous cells, whereas the remaining three
are?
1. They compete with normal cells for vital
nutrients
2. They do not remain confined in the area of
formation
3. They divide in an uncontrolled manner
4. They show contact inhibition

Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
1. opium
2. alcohol
3. tobacco
4. cocaine

Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
1. Hashish causes altered thought perceptions and hallucinations
2. Opium stimulates the nervous system and causes hallucinations
3. Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
4. Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria

Which of the following is the correct sequence
of events in the origin of life?
I. Formation of protobionts.
II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
IV. Formation of DNA - Based genetic systems.
1. I,II,III,IV            2. I,III,II,IV
3. II,III,I,IV            4. II,III,IV,I

Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect
option.
1. Brain of bat, man and cheetah
2. Heart of bat, man and cheetah
3. Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
4. Eyes of Octopus, bat and man

The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called
1. natural selection
2. convergent evolution
3. non- random evolution
4. adaptive radiation

Darwin’s finches are a good example of
1. industrial melanism
2. connecting link
3. adaptive radiation
4. convergent evolution

The best description of natural selection is
1. the survival of the fittest
2. the struggle for existence
3. the reproductive success of the members of a
population best adapted to the environment
4. a change in the proportion of variations within
a population

From the statements given below, which one
most likely represents an example of
disruptive selection?
I. Industrial melanism in peppered moth.
II. Population of butterflies that are either all yellow
or all blue.
III. Population of rabbits that evolve more body fat
in response to a cold climate.
IV. Population of wrens that evolve to be smaller
at sexual maturity in response to predation
pressure.
V. Very tall and very short pine trees being removed
from a population by herbivores.
Choose the correct option
1. Only II             2. II and III
3. Only IV            4. III and IV

In a population of 1000 individuals, 360
belongs to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the
remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the
frequency of allele A in the population is
1. 0.4            2. 0.5
3. 0.6            4. 0.7

Single step large mutation leading to
speciation is also called
1. Founder’s effect
2. saltation
3. branching descent
4. natural selection

The chronological order of human evolution
from early to the recent is
1. Australopithecus $\to$ Ramapithecus $\to$ Homo
habilis $\to$ Homo erectus
2. Ramapithecus $\to$ Australopithecus $\to$ Homo
habilis $\to$ Homo erectus
3. Ramapithecus $\to$ Homo habilis
$\to$ Australopithecus $\to$ Homo erectus
4. Australopithecus $\to$ Homo habilis
$\to$ Ramapithecus $\to$ Homo erectus

What was the most significant trend in the
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from
his ancestors?
1. Shortening of jaws
2. Binocular vision
3. Increasing cranial capacity
4. Upright posture

Which of the following is a correct
statement ?
1. IUDs one inserted need not to be replaced
2. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
3. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the
uterus
4. IUDs suppress gametogenesis

The contraceptive ‘Saheli’
1. is an IUD
2. increases the concentration of oestrogen and
prevents ovulation in females
3. blocks oestrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted
4. is a post - coital contraceptive

In context of amniocentesis, which of the
following statements is incorrect?
1. It is used for prenatal sex- determination
2. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
3. It can be used for detection of cleft palate
4. It is usually done when a woman is between
14-16 weeks pregnant

Which one of the following is the most widely
accepted method of contraception in India, at
present?
1. Tubectomy
2. Diaphragm
3. IUDs (Intrauterine Devices)
4. Cervical caps

Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
1. Seminiferous tubules $\to$ Rete testis $\to$ Vasa
efferentia $\to$ Epididymis $\to$ Vas deferens
$\to$ Ejaculatory duct $\to$ Urethra $\to$ Urethral
meatus
2. Seminiferous tubules $\to$ Vasa efferentia $\to$
Epididymis$\to$ Inguinal canal $\to$ Urethra
3. Testis $\to$ Epididymis $\to$ Vasa efferentia$\to$ Vas
deferens $\to$ Ejaculatory duct $\to$ Inguinal
canal $\to$ Urethra $\to$ Urethral meatus
4. Testis $\to$ Epididymis $\to$ Vasa efferentia
$\to$ Rete testis $\to$ Inguinal canal $\to$ Urethra

If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
human reproductive system gets blocked, the
gametes will not be transported from
1. epididymis to vas deferens
2. ovary to uterus
3. vagina to uterus
4. testes to epididymis

Cryptorchidism is a condition in which
1. testis does not descend into scrotal sac
2. sperm is not found
3. male hormones are not reactive
4. ovaries are removed

No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of
the menstrual cycle because
1. follicles do not remain in the ovary after
ovulation
2. FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
3. LH levels are high in the luteal phase
4. both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal
phase

Identify the correct statemnt on ‘ inhibin’.
1. Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and
inhibits the secretion of FSH
2. Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and
inhibits the secretion of LH
3. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits
the secretion of LH
4. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and prolactin

Which one of the following statements about
human sperm is correct ?
1. Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used
for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting
in fertilisation
2. The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the
egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
3. Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading
the sperm towards the ovum
4. Acrosome serves no particular function

Which one of the following is the most likely
reason of irregular menstruation cycle in
females?
1. Fertilisation of the ovum
2. Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial
lining
3. Maintenance of high concentration of sex
hormones in the blood stream
4. Retention of well- developed corpus luteum

In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
division, the male germ cells differentiate into
the
1. primary spermatocytes
2. secondary spermatocytes
3. spermatids
4. spermatogonia

Hormone which stimulates the “let down”
release of milk from mother’s breast when the
baby is suckling, is
1. prolactin           2. progesterone
3. oxytocin           4. relaxin

Capacitation occurs is
1. rete testis                 2. epididymis
3. vas deferens             4. female reproductive tract

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by
mother during the initial days of lactation is
very essential to impart immunity to the new
born infants because it contains
1. monocytes                 2. macrophages
3. immunoglobulin          4. natural killer cells

Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans
prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
uterus?
1. Chorion                  2. Allantois
3. Yolk sac                  4. Amnion

Women who consumed the drug thalidomide
for relief from vomiting during early months
of pregnancy gave birth to children with
1. no spleen
2. harelip
3. extra fingers and toes
4. underdeveloped limbs

Which of the following statements is not true
for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
1. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
2. Mutations inactivate the cell control
3. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
4. Mutations in protooncogenes accelerate the cell
cycle

Aqueous solutions of 0.004 M Na₂SO₄ and  0.01 M Glucose are isotonic. The degree of dissociation of Na₂SO₄ is-
1. 25% 
2. 60%
3. 75% 
4. 85%

When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C₁₁H₈O₂) is dissolved in 50 g of benzene (K_f = 1.72 K kg mol^–1),
a freezing point depression of 2 K is observed. The van’t Hoff factor (i) is –

The Henry's law constant for the solubility of N₂ gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 10⁵ atm. The mole fraction of N₂ in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N₂ formed from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at 298 K and 5 atm pressure is-

0.1 formal solution of NaCl is found to be isotonic with 1.1 % solution of Urea. Calculate the apparent degree of ionisation of NaCl
1. 0.083
2. 8.3
3. 0.83
4. 0.42

Ionic radii of Mg²⁺ and O^2- ions are 66 pm and 140 pm respectively. The type of interstitial void and coordination number of Mg²⁺ ion respectively are
1. Tetrahedral, 12
2. Octahedral, 6
3. Tetrahedral, 6 
4. Octahedral, 8

An element crystallizes in a structure having FCC unit cell of an edge length 200 pm. If 200 g of this element contains 24 x 10²³ atoms, the density of the element is - 
1. 50.3 g/cc 
2. 63.4 g/cc
3. 41.6 g/cc 
4. 34.8 g/cc

What happens during electro-osmosis of Fe(OH)₃ sol?

Colloidal gold can be prepared by
1. Bredig’s arc method
2. Reduction of AuCl3
3. Hydrolysis
4. Both 1&2

A compound that can be reduced to the corresponding hydrocarbon by Zn-Hg/ conc. HCl is:
1. Butan-2-one                         
2. Acetic acid
3. Acetamide                             
4. Ethyl acetate

A substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows two parallel first order reactions as -
  
${\mathrm{k}}_1=1.26\times {10}^{-4} {\mathrm{s}}^{-1} \mathrm{and}$
${\mathrm{k}}_2=3.8\times {10}^{-5} {\mathrm{s}}^{-2}$
The percentage distributions of B and C respectively  are –
1. 80%  and 20%
2. 76.83%  and 23.17% 
3. 90%  and 10%  
4. 60%  and 40% 
 
 

The low spin complex among the following is:

Complexes with halide ligands are generally:
1. High spin complexes.
2. Low spin complexes.
3. Both high spin and low spin complexes.
4. None of the above.

Which of the following is π-acid ligand?
1. NH₃ 
2. CO
3. F¯ 
4. Ethylene diamine

If 1/3rd of the total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by adding AgNO₃ to its aqueous solution, then the most likely structure of CrCl₃.6H₂O among the following is:

Aqua regia reacts with Pt to yield :
1. Pt(NO₃)₄ 
2. H₂PtCl₆
3. PtCl₄ 
4. PtCl₂

Salt with the highest electrolytic conductivity in solution is : 
1. K₂[PtCl₆] 
2. [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₂)₃]
3. K₄[Fe(CN)₆] 
4. [Co(NH₃)₄]SO₄

An excess of liquid Hg was added to 10^–3 M acidified solution of ${\mathrm{Fe}}^{3+}$ ions. It was found that only 5% of the ions remained as Fe⁺³ at equilibrium at 25ºC. What is Eº for 2Hg/Hg₂⁺² at 25ºC for-                     
   2Hg + 2Fe⁺³   $\rightleftharpoons$   ${\mathrm{Hg}}_2^{2+}$ + $2{\mathrm{Fe}}^{+2}$
and   ${\mathrm{E}}_{{\mathrm{Fe}}^{+2}/{\mathrm{Fe}}^{+3}}^0$   = 0.77 V
1. – 1.347 V               
2. – 0.793 V
3. – 0.125 V               
4. – 1.110V

The standard reduction potential for Cu⁺²/Cu is + 0.34V. What will be the reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple, K_sp of Cu(OH)₂ is 1.0 × 10^–19                  
1.  – 3.2013                
2. – 0.2205
3. – 0.913                   
4. – 1.23

What is the equilibrium constant for reaction
      Fe⁺² + Ce⁺⁴   $\rightleftharpoons$   Fe${}^{+3}$ + Ce${}^{+3}$
Given
      EºCe⁺⁴/Ce⁺³  = 1.44V
and   ${\mathrm{E}}_{{\mathrm{Fe}}^{+1}/{\mathrm{Fe}}^{+2}}^0$   = 0.68V
                                                                
1. K_C =  1.3 x 10¹⁰
2. K_C = 3.2 x10¹⁰        
3. K_C = 7.6 x 10¹²
4. K_C = 7.6 x 10⁵

Electrolysis of a solution of MnSO₄ in aqueous sulphuric acid is a method for the preparation of MnO₂ as per reaction
Mn⁺² (aq.) + 2H₂O$\rightleftharpoons$  MnO₂ (s) + 2H⁺ (aq) + H₂ (g)
Passing a current of 27A for 24 hours gives
1 Kg of MnO₂. What is the value of current efficiency -                                           
1. 50%                       
2. 94.8%
3. 75.9%                     
4. 78.3%

What will be the equilibrium constant for the reaction 2Fe⁺³ + 3I^–  $\rightleftharpoons$ 2Fe⁺² + I₃^–. The standard reduction potential in acidic conditions are 0.77 and 0.54V respectively for Fe⁺³/Fe⁺² and I₃^– /I^– couples  
1. 6.26 × 10⁷  
2. 62.6 × 10⁹    
3. 0.626 × 10⁵            
4. 6.26 × 10¹⁰

Sn crumbles to a powder in very cold weather, due to –
1. Expansion of the crystal lattice
2. Formation of SnO at low temperature
3. The conversion of Sn to powdery meta stannic acid
4. The transition from white tin to grey form, that is amorphous

Zn + NH₃  $\stackrel{\mathrm{red} \mathrm{heat}}{\to }$ ?
1. ZnH₂ + N₂                 
2. Zn₃N₂ + H₂
3. Zn(NH₂)₂ + H₂         
4. Zn(NH₃)₄²⁺

When a fluoride is heated with conc. H₂SO₄ in a glass tube and if a drop of water is held at the mouth of the glass tube, a white deposit formed is of –
1. $H_{2}Si{F}_6$                       
2. $Si{O}_2$      
3. $H_{2}Si{O}_3$                       
4. $Si{F}_4+H_2{F}_2$ 

Litmus is not affected by hydracids when they are
1. In contact with water
2. Dry
3. Fused with each other                 
4. Mixed together and dissolved in water

Which of the following is/are  characterise inter halogen compounds ?
1. Inter halogen compounds are reactive than ordinary diatomic halogens.
2. The order of reactivity is ClF₃ > BrF₅ > IF₇
3. BrF₅ $\stackrel{{\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}}{\to }$ HBrO₃ + HF
4. All of the above

The structure of azido carbondisulphide is –
1. CS₂(N­₃)₂                    
2. (SCSN₃)₂
3. CS₂N₃                             
4. (CSN₃)

Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by -
1. Dissolving ferric hydroxide in dilute HCl.
2. Dissolving ferric hydroxide in conc. HCl.
3. By passing dry Cl₂ gas over heated scrap iron
4. By passing dry HCl gas over heated scrap iron

The hydrolysis of alkyl isocyanide
(R-CH₂-N $\overrightarrow{=}$ C) gives -
1. RNHCOOH.                       
2. 
3. RNH2 + HCOOH.    
4. RCH₂NH₂ + HCOOH.

What is product of the following reaction ?     
        
1. 
2. 
3. 
4.None of these
 

How is m-Bromotoluene prepared?

What is the correct order of the boiling point of the below mentioned compound?

1. I > II > III             
2. III > I > II
3. I > III > II
4. III > II > I

The product in the below mentioned reaction is:

1.
2.
3.	C6H5OC6H5
4.	C2H5OC2H5

The reaction of  enantiomerically pure acid with
1-chiral carbon and racemic alcohol with
1-chiral carbon gives an ester which is -
1. Meso                
2. Optically active mixture
3. Racemic mixture
4. Enantionmerically pure

The conversion of cyclohexanol into cyclohexene is most effective with     
1. Concentrated H₃PO₄
2. Concentrated HCl
3. Concentrated HCl / ZnCl₂
4. Concentrated HBr

In which one of the following reactions, we will get only one crossed Aldol product,
1. CH₃CHO & CH₃CH₂CHO
2. CH₃CHO & (CH₃)₂CO
3. (CH₃)₂CO & (C₂H₅)₂CO
4. C₆H₅CHO & CH₃CHO

Alkaline hydrolysis of ${\mathrm{C}}_4{\mathrm{H}}_8{\mathrm{Cl}}_2$ 'A' gives a compound (B) . 'B' on heating with NaOH and ${\mathrm{I}}_2$ produces a yellow precipitate of ${\mathrm{CHI}}_3$.The compound (B) is: 

1.		2.
3.		4.

If acetaldehyde is treated with Benedict’s or Fehling’s solution, the following change occurs in the system –
1. Ag⁺  $\to$ Agº             
2. Cu⁺² $\to$ Cuº
3. Cu⁺² $\to$ Cu⁺            
4. Na⁺ $\to$ Naº

For distinction between CH₃CHO and C₆H₅CHO the reagent used is –
1. KCN                      
2. HCN
3. NH₂OH                  
4. PCl₅

Choose the correct statement–
1. Enamine acts as both nucleophile as well as an electrophile
2. Enamine has two nucleophilic center
3. Enamine has single nucleophilic center
4. Enamine can’t be acylated.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Which of the following pair, will give positive test with Tollen's reagent :
1. Glucose, sucrose
2. Sucrose, fructose
3. Glucose, fructose
4. Acetophenone, hexanal

Cellulose upon acetylation with excess acetic anhydride/H₂SO₄ (catalytic) gives cellulose triacetate whose structure is–

1.
2.
3.
4.

In the reaction–

Reagent X is–
1. Triethylaluminium and titanium tetrachloride.
2. Triethyl aluminum.
3. Zeigler Natta Catalyst.
4. Both 1 & 3

Acetaldehyde reacts with                        
1. only electrophiles
2. only nucleophiles
3. only free radicals
4. both electrophiles and nucleophiles

An electric dipole with dipole moment $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{p}}=\left(3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}\right)\times {10}^{-30}$ $C-\mathrm{m }$is placed in an electric field $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=4000\hat{i}\left(N/C\right)$. An external agent turns the dipole slowly until its electric dipole moment becomes $\left(-4\hat{i}+3\hat{j}\right)\times {10}^{-30}$ $C-m$. The work done by the external agent is equal to:
1. 4 × 10^–28  J 
2. –4 × 10^–28  J
3. 2.8 × 10^–26  J 
4. –2.8 × 10^–26  J

Consider a finite charged rod. Electric field
at Point P (shown) makes an angle $\mathrm{\theta }$ with
horizontal dotted line then angle $\mathrm{\theta }$ is :-

1. 60°
2. 28°
3. 44°
4. information insufficient

The variation of potential with distance x from a fixed point is shown in the figure. The electric field at x =13 m is:

1. 7.5 volt/meter 
2. –7.5 volt/meter
3. 5 volt/meter 
4. –5 volt/meter

The electric potential due to an infinite sheet of
positive charge density $\mathrm{\sigma }$ at a point located at
a perpendicular distance Z from the sheet is :
(Assume V₀ to be the potential at the surface of
sheet)
1. ${\mathrm{V}}_0$
2. ${\mathrm{V}}_0-\frac{\mathrm{\sigma Z}}{{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$
3. ${\mathrm{V}}_0+\frac{\mathrm{\sigma Z}}{2{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$
4. ${\mathrm{V}}_0-\frac{\mathrm{\sigma Z}}{2{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0}$

Figure shows a solid metal sphere of radius
a surrounded by a concentric thin metal shell
of radius 2a. Initially both are having charges
Q each. When the two are connected by a
conducting wire as shown in figure, then
amount of heat produced in this process
will be :

1. $\frac{{\mathrm{kQ}}^2}{2\mathrm{a}}$
2. $\frac{{\mathrm{kQ}}^2}{4\mathrm{a}}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{kQ}}^2}{6\mathrm{a}}$
4. $\frac{{\mathrm{kQ}}^2}{8\mathrm{a}}$

In the circuit diagram shown all the capacitors are in  \(\mu F\).  The equivalent capacitance between points, A & B is (in $\mathrm{\mu }$F):

1. 14/5 
2. 7.5
3. 3/7 
4. None of these

An ammeter A of finite resistance and a resistor R are joined in series to an ideal cell C. A potentiometer P is joined in parallel to R. The ammeter reading is ${\mathrm{I}}_0$ and the potentiometer reading is V₀ . P is now replaced by a voltmeter of finite resistance. The ammeter reading now is I and the voltmeter reading is V.

It can be concluded that:
1. $\mathrm{I}>{\mathrm{I}}_0,$ $\mathrm{V}<{\mathrm{V}}_0$
2. $\mathrm{I}>{\mathrm{I}}_0,$ $\mathrm{V}={\mathrm{V}}_0$
3. $\mathrm{I}={\mathrm{I}}_0,$ $\mathrm{V}<{\mathrm{V}}_0$
4. $\mathrm{I}<{\mathrm{I}}_0,$ $\mathrm{V}={\mathrm{V}}_0$

The equivalent resistance between points A
and B is-

1. 32.5$\mathrm{\Omega }$ 
2. 22.5$\mathrm{\Omega }$
3. 2.5$\mathrm{\Omega }$ 
4. 42.5 $\mathrm{\Omega }$

A voltmeter of resistance \(660~\Omega\)$\mathrm{}$ reads the voltage of a very old cell to be \(1.32\) V while a potentiometer reads its voltage to be \(1.44\) V. The internal resistance of the cell is:
1. \(30~\Omega\)$\mathrm{}$ 
2. \(60~\Omega\)
3. \(6~\Omega\)
4. \(0.6~\Omega\)$\mathrm{}$

What is the equivalent resistance between A
and B ?

1. $\frac{3\mathrm{R}}{2}$
2. 2R
3. R
4. $\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}$

A frog can be levitated in a magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as:

A rectangular loop carrying a current \(\mathrm{I_1}\), is situated near a long straight wire carrying a steady current \(\mathrm{I_2}\). If the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop as shown in the figure, then the current loop will:
         

The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of a uniform cross-section of radius \(a\) and carrying a steady current is represented by:

1.		2.
3.		4.

Two similar coils of radius R are lying
concentrically with their planes at right angles
to each other. The currents flowing in them
are I and 2I respectively. The resultant
magnetic field induction at the centre will be:
1. $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{I}}{2\mathrm{R}}$
2. $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{R}}$
3. $\frac{\sqrt{5}{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{I}}{2\mathrm{R}}$
4. $\frac{3{\mathrm{\mu }}_0\mathrm{I}}{2\mathrm{R}}$

A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's
magnetic field with a period T. What happens
to its period and motion if its mass is
quadrupled?
1. Motion remains S.H.M with time period = $\frac{\mathrm{T}}{2}$
2. Motion remains S.H.M with time period =2T
3. Motion remains S.H.M with time period =4T
4. Motion remains S.H.M and period remains
nearly constant

The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance \(R\) changes by an amount \(\Delta \phi\) in time \(\Delta t.\) The total quantity of electric charge which passes during this time through any point of the circuit is given by:
1. \(Q= \frac{\Delta \phi}{\Delta t}\)
2. \(Q= \frac{\Delta \phi}{\Delta t}\times R\)
3. \(Q= -\frac{\Delta \phi}{\Delta t}\times R\)
4. \(Q= \frac{\Delta \phi}{R}\)

In a coil of area 10 cm² and 10 turns with a magnetic field directed perpendicular to the plane and is changing at the rate of 10⁸ gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 20 ohm. The current in the coil will be 
1. 5 amp 
2. 0.5 amp
3. 0.05 amp 
4. $5\times {10}^8 \mathrm{amp}$ 

A metallic ring connected to a rod oscillates freely like a pendulum. If now a magnetic field is applied in horizontal direction so that the pendulum now swings through the field, the pendulum will

1. Keep oscillating with the old time period
2. Keep oscillating with a smaller time period
3. Keep oscillating with a larger time period
4. Come to rest very soon

An aeroplane in which the distance between the tips of wings is 50 m is flying horizontally with a speed of 360 km/hr over a place where the vertical component of earth magnetic field is $2.0\times {10}^{-4}$ $\mathrm{weber}/{\mathrm{m}}^2$. The potential difference between the tips of wings would be:

In an ac circuit, the instantaneous values of e.m.f. and current are $e = 200 \sin \left(314t\right) V$and  $\mathrm{i}=\sin \left(314\mathrm{t}+\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{3}\right)$ A. The average power consumed in watt is -
1. 200 
2. 100
3. 50 
4. 25

Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by
$\mathrm{V}=5\sin \left(100\mathrm{\pi t}-\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{6}\right) \mathrm{and} \mathrm{I}=4 \sin \left(100\mathrm{\pi t}+\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{6}\right)$
(a) Voltage leads the current by 30$°$
(b) Current leads the voltage by 30$°$
(c) Current leads the voltage by 60$°$
(d) Voltage leads the current by 60$°$

A man is  180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the top of his head. In order to see his entire height from toe to head, he uses a plane mirror kept at a distance from him. The minimum length of the plane mirror required is -
1. 180 cm
2. 90 cm
3. 85 cm
4. 170 cm 

A convex mirror of focal length f forms an image which is $\frac{1}{\mathrm{n}}$ times the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is
1. (n-1) f
2. $\left(\frac{\mathrm{n}-1}{\mathrm{n}}\right)f$
3. $\left(\frac{\mathrm{n}+1}{\mathrm{n}}\right)f$
4. (n+1) f

Absolute refractive indices of glass and water are $\frac{3}{2}$ and $\frac{4}{3}$. The ratio of velocity of light in glass and water will be

1. 4 : 3 
2. 8 : 7
3. 8 : 9 
4. 3 : 4

A fish is a little away below the surface of a lake. If the critical angle is \(49^{\circ}\), then the fish could see things above the water surface within an angular range of \(\theta^{\circ}\) where:
1. \(\theta = 49^{\circ}\)$$
2. \(\theta = 90^{\circ}\)$$
3. \(\theta = 98^{\circ}\)$\mathrm{}$
4. \(\theta = 24\frac{1}{2}^{\circ}\)$$

In a wave, the path difference, \(\Delta x \) corresponding to a phase difference of \(\Delta \phi\) is:
1. \(\frac{\pi }{2\lambda }\Delta \phi \)
2. \(\frac{\pi }{\lambda }\Delta \phi \)
3. \(\frac{\lambda }{2\pi }\Delta \phi \)
4. \(\frac{\lambda }{\pi }\Delta \phi \)

In Young's double-slit experiment, the ratio of intensities of bright and dark fringes is 9. This means that:

The figure shows different graphs between stopping potential $\left({\mathrm{V}}_0\right)$ and frequency (\(\nu\)) for the photosensitive surfaces of cesium, potassium, sodium and lithium. The plots are parallel. The correct ranking of the targets according to their work function first will be:
   

If light of wavelength ${\mathrm{\lambda }}_1$ is allowed to fall on a metal, then kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted is ${\mathrm{E}}_1$. If wavelength of light changes to ${\mathrm{\lambda }}_2$ then kinetic energy of electrons changes to ${\mathrm{E}}_2$. Then work function of the metal is-
1. $\frac{{\mathrm{E}}_1{\mathrm{E}}_2\left({\mathrm{\lambda }}_1-{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2\right)}{{\mathrm{\lambda }}_1{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2}$
2. $\frac{{\mathrm{E}}_1{\mathrm{\lambda }}_1+{\mathrm{E}}_2{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2}{\left({\mathrm{\lambda }}_1-{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2\right)}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{E}}_1{\mathrm{\lambda }}_1-{\mathrm{E}}_2{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2}{\left({\mathrm{\lambda }}_2-{\mathrm{\lambda }}_1\right)}$
4. $\frac{{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2{\mathrm{\lambda }}_1{\mathrm{E}}_1{\mathrm{E}}_2}{\left({\mathrm{\lambda }}_1-{\mathrm{\lambda }}_2\right)}$

If 10000 V is applied across an X-ray tube, what will be the ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of the incident electrons to the shortest wavelength of X-ray produced $\left(\frac{\mathrm{e}}{\mathrm{m}} \mathrm{for} \mathrm{electron} \mathrm{is} 1.8\times {10}^{11}\mathrm{c} {\mathrm{kg}}^{-1}\right)$
1. 1
2. 0.1
3. 0.2
4. 0.3

The collector plate in an experiment on the photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the emitter plate. A light source is put on and a saturation photocurrent is recorded. When an electric field is switched on that has a vertically downward direction, then:

The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen-like atom results in ultraviolet radiation. How will the Infrared radiation be obtained in the transition?
1. 4 $\to$ 2 
2. 4 $\to$3
3. 2 $\to$ 1 
4. 3 $\to$ 2

An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from
excited state n to the ground state. The
wavelength so emitted illuminates a
photosensitive material having work function
2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of the
photoelectron is 10 V, then the value of n is:-
1. 2 
2. 3 
3. 4 
4. 5

Light of two different frequencies whose
photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
respectively illuminate a metallic surface
whose work function is 0.5 eV successively.
Ratio of maximum speed of emitted electrons
will be :
1. 1 : 4 
2. 1 : 2
3. 1 : 1
4. 1 : 5

The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium
and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV,
respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse
to form a helium nucleus the energy released
in the fusion is :-
1. 2.2 MeV 
2. 28.0 MeV
3. 30.2 MeV 
4. 23.6 MeV

When monochromatic radiation of intensity I
falls on a metal surface, the number of
photoelectron and their maximum kinetic
energy are N and T respectively. If the
intensity of radiation is 2I, the number of
emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic
energy are respectively :
1. 2N and T 
2. 2N and 2T
3. N and T 
4. N and 2T

The activity of a radioactive sample is
measured as N₀ counts per minute at t = 0
and N₀/e counts per minute at t = 5
minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the
activity reduces to half its value is :-
1. 5 log_e 2 
2. log_e 2/5
3. $\frac{5}{{\log }_{\mathrm{e}}2}$
4. 5 log₁₀2

In a half wave rectifier circuit, the input signal frequency is 50 Hz, the output frequency will be :
1. 25 Hz 
2. 50 Hz
3. 200 Hz 
4. 100 Hz

The potential barrier in the depletion layer is due to
1. Ions 
2. Holes
3. Electrons 
4. Forbidden band

In a common emitter circuit, if V_CC is changed by 0.2 V, collector current changes by 4 x 10^–3 mA. The output resistance will be:
1. 10 k$\mathrm{\Omega }$ 
2. 30 k$\mathrm{\Omega }$ 
3. 50 k$\mathrm{\Omega }$ 
4. 70 k$\mathrm{\Omega }$

Which one of the following gates can be served as a building block for any digital circuit?
1. OR 
2. AND
3. NOT 
4. NAND

A gate has the following truth table
                        A                     B                                 R
                        1                      1                                  1
                        1                      0                                  0
                        0                      1                                  0
                        0                      0                                  0
The gate is:
1. AND                                  2. OR
3. NOR                                  4. NAND

Which of the following is a correct relation for a transistor ?
1. $\mathrm{\alpha }=\frac{\mathrm{\beta }}{1-\mathrm{\beta }}$
2. $\mathrm{\beta }=\frac{\alpha }{1-\mathrm{\alpha }}$
3. $\mathrm{\beta }=\frac{\alpha }{1+\mathrm{\alpha }}$
4. $\mathrm{\alpha }=\frac{\mathrm{\beta }}{1+\mathrm{\alpha }}$

If the reverse bias in a junction diode is changed from \(5\) V to \(15\) V then the value of current changes from \(38\) \(\mu \text{A}\) to \(88\) \(\mu \text{A}.\) The resistance of junction diode will be:
1. \(4\times10^{5}\) 
2. \(3\times10^{5}\)
3. \(2\times10^{5}\)
4. \(10^{6}\)