Full Syllabus Test # 6 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1. Which of the following properties is the reason that whole plants can be regenerated from explants?

1.	Phenotypic plasticity	2.	Cellular totipotency
3.	Open growth	4.	Open differentiation

2. In gymnosperms:

1.	gametophytes have an independent free-living existence
2.	pollen grains are transported by water
3.	pollen tubes are not seen
4.	seeds are not covered

3.

The famous aphorism ‘omnis cellula-e-cellula’ was added to the cell theory by:
1. Theodor Schwann
2. Matthias Schleiden
3. Robert Hooke
4. Rudolf Virchow

4.

Creation of new varieties of pest-resistant GM crops:

1.	makes crops more resistant to abiotic stresses
2.	reduces reliance on chemical pesticides
3.	enhances nutritional value of food crops
4.	increases efficiency of mineral usage by plants

5.

The DNA fragments separated on agar gel by electrophoresis can be visualised:

1.	without staining in the visible light
2.	without staining on exposure to UV light
3.	after staining with polyethylene glycol followed by exposure to IR radiation
4.	after staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation

6. Identify the incorrect statement regarding guard cells in the epidermal tissue system?

1.	They enclose stomata.
2.	They are bean shaped in grasses.
3.	The outer walls are thin and the inner walls are highly thickened.
4.	They possess chloroplasts.

7. All the following plants are pollinated by water except:
1. Vallisneria
2. Hydrilla
3. Zostera
4. Eicchornia

8. The two alleles of a gene pair are located on:

1.	homologous sites on homologous chromosomes
2.	homologous sites on heterologous chromosomes
3.	heterologous sites on homologous chromosomes
4.	heterologous sites on heterologous chromosomes

9.

Which essential mineral nutrient required by plants plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata?
1. Phosphorus
2. Potassium
3. Calcium
4. Magnesium

10. In chloroplasts, the water splitting complex:

1.	is associated with PS I, which itself is located on the inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
2.	is associated with PS II, which itself is located on the outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
3.	is associated with PS II, which itself is located on the inner side of the membrane of the thylakoid.
4.	is associated with PS I, which itself is located on the outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid.

11.

A transverse section of a plant part shows the following features:

I:	Innermost layer of cortex has casparian strips.
II:	Pericycle has parenchymatous cells.
III:	Radially arranged two to four xylem and phloem patches.

This transverse section must be of:
1. Dicot root
2. Monocot root
3. Dicot stem
4. Monocot stem

12. In ecological succession:

1.	Hydrarch succession leads to xeric conditions.
2.	Xerarch succession leads to hydric conditions.
3.	Both xerarch and hydrarch successions may lead to either xeric or hydric conditions.
4.	Both xerarch and hydrarch successions lead to mesic conditions.

13. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Zoospores	P	Sponges
B	Conidia	Q	Penicillium
C	Buds	R	Chlamydomonas
D	Gemmule	S	Hydra

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	R	Q	S	P
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	S	P	R	Q

14. Floridean starch is a form of:

1.	stored food in red algae that resembles the structure of amylopectin and glycogen
2.	stored food in brown algae that resembles the structure of agarose and agaropectin
3.	carbohydrate found in cell wall of brown algae that resembles the structure of amylopectin and glycogen
4.	carbohydrate found in cell wall of red algae that resembles the structure of agarose and agaropectin

15. A and B in the given diagram respectively show:

1.	Male thallus of Marchantia and Female thallus of Marchantia
2.	Female thallus of Marchantia and Male thallus of Marchantia
3.	Male thallus of Funaria and Female thallus of Funaria
4.	Female thallus of Funaria and Male thallus of Funaria

16. Antirrhinum majus with pink flowers is crossed with Antirrhinum majus with white flowers. What is the expected phenotypic ratio in the progeny?
1. 1 [red] : 2 [pink] : 1 white
2. 3 [red] : 1 [white]
3. 1 [pink] : 1 [white]
4. 3 [pink] : 1 [white]

17. For DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates:

I:	act as substrates
II:	provide energy for polymerisation reaction

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

18. All bacterial cells are:

1.	motile.
2.	enclosed by peptidoglycan cell wall.
3.	prokaryotic.
4.	capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen.

19. Which of the following will not be applicable for China rose?
1. Alternate phyllotaxy
2. Hypogynous flower
3. Valvate aestivation for corolla
4. Monoadelphous stamens

20. Identify the incorrect match:

	Angiosperm	Economic importance
1.	Indigofera	Dye
2.	Sunhemp	Fibre
3.	Colchicum	Fumigatory
4.	Belladonna	Medicine

21.

Gonyaulax is:

1.	a heterotrophic bacteria pathogenic to cereal crops
2.	a dinoflagellate responsible for red tides
3.	a free living nematode
4.	a thermophilic archaebacterium

22. Organisms belonging to the same Class in taxonomic hierarchy must also belong to the same:

1.	Order	2.	Family
3.	Genus	4.	Phylum

23.

That viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins was shown by:
1. M. W. Beijerinck
2. W. M. Stanley
3. Dmitri Ivanovsky
4. Louis Pasteur

24. The predominant site for the control of gene expression in prokaryotes is:
1. Transcription initiation
2. Processing of hnRNA
3. Translational level
4. Post translational modification

25. What percent of the total incident solar radiation is captured by plants?

1.	1 to 5	2.	2 to 10
3.	20 to 30	4.	40 to 60

26. What will be true for proportionate number of species representing global biodiversity?

1.	The number of lichens is much more than the number of algae
2.	The number of mosses is much less than the number of ferns and allies
3.	The number of angiosperms is equal to the number of gymnosperms
4.	The number of fungi is much more than the number of algae, ferns and allies, mosses and lichens put together

27. Histones are:
1. positively charged basic proteins
2. negatively charged basic proteins
3. positively charged acidic proteins
4. negatively charged acidic proteins

28.

When water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are in equilibrium, the cells are said to be:
1. Flaccid
2. Plasmolysed
3. Turgid
4. Wilted

29. In the female gametophyte of angiosperms, filiform apparatus is a part of:
1. Synergids
2. Antipodals
3. Central cell
4. Egg

30. All the following are floral characters of members of family Solanaceae except:
1. Zygomorphic flower
2. Valvate aestivation
3. Epipetalous stamens
4. Endospermous seeds

31. The main amino acid, from which the transfer of the amino group takes place and other amino acids are formed, is:
1. Glutamic acid
2. Aspartic acid
3. Tryptophan
4. Lysine

32.

By studying purple sulphur bacteria and green sulphur bacteria, who was the first scientist to demonstrate, in 1931, that photosynthesis is a light-dependent redox reaction in which hydrogen from an oxidizable compound reduces carbon dioxide to cellular materials?
1. Robert Hill
2. C. B. van Neil
3. Arnon
4. Jan Ingenhousz

33.

Which PGR stimulates the closure of stomata and increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses?

1.	Abscisic acid	2.	Ethylene
3.	Auxins	4.	Cytokinins

34. Which enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of the disaccharide sucrose into glucose and fructose in plants?
1. Hexokinase
2. Invertase
3. Zymase
4. Aldolase

35. Alexander Fleming first isolated penicillin from:

1.	Penicillium chrysogenum	2.	Penicillium roqueforti
3.	Penicillium notatum	4.	Penicillium camemberti

Biology I - Section B

36. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	C₄ plants are more suited to hot climates than C₃ plants.
Reason(R):	They do not close their stomata in hot, dry weather.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

37.

DNA does not contain:
1. Thiamine
2. Adenine
3. Cytosine
4. Guanine

38. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The Calvin cycle actually occurs only in the dark or during night time.
Reason (R):	The Calvin cycle is also called as ‘Dark’ reactions.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

39. Four genes A, B, C and D are linked to the same chromosome in an organism. The distance between the gene pairs is as given below:

[a]	between A and B = 28 map units,
[b]	between B and C = 15 map units
[c]	between C and D = 25 map units
[d]	between B and D = 10 map units
[e]	between A and D = 38 map units
[f]	between A and C = 13 map units

What is the order of these four genes?
1. ABCD
2. ACBD
3. ABDC
4. BADC

40.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Recycling, an essential element of e-waste management, must be carried out properly especially in developing countries.
Reason (R):	Informally recycling – much of it by hand in developing countries, exposes workers to hazardous and carcinogenic substances such as mercury, lead and cadmium.

1.	(A) is true (R) but is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

41.

In facilitated diffusion, membrane proteins:

I:	provide sites at which molecules cross the membrane against the concentration gradient.
II:	set up a concentration gradient for diffusion to occur.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

42.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The problem of predation is particularly severe for plants than for animals.
Reason (R):	Plants function as producers in an ecosystem.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

43. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Antheridium in bryophytes produces biflagellate antherozoids.
Statement II:	Archegonium in bryophytes produces a single egg.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is correct; Statement I is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

44. All the following given differences between fungi belonging to Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes are correct except:

		Phycomycetes	Basidiomycetes
1.	Mycelium	Branched and septate	Aseptate and coenocytic
2.	Asexual spores	Zoospores or aplanospores	Generally not found
3.	Notable examples	Bread mould and Albugo	Rust and Smut fungi
4.	Dikaryon stage	Not seen	Present

45. The number of correct statements from the given statements is:

I:	In a typical dicotyledonous embryo, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
II:	In a typical dicotyledonous embryo, the cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl, and it terminates at its lower end in the radicle or root tip.
III:	In the grass family, the cotyledon is called the scutellum, which is situated towards one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis.
IV:	At its lower end, the embryonal axis in monocots has the radical and root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called coleorhiza.
V:	In monocots, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the epicotyl.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

46.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Carbon dioxide is not produced in glycolysis.
Reason (R):	Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (R)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

47. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Heterotrophs generally have high energy conversion efficiencies when compared to those of plants.
Reason (R):	At higher trophic levels, the respiratory costs are dramatically reduced.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (R)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

48.

Emergent properties at a higher level of organisation:

I:	are not present in the individual constituent units.
II:	arise as a result of interactions among the constituent units.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

49. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Plant growth is intimately linked to the water status of the plant.
Reason (R):	The plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement, which in turn requires water.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

50. Asexual reproduction in brown algae is by:

1.	biflagellate biconcave disc shaped zoospores
2.	non-motile spherical aplanogametes
3.	biflagellate pear shaped zoospores
4.	non-motile zoospores produced in zoosporangia

Biology II - Section A

51.

At puberty:

1.	about 30,000-40,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary
2.	about 30,000-40,000 primary follicles are left in both ovaries
3.	about 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary
4.	about 1,00,000 primary follicles are left in both ovaries

52.

A water vascular system is characteristically seen in animals belonging to the Phylum:

1.	Porifera	2.	Ctenophora
3.	Echinodermata	4.	Hemichordata

53. A ‘sea-horse’ is a:

1.	marine bony fish
2.	fresh water bony fish
3.	cartilaginous fish
4.	cyclostome

54. The abuse of anabolic steroids by human males can lead to the development of all the following except:

1.	A decrease in the size of prostate gland
2.	depression
3.	decreased sperm production
4.	kidney and liver dysfunction

55.

Each half of pectoral girdle consists of:

1.	one bone	2.	two bones
3.	four bones	4.	six bones

56. The posterior pituitary is:

1.	under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus
2.	under the regulation of the chemicals produced by the hypothalamus
3.	is not under any regulation of the hypothalamus
4.	is regulated directly by the humoral concentrations of the hormones it secretes

57. For effective contraception, oral contraceptive pills are started:

1.	within the first five days of menstrual cycle
2.	during the proliferative phase of menstrual cycle
3.	around the time of ovulation
4.	anytime in the luteal phase of menstrual cycle

58. During the contraction of skeletal muscle, the length of which of the following does not get reduced?

1.	A band	2.	Sarcomere
3.	H-zone	4.	I band

59. Glandular epithelium has specialised:

1.	Squamous or pseudostratified cells
2.	Ciliated or brush bordered columnar cells
3.	Stratified squamous or pseudostratified cells
4.	Cuboidal or columnar cells

60. Malignant malaria is caused by:
1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium ovale
3. Plasmodium falciparum
4. Plasmodium malariae

61. Prosthetic groups are distinguished from other cofactors in that they are:
1. tightly bound to the apoenzyme
2. inorganic compounds
3. metal ions
4. vitamins

62. Head of cockroach:

1.	is oval is shape.
2.	lies anteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal body axis.
3.	is formed by the fusion of 10 segments.
4.	does not show any mobility due to absence of neck.

63. The eye ball contains a transparent crystalline lens which is held in place by:

1.	iris anteriorly and choroid posteriorly
2.	vitreous humor
3.	sclera
4.	ligaments attached to the ciliary body

64. Which of the following is a heteropolymer?

1.	Starch	2.	Cellulose
3.	Glycogen	4.	Insulin

65. Desert lizards manage to keep their body temperature fairly constant by:

1.	increased sweating
2.	evaporative cooling from tongue
3.	behavioural means
4.	producing a dilute urine

66. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted to a structure called corpus luteum, which secretes mainly:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. DHEA
4. Corticosterone

67.

If an enzyme catalyses the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA, then it should be called as:
1. endonuclease
2. exonuclease
3 ligase
4. reverse transcriptase

68. Darwin’s finches represent one of the best examples of:
1. Saltation
2. Sympatric speciation
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Convergent evolution

69.

On an average, roughly what percent of cardiac output is filtered by the kidneys per minute?

1.	5	2.	10
3.	20	4.	50

70. In the human alimentary canal what part of the colon opens into the rectum?
1. Ascending
2. Transverse
3. Descending
4. Sigmoid

71. Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles leading to difficulty in breathing is characteristically seen in:
1. Bronchial asthma
2. Emphysema
3. Tuberculosis
4. Pneumonia

72. The end of systole is marked on the ECG by:
1. Beginning of P wave
2. End of the Q wave
3. End of the T wave
4. Beginning of S wave

73. All the following hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy except:

1.	Oxytocin	2.	Relaxin
3.	hCG	4.	hPL

74. Unmyelinated nerve fibre:

I:	is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath around the axon
II:	is commonly found in autonomous and the somatic neural systems

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

75.

Homoiothermy and a four chambered muscular heart is seen in:

I:	Mammals
II:	Crocodiles
III:	Birds

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

76. The most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction in contemporary times is:
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Alien species invasion
3. Over exploitation
4. Co-extinction

77. In 1953, S.L. Miller created conditions similar to those suggested by Oparin and Haldane in a laboratory where he created electric discharge in a closed flask containing:

1.	CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C
2.	CH₄, H₂, HCN and hydrogen sulphide at 400°C
3.	CO₂, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C
4.	CO₂, H₂, HCN and hydrogen sulphide at 400°C

78. The incidences of sexually transmitted infections are reported to be very high among persons in the age group of:
1. 15-24 years
2. 26 – 35 years
3. 35-50 years
4. above 60 years

79. A plasma membrane:

1.	envelops only the acrosome of sperm
2.	envelops only the mid piece of sperm
3.	envelops the whole body of sperm
4.	does not envelop any part of the sperm at all

80. The plasma of a person has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. The blood type of this person will be:

1.	Type O	2.	Type AB
3.	Type A	4.	Type B

81. When compared to the initial filtrate formed, human kidneys can produce urine nearly:
1. 2 times concentrated
2. 4 times concentrated
3. 8 times concentrated
4. 10 times concentrated

82. The use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment is called:
1. Bioremediation
2. Biopiracy
3. Bioprospecting
4. Biofortification

83.

Which of the following vaccines has been produced by recombinant DNA technology?
1. Oral polio vaccine
2. Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine
3. DPT vaccine
4. Hepatitis B vaccine

84. Tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322 carries the recognition sequence for:
1. PstI
2. PvuII
3. BamH I
4. EcoR I

85.

What induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?

1.	rupture of the Graafian follicle
2.	insemination
3.	contact of sperm with zona pellucida
4.	entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum

Biology II - Section B

86.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable.
Statement II:	DNA being double stranded and having complementary strands further resists changes by evolving a process of repair.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

87.

Identify the correct statements amongst the following:

A:	All sexually reproducing organisms are diploid.
B:	The major difference between different cells in the same organism is that they have different DNA.

1. Only A
2. Only B
3. Both A and B
4. Neither A nor B

88. A cell has 2 pg DNA at G₁ phase. What would be the amount of DNA in this cell at the end of anaphase I of meiosis I?
1. 2 pg
2. 4 pg
3. 6 pg
4. 8 pg

89.

A plasmid has a single recognition sequence for EcoRI. When cut with this enzyme, the number of resultant fragments will be:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

90.

Myelin sheath around axons in peripheral nervous system and in central nervous system is produced respectively by:
1. Schwann cells; microglia
2. oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
3. Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes
4. satellite cells; astrocytes

91.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Plant cells possess cell walls, plastids and a large central vacuole which are absent in animal cells.
Statement II:	Animal cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all plant cells.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

92. The number of times the recognition sequence of EcoRI is expected to appear in a dsDNA of 10,000 bp length will be:

1.	1	2.	2
3.	4	4.	8

93.

The number of correct statements in the given statements is:

I:	Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells and Sertoli cells.
II:	Sertoli cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
III:	Leydig cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
IV:	The testis is covered by a dense covering.
V:	Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

94. If the adenohypophysis fails to stop producing growth hormone (GH) after body growth is completed, the person may suffer from:
1. Cretinism
2. Dwarfism
3. Acromegaly
4. Gigantism

95. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The amount of CO₂ that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O₂.
Reason (R):	Haemoglobin does not play any role in the transport of carbon dioxide in human blood.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

96.

Populations at genetic equilibrium [Hardy Weinberg equilibrium]:

1.	are very small
2.	are not experiencing any natural selection
3.	have individuals frequently going out and coming in
4.	are mating randomly

97. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Lipids come under acid insoluble fraction of the cell.
Reason (R):	Acid insoluble fraction is the macromolecular fraction and lipids are macromolecules.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

98.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease urine output.
Statement II:	A person with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will have a higher than normal solute concentration in the urine.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

99.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Mitosis helps in restoration of nuclear cytoplasmic ratio for effective working of a cell.
Statement II:	Mitosis leads to formation of genetically diverse cells leading to generation of variations.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

100.

Adaptations for evolutionary significance:

1.	develop throughout the lifetime of organisms and are then passed on to their offspring
2.	develop after a population encounters a change in environment
3.	are inherited characteristics
4.	decrease the chances of the organism surviving until maturity

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