Glycerol is absent in
1. Lanolin
2. Spermaceti
3. Bee wax
4. All to these
Passage of ova through female reproductive tract is facilitated mainly by
1. Amoeboid movement
2. Ciliary movement
3. Muscular movement only
4. Pseudopodial movement
In the figure given below, A, B, C, and D are
1. Coxal bone, patella, fibula and tibia
2. Coxal bone, patella, tibia and fibula
3. Sacrum, Patella, fibula and tibia
4. Pubis, calcaneum, tibia and fibula
The microvilli Participate in absorption and also indigestion because a number of digestive enzymes are embedded within the epithelial cell's plasma membrane. Which of the following is not an brush bordered enzyme?
1. Lactase
2. Aminopeptidase
3. Carboxypeptidase
4. Erepsin
Which of the following is present in the saliva of all mammals?
1. Mucin
2. Salivary amylase
3. Amylopsin
4. Diastase
When compared to cones of the retina, the rods
1. Are more sensitive to the low intensity of light
2. Are most concentrated in the flovea
3. Are primarily involved in color vision
4. Have higher visual acuity
Which of the following parts of the brain participate in the formation of a brain stem?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla
1. A only
2. A & B only
3. A, B & D only
4. A, B, C & D
The presence of a non-competitive inhibitor
1. Leads to both increases in the of a reaction and increase in the
2. Leads to decrease in the observed
3. Leads to decrease in
4. Increases the steady-state concentration of ES
Which of the following is not a correct match of a nervous structure and its function?
1. Corpus striatum - Regulates planning and execution of stereotyped movements
2. Amygdala - Controls emotional behaviour like aggression and fear
3. Cerebellum - Controls rapid muscular activities like running, typing talking etc.
4. Medulla - Controls stretch reflexes
Which of the following enzyme is not used in ELISA test?
1. Alkaline phosphatase
2. Glucose oxidase
3. Horseradish peroxidase
4. Catalase
A group of early reptiles that may have been warm blooded was the
1. Pelycosaur
2. Therapsids
3. Thecodont
4. All of these
The type of mouth parts in Musca domenstica are
1. Bitting and chewing
2. Sponging
3. Piercing and sucking
4. Siphoning
In motile bacteria, flagellum shows
1. 9+0 arrangement of microtubules
2. Eleven stranded structure of tubulin protein
3. Single stranded structure of flagellin protein
4. 9+2 arrangement of microtubules
A person passes out excessive urine and drinks a lot of water but his glucose level is normal. It is due to
1. Increased secretion of glucagon
2. Fall in glucose concentration released in urine
3. Reduction in insulin secretion
4. Reduction in ADH secretion
Which of the following endocrine glands is related to the maintenance of normal rhythms of the sleep-wake cycle?
1. Thyroid
2. Hypophysis
3. Pineal
4. Thymus
In the production of test-tube babies
1. Fertilization is external and foetus formation is internal
2. Fertilization is internal and foetus formation is external
3. Fertilization and foetus formation are external
4. Fertilization and foetus formation are internal
Which of the following hormones are secreted by the placenta?
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Chronic thyrotropin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
1. A only
2. A & B
3. A, B & C
4. A, B, C & D
Match the following parts of the sperm and their functions
Columns l columns ll
a. head (i) Hyaluronidase
b. middle piece (ii) Energy
c. Acrosome (iii) First cleavage division
d. Proximal centriole (iv) Genetic material
(v) Maintains axial filament
1. a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(i)
2. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
3. a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(v)
4. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(v)
The work of Thomas Malthus on populations influenced Darwin. Natural selection is based on certain observations which are factual. For example, it includes all the following, except
1. Populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuation
2. Population show variation among organisms
3. Natural resources are limited
4. All the variations are inherited
Which of the following is an incorrect match in human evolution wit different hominid species, their brain size, and characteristic features?
Common cold differs from pneumonia in that
1. Pneumonia is caused by a virus while common cold is caused by a bacteria
2. Pneumonia is a communicable disease while common cold is a non-communicable disease
3. Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine
4. Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
Mark the incorrect match
1. AIDS : Western blot
2. French Pox : Wasserman test
3. Dengue : Torniquet test
4. Diptheria : Dick test
Medullary chemosensitive area is more sensitive to fluctuations in concentration of
1. a, b, c & d
2. a & b only
3. a, b, & c only
4. d only
All of the following stimuli can stimulate respiration through chemoreceptor mechanism except
1. Increase in acidity
2. Increase in arterial
3. Decrease in pH
4. Decrease in concentration
Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter from P to T corresponds to a specific electrical activity of the heart. Which of the following waves in ECG represents the beginning of ventricular systole or ventricular systole start shortly after which wave?
1. P-wave
2. T-wave
3. Q-wave
4. QRS-wave
If the heart of a person beats 68 times per minute and pumps about 60 ml blood per contraction, what will be the cardiac output
1. 5040 ml/min
2. 1280 ml/min
3. 4080 ml/min
4. 5.5 L/min
Mark the correct match with respect to fish products
1. Fish meal - Extracted from the skin of shark and rays
2. Shagreen - Extracted from the liver of the shark
3. Isinglass - Gelatinous substance, obtained from the air bladder of bony fishes
4. Fish glue - Sticky product obtained from silvery bony scales of fishes
Which one is the most dangerous sexually transmitted disease?
1. Hepattis-B
2. Genital warts
3. Genital herpes
4. AIDS
Select the DNA sequence which can act as a recognition site of a restriction endonuclease
1. AA CC GG
TT GG CC
2. GG TT GG
CC AACC
3. AA GG CT
TT CC GA
4. CT GC AG
GA CG TC
Which of the following restriction endonucleases will cut the DNA leaving behind blunt ends?
1. Bam Hi
2. Eco Ri
3. Pst l
4. Sma l
What of the following statement is correct about the phylum mollusca regarding pearl formation?
A. Pearl forming molluscs are bivalves
B. Natural pearl formation is induced by factors such as foreign substances parasite or injuries
C. At the site of irritation the shell secreting mantle cells penetrate the connective tissue and being secreting the shell material
D. Ostraea is European pearl oyster
1. A & B
2. A, B & D
3. A, B & C
4. A, B, C & D
Bt cotton is often in news as
1. Bt cotton contains crylAc gene that makes it resistant to com borer pest
2. High yielding pest-resistant variety of cotton having resistance to pest bollworms, Helicoverpa armigera
3. Drought resistant variety of cotton developed by genetic engineering
4. Hybrid of long-staple cotton from America with the native variety
The main challenge for the production of insulin using rDNA techniques was
1. Recognition of insulin gene
2. Separation of insulin gene from the human genome
3. Both (1) & (2)
4. Getting insulin assembled into a mature form
Infertility cases like the inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or very low sperm count in the ejaculate could be corrected by
1. Gamete intrafallopian transfer
2. Zygote intrafallopian transfer
3. Intrauterine transfer
4. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Sexual reproduction is oogamous in
1. Volvox and Fucus
2. Spirogyra and Ulothrix
3. Trichoderma and Polysiphonia
4. Batrachospermum and Colletotrichum
In patients suffering from renal failure, the blood urea level rises abnormally. Which of the following dialysis methods uses the lining of the person's own abdominal cavity as the dialyzing membrane?
1. Hemodialysis
2. CAPD
3. Peritoneal dialysis
4. Both (2) & (3)
Adrenaline and noradrenaline are rapidly secreted in response to stress and during emergency situations and are called emergency hormones or hormones of fight or flight. These hormones are involved in the following functions except
1. Increased co-ordination time, pupillary constriction
2. Piloerection (raising of hair), sweating, etc.
3. Increased heartbeat, the strength of heart contraction and rate of respiration
4. Glycogenolysis resulting in increased concentration of glucose in the blood
Hypophyseal portal vein enables the transport of following hormones except
1. Somatostatin
2. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
3. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
4. Somatotropic hormone
During counter current mechanism, interstitial medullary concentration can be increased up to 4 time due to
a. Active pumping of sails from the upper part of the ascending limb
b. Passive diffusion of salts from the lower part of the ascending limb
c. Passive diffusion of from thick segment of the ascending limb
d. Active secretion of into the thin segment of the tubule
1. a, b, c, & d
2. a & b
3. b & c
4. a only
How many double homozygous individuals are produced by the selfing of a dihybrid?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
What is the phenotypic ratio in double recessive epistasis ?
1. 9 : 7
2. 9 : 3 : 4
3. 12 : 3 : 1
4. 13 : 1
A trihybrid cross is made for height, flower colour and shape of seed in pea, how many progenies are expected with first recessive, second heterozygous dominant and third dominant character?
1. 8/64
2. 6/64
3. 16/64
4. 4/64
Find the correct match with respect to placentation
1. Axile - Hibiscus
2. Free central - Dianthus
3. Parietal - Brassica
4. Basal - Pea
Cytoskeleton performs many functions like mechanical support, motility in
1. Protists
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Methanogens
4. Viruses
Which of the following is incorrect?
1. White adipose tissue - Adipocytes with single large fat droplet
2. Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
3. Fibroblasts cell - Synthesis of collagen
4. Dense connective tissue - Bone, cartilage, lymph
Neurons which connect the central nervous system to the receptors are
1. Sensory neurons
2. Motor neurons
3. Interneurons
4. Both (2) & (3)
Select an incorrect statement
(1) PS-I produces a strong reductant capable of reducing and a weak oxidant
(2) PS-II produces a very strong oxidant capable of oxidising water and a weaker reductant than PS-I
(3) The reductant produced by PS-II re-reduces the oxidant produced by PS-I
(4) PS-II produces a very strong reductant capable of reducing
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis?
1 There is splitting of centromeres in anaphase ll
2 Bivalent to univalent stage of homologous chromosome is concerned with anaphase-l
3 Meiosis never occurs in haploid cell
4 All chromosomes form a single plate at metaphase-l
The adult gametophytic plant body in green moss is differentiated into
1. Diploid rhizonema and chloronema
2. Primary protonema and secondary protonema
3. Foot, seat, and capsule
4. Rhizoids, main axis, and phylloids
Which of the following group of families are included in the order Polynomials?
1 Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
2 Anacardiaceae and Convolvulaceae
3 Solanaceae and Anacardiacea
4 Anacardiacea and Poaceae
Global species diversity and land area covered by India with respect to world is
1. 12%, 7%
2. 2.4%, 9%
3. 8.1%, 2.4%
4. 4%, 3%
Four statements (a-d) are given below where the correct are
a. Essential element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant
b. Deficiency of a specific element cannot be met by supplying some other element
c. The essential element must be necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction
d. Plants can set the seed and reproduce even in the absence of an essential element
1. a, b, c, d
2. a, c, d
3. a, b, c
4. b, c, d
Restorage of nucleocytoplasmic ratio is performed in
1 phase
2 S Phase
3 phase
4 M phase
Choose the odd one out with respect to adaptations in organisms
1. Altitude sickness in humans is a physiological means to counteract the stressful condition
2. Biochemical adaptations are seen in organisms present at great depths in oceans
3. Allen's rule is seen in mammals of colder climate
4. Desert lizards lack the physiological and behavioural means to manage their body temperature
Which of the following is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction?
1. Biological invasion
2. Habitat loss and fragmentation
3. Over-exploitation
4. Co-extinctions
In natural classification system
1. Equal weightage is given to vegetative and sexual characters
2. Natural affinities among the organisms are considered
3. Organisms belonging to the same taxa are phylogenetically related to common ancestor
4. Cytological informations are also used to resolve confusions
Population of less distributed species increases dramatically when its superior competitor is removed experimentaly from a geographical area. The phenomenon is called as
1. Competitive exclusion
2. Competitive release
3. Resource partitioning
4. Niche displacement
Ecologically the most relevant environmental factor that directly affects the rate of metabolism of a species and decides its distribution is
1. Temperature
2. Rainfall
3. Water
4. Light
Read the following statements (with respect to imbibition):
A. Special type of diffusion when water is absorbed by solid colloids.
B. There is enormous increase in volume of imbibant.
C. Affinity between the absorbant and absorbate is a pre-requisite.
D. Water movement occurs against the concentration gradient.
1. Only A is correct
2. Only A and B are correct
3. Only A, B and C are correct
4. All are correct
Thinning of cotton and promotion of femaleness in cucumber are physiological effects of PGR which
1. | Helps of withstand desiccation conditions and is antagonistic to GAs |
2. | Increases the market period of fruits by delaying senescence |
3. | Is synthesized in large amounts in ripening fruits and tissues undergoing senescence |
4. | Prevents fruit and leaf drop at early stages and produced by growing apices of stem |
Which part of a plant is best suited for making virus-free plants through tissue culture?
1. Apical meristems
2. Axillary meristems
3. Haploid part like anther
4. More than one option is correct
Read the following statements with respect to glycolysis and select the right choice.
a. Two redox equivalents are removed from PGAL.
b. Pyruvic acid is the key product.
c. Glucose undergoes complete oxidation to produce two molecules of pyruvic acid.
d. The conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid is energy requiring process.
1 Only c is incorrect
2 b & d are correct
3 c & d are incorrect
4 Only b is correct
Find correct match
Columb l Column ll
a. Tetradynamous i. Papilionaceae
b. Diadelphous ii. Brassicaceae
c. Syngenesious iii. Liliaceae
d. Epiphyllous iv. Asteraceae
1. a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
2. a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
3. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
4. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
Select an incorrect match
1. Ascomycetes - Morchella
2. Deutermoycetes - Alternaria
3. Basidiomycetes - Puccinia
4. Phycomycetes - Erysiphe
The pathogen of potato spindle tuber disease
1. In infectious RNA with a high molecular weight
2. In infectious to both plants and animals
3. Is a tightly folded RNA with low molecular weight
4. Has protein coat as well as genetic material
Choose the odd one out with respect to slime moulds
1. | Spores possess true cellulosic walls |
2. | The body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material |
3. | Can grow and spread over several feets |
4. | Spores are dispersed by water currents |
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. In Calotropis, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other
2. A bud is present in the axil of both simple and compound leaves
3. leaves are small and long-lived in Australian Acacia
4. Veinlets form a network in the leaves of most dicotyledonous plants
Select the incorrect statement with respect to sex-linked inheritance in humans
1. Males are more susceptible to X-linked recessive diseases
2. Y-chromosome of males move to male offsprings, the inherited traits are called holandric
3. Females can be normal, carrier or diseased for X-linked dominant trait
4. Crisscross inheritance is possible in color blindness
Which one of the following scientists is not included in the list of rediscoverer of Mendelism?
1. Hugo de Vries
2. Kolreuter
3. Carl correns
4. Tschermak
Select incorrect option with respect to sickle cell anaemia
1. It is an example of point mutation
2. it occurs due to base substitution i.e. transition
3. Glutamic acid is replaced by Valine at sixth position in a polypeptide chain
4. Mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under low oxygen tension
The endomembrane system of the cell includes
1. ER + Golgi body + Mitochondria
2. ER + Golgi body + Vacuole + Microtubules
3. ER + Golgi body + Lysosome + Vacuole
4. ER + Golgi body + Chloroplast + Lysosome
Development of male gametes before pollination is present in approximately__________ of angiospermic plants
1. 60%
2. 80%
3. 10%
4. 40%
The fluidity of the cell membrane is measured
1. On the amount of cholesterol and protein in membrane
2. On the amount of carbohydrate in membrane
3. On the lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
4. On the flip-flop movement of protein
Find correct match (column-l with column-ll)
Column l Column ll
a. Steroidal hormone i. Golgi bodies
b. Lipochondria ii. SER
c. Porins iii. Microtubules
d. iv. Plastids
1. a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
2. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life, before they can reproduce sexually. That period of growth
1. Is called the juvenile phase, not vegetative phase
2. Is called the vegetative phase, not the juvenile phase
3. While ends then marks the beginning of the reproductive phase
4. Is variable in the same organisms
Which of the following is the common feature of anemophilous and hydrophilous plants?
1. Produce pollen grains coated with mucilage
2. Scentless flowers and abundant nectar
3. Flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar
4. Non-sticky pollen grains and brightly colourful flowers
During microsporogenesis
1. Microspore tetrad is developed by meiosis in sporogenous tissue
2. Pollen grains are developed by mitosis in sporogenous tissue
3. Microspore develops into the male gametophyte
4. Male gametes are produced by pollen grain
In hydrarch succession, pioneer community is phytoplankton and climax community is forest (mesic). Given below is name of seral stages, arrange them in accordance with their appearance.
a. Submerged free-floating plant stage
b. Reed-swamp stage
c. Submerged plant stage
d. Scrub stage
e. Marsh Meadow stage
1. c, a, b, d & e
2. b, a, c, d & e
3. d, a, c, b, & e
4. d, a, b, c & e
Productivity in an ecosystem at the producer level depends upon
1. Availability of nutrients in the soil
2. Photosynthetic capacity of plants
3. Variety of environmental factors
4. All of these
Amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is known as
1. Gross primary productivity
2. Net primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Primary production
Organic enrichment of lakes is also considered to be ''death of lakes'' and is associated with
1. Increases DO
2. Decreased BOD
3. Decreased non-biodegradable components
4. Growth of algal blooms
DNA fingerprinting involves
1. Identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence
2. Satellite DNA
3. Repetitive DNA
4. More than one option is correct
a. Part marked as (B) has five types of histone proteins.
b. Part marked as (A) is rich in basic amino acid residues.
c. Part marked as (C) is made up of 400 nucleotides.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
1. a, c
2. a only
3. c only
4. a, b
Read the following statements carefully
a. Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 to control the emission of ODS
b. By the end of the twentieth century, the forest cover shrunk to about 30 percent
c. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical, zero waste procedure, that allows maximum utilisation of resources and increases the efficiency of production
d. Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of toxic substances at lower trophic level only
1. a & c are correct
2. a & d are correct
3. The only d is correct
4. Only b is incorrect
Find odd one with respect to primary pollutants.
1. CO
2.
3. PAN
4.
Bark refers to all the tissues
1. External to the vascular cambium
2. External to cork cambium
3. Formed earlier in the season
4. Impregnated with suberin
Match the column I with column II
Column I | Column II | ||
a. | Xylem parenchyma | (i) | Absent in most of the monocots |
b. | Sclereids | (ii) | Lond cylindrical tube-like structure |
c. | Phloem parenchyma | (iii) | Food and tannins |
d. | Vessel | (iv) | Fruit walls of nuts |
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
3. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
4. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
During translation (protein synthesis), the enzyme that catalyses peptide bonding is located in the
1. Central part of the tRNA
2. Larger subunit of the ribosome
3. Smaller subunit of the ribosome
4. 5' end of the mRNA
Which of the given set of characters is related to the family having vexillary aestivation of corolla?
1. Epiphyllous stamen and axile placentation
2. Diadelphous stamen and marginal placentation
3. Syngenesious stamen and basal placentation
4. Scutellum as cotyledon and basal placentation
Baculoviruses does not show
1. Host specificity
2. Narrow spectrum applications
3. Effects on non-target pathogens
4. Utility in IPM programme
(CH3)3CCI + (CH3)3C K+ → Product
1. SN Product will be more
2. E2 Product will be more
3. Both will be the same
4. None of the above
The major end product of the following reaction is
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
Z
Common oxidizing agents used in organic chemistry are;
1. Fenton's reagent
2. osmium tetroxide
3. acidified KMnO4
4. all are correct
In E2 elimination, some compounds follow Hofmann's rule which means:
1. the double bond goes to the most substituted carbon
2. the compound is resistant to elimination
3. no double bond is formed
4. the double bond goes mainly towards the least substituted carbon
In the given reaction
The product will be:
1.
2.
3. Mixture of 1 and 2
4.
Which among the following compounds is used for protection of carbonyl groups?
1. HCN
2.
3.
4.
Which has maximum dipole moment :-
1.
2.
3.
4.
White fumes appear around the bottle of anhydrous AlCl3. This is due to -
1. Formation of Al(OH)3
2. Dimerisation of AlCl3
3. Hydrolysis of AlCl3 gives HCl gas
4. Adsorption of moisture
on heating (below 200 degrees celsius) liberates a gas. The same gas will be obtained below 600 degrees celsius by :
1. Heating
2. Heating
3. Heating
4. None of the above
Van-Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to a :
1. Volatile stable compound
2. Non-volatile stable compound
3. Non-volatile unstable compound
4. None of the above
The expression which gives th life 1st order reaction is :-
1.
2.
3.
4.
For a reaction A → B, the Arrhenius equation is given as \(log_{e}k \ = \ 4 \ - \ \frac{1000}{T}\) the activation energy in J/mol for the given reaction will be:
1. 8314
2. 2000
3. 2814
4. 3412
Which of the following can act as oxidant and reductant :-
1.
2. KMn
3.
4.
The charge of A sol is due to the absorbed
1.
2.
3.
4.
7.0 g of gas occupies 5.6 L of volume at STP. The gas is-
1. NO
2.
3. CO
4.
An alkene that gives a mixture of ketones only on ozonolysis, from the following, is :
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Amongst the following, the alcohol that reacts with conc. HCl /anhydrous ZnCl2 to form alkyl halide at room temperature, will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Consider the following reaction:-
A and B are isomeric compounds. Additionally, A is a monochloro derivative. These two can be differentiated easily by using-
1. AgN(aq)
2.
3. Conc.HN/
4. NaCl(aq)
can be most suitably prepared by:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
An acid that acts as a vitamin is
1. | Aspartic acid | 2. | Glumatic acid |
3. | Ascorbic acid | 4. | Saccharic acid |
The main product of the following reaction will be-
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
lUPAC name of complex [Cr(NO2)(NH3)5[ZnCl4] is:-
1. PentaamminenitritoNchromium(lll) terachloridozincate(ll)
2. PentaamminenitritoOchromium(lll) terachlorozincate(ll)
3. PentaamminenitroNchromium(lll) terachloridozincate(ll)
4. PentaamminenitroOchromium(lll) terachlorozincate(ll)
Among the following compounds, the paramagnetic compound with two unpaired electrons is:
1. K3[Fe(CN)6]
2. K2[NiCl]4
3. K2[CoCl4]
4. Na2[Ni(CN)4]
Out of Be, Mg, Ca, Sr and Ba,
Total number of metal whose nitrates are decomposed according to the following reaction are:
2M(NO3)2 Residue + 4NO2 + O2
1. 5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
The Brown ring test of is due to formation of complex :-
1.
2. [Fe(H2O)6]+2
3.
4. [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]+2
lUPAC name of turnbull's blue is :-
1. lron(ll) hexacyanidoiron(lll)
2. lron(lll) hexacyanidoiron(lll)
3. lron(ll) hexacyanidoferrate(lll)
4. lron(lll) hexacyanidoferrate(ll)
Mish metal is the alloy of :-
1. Fe + Ce
2. La + Ce
3. Cu + Ni
4. Cu + C
Which of the following gas can be most readily liquefied?
(Given : Value of 'a' for
1. NH
2. Cl
3. SO
4. CO
The following reaction is the best method to introduce F to benzene:
The structure of intermediate compound A is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
1 mol of Ar gas will have least density at :
1. STP
2. 0°C and 2 atm
3. 273°C and 2 atm
4. 273°C and 1 atm
Which of the following pairs of molecules have bond order three and are isoelectronic?
Which is the correct decreasing order of covalent nature?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following compounds is a planar and a polar compound?
1. TeCl4
2. SO2
3. SF6
4. XeF2
bond is present in :-
Which of the following order is incorrect :-
1. HF < HCl < HBr < HI (Acidic nature)
2. NaO > MgO > AlO (Basic nature)
3. Cu2> Zn2> Zn > Cu (I.P. order)
4. Ar< CI- < Cl < Ar (I.P. order)
The specific conductivity of a saturated solution of KI3 is 4.59 × 10-6 ohm-1 cm-1 and it's molar conductance is 1.53 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1. The Ksp Of KI3 will be :
1. 4 x 10-12
2. 27 x 27 x 10-9
3. 9 x 10-6
4. 4 x 10-6
A 100.0 mL dilute solution of Ag+ is electrolyzed for 15.0 minutes with a current of 1.25 mA and the silver is removed completely. The initial [Ag+] is :-
1. 2.32 x 10 M
2. 2.32 x 10 M
3. 2.32 x 10 M
4. 1.17 x 10 M
Which one of the following pair of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same temperature?
1. 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl
2. 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl
3. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M NaSO
4. 0.1 M Ca(NO) and 0.1 M NaSO
The heat of solution of BaCl2.2H2O(s) and anhydrous BaCl2(s) are 8.8 kJmol-1 and
–20.62 kJmol-1 respectively then the heat of hydration of BaCl2(s) will be:-
1. –12.25 kJ mol
2. –29.4 kJ mol
3. –11.37 kJ mol
4. +12.25 kJ mol
The maximum work done in expanding 16g isothermally at 300 K and occupying a volume of 5 dm3 until the volume becomes 25 dm3 is-
1. –2.01 J
2. 2.01× J
3. +2.81 J
4. +2.01J
If the molar concentration of is mol L–1, the concentration of chloride ions will be:
1. | 3.0 x 10-3 | 2. | 6.0 x 10-3 |
3. | 0.3 x 10-3 | 4. | 0.6 x 10-6 |
The percentage degree of hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid (HA) and weak base (BOH) in its 0.1 M solution is found to be 10%. If the molarity of the solution is 0.05 M, the percentage hydrolysis of the salt should be -
1. 5 %
2. 10 %
3. 20 %
4. None of the above
The ratio of energy of the electron in ground state of the Hydrogen to electron in first excited state of He is :-
1. 1 : 4
2. 1 : 1
2. 1 : 8
4. 1 : 16
The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number n = 3 & spin quantum number = is :
1. 9
2. 18
3. 32
4. 6
The weight of a molecule of the compound is –
1. 1.4 × 10 g
2. 1.09 × 10 g
3. 5.025 × 10 g
4. 16.023 × 10 g
If the electric field at a point is along the south, the potential gradient is zero
1. along north
2. along south
3. along north-east
4. along east and west
What is the maximum value of 5sinθ – 12cosθ?
1. 12
2. 17
3. 7
4. 13
The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the center of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the center of the sphere is:-
1. 0
2. E
3. E/2
4. E/3
How many times the unit of energy will be increased if each of units of mass, length, and time is increased four times?
1. 16 times
2. 1/16 times
3. 4 times
4. 1/4 times
Electric field due to an infinite line of charge as shown in figure (a) at a point P at a distance r from the line is E. If the wire is folded at point A so that both parts lie alongside as shown in figure (b), then express electric field at P in vector form.
1.
2.
3.
4.
If an electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V, then its final speed is proportional to:-
1. V
2.
3.
4. 1/V
Two heating coils, one of fine wire and the other of thick wire of the same material and of the same length are connected in series and in parallel. Which of the following statements is correct?
1. In series, fine wire liberates more energy while in the parallel thick wire will liberate more energy
2. In series, fine wire liberates less energy while in the parallel thick wire will liberate more energy
3. Both will liberate equally
4. In series, the thick wire will liberate more energy while in parallel it will liberate less energy
A pebble is released from rest at a certain height and falls freely reaching an impact speed of 4m/s at the floor. Next, the pebble is thrown down with an initial speed of 3 m/s from the same height. What is its speed at the floor?
1. 4 m/s
2. 5 m/s
3. 6 m/s
4. 7 m/s
An ammeter reads up to \(1\) A. Its internal resistance is \(0.81\) \(\Omega\). To increase the range to \(10\) A, the value of the required shunt is:
1. \(0.09~\Omega\)
2. \(0.03~\Omega\)
3. \(0.3~\Omega\)
4. \(0.9~\Omega\)
A particle is projected from a trolley car with a velocity . If the trolley car moves with an acceleration towards the right, which of the following remain unchanged relative to both ground and trolley car?
1. Range
2. Maximum range
3. Time of flight
4. Horizontal velocity
A force is acted upon a body of mass 'm'. If the body starts from rest and was at the origin initially, its new co-ordinates after time t are :
1.
2.
3.
4. None of these
A block of weight W is supported by two strings inclined at 60° and 30° to the vertical. The tensions in the strings are as shown. If these tensions are to be determined in terms of W using the triangle law of forces, which of these triangles should you draw? (block is in equilibrium) :-
1. 2.
3. 4.
A parallel plate capacitor is connected across a battery. Now, keeping the battery connected, a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates. In this process,
1. no work is done
2. work is done by the battery and the stored energy increases
3. work is done by the external agent and the stored energy decreases
4. Work is done by the battery as well as the external agent but the stored energy does not change
For the given figure, find the force of friction between blocks when F is 100 N:-
1. 80 N
2. 100 N
3. 40 N
4. 60 N
The magnetic field at center O of the arc shown in the figure is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Consider six wires with the same current flowing through them as they enter or exit the page. Rank the magnetic field's line integral counterclockwise around each loop, going from most positive to most negative.
1. B > C > D > A
2. B > C = D > A
3. B > A > C = D
4. C > B = D > A
A train of mass kg is going up an inclined plane with incline 1 in 49 at a rate of 10 m/s. If the resistance due to friction be 10 N per metric ton, the power of the engine is:- (g = 9.8 m/)
1. 4.38 × W
2. 2.14 × W
3. 5 × W
4. 9.2 × W
In the circuit diagram shown in figure, R = 10 \(\Omega\), L = 5 H, E = 20 V and i = 2 A. This current is decreasing at a rate of 1.0 A/s. at this instant will be:
1. | 40 V | 2. | 35 V |
3. | 30 V | 4. | 45 V |
When the current in the portion of the circuit shown in the figure is 2 A and increases at the rate of 1 A/s, the measured potential difference 8 V. However, when the current is 2 A and decreases at the rate of 1 A/s, the measured potential difference 4 V. The value of R and L is:
1. | 3 Ω and 2 H respectively |
2. | 3 Ω and 3 H respectively |
3. | 2 Ω and 1 H respectively |
4. | 3 Ω and 1 H respectively |
Two loads ( ) are connected by a string passing over a fixed pulley. The center of gravity of loads are initially at the same height. Find the acceleration of the center of gravity of the system:
1. \(\left(\frac{(P_1-P_2)^{\frac{1}{2}}}{P_1+P_2}\right)\text{g}\)
2. \(\left(\frac{P_1-P_2}{P_1+P_2}\right)\text{g}\)
3. \(\left( \frac{P_1-P_2}{P_1+P_2}\right)^2 \text{g}\)
4. \(\left( \frac{P_1+P_2}{P_1-P_2}\right)\text{g}\)
In a heating arrangement, an alternating current having a peak value of 28 A is used. To produce the same heat energy if the direct current is used, its magnitude must be:-
1. about 14 A
2. about 28 A
3. about 20 A
4. cannot say
Six identical balls are lined in a straight groove made on a horizontal frictionless surface as shown in figure. Two similar balls each moving with a velocity v collide elastically with the row of six balls from left. What will happen-
1. One ball from the right rolls out with a speed 2v and the remaining balls will remain at rest.
2. Two balls from the right roll out with speed v each and the remaining balls will remain stationary.
3. All the six balls in the row will roll out with speed v/6 each and the two colliding balls will come to rest.
4. The colliding balls will come to rest and no ball rolls out from the right.
A solid sphere of mass M, radius R, and having a moment of inertia about an axis passing through the center of mass as I, is recast into a disc of thickness t, whose moment of inertia about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane remains I. Then, the radius of the disc will be:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its center of mass is K. If the radius of the ball be R, then the fraction of total energy associated with its rotational energy will be:–
1.
2.
3.
4.
5 g of water at \(30^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) and 5 g of ice at \(-20^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) are mixed together in a calorimeter. The water equivalent of the calorimeter is negligible, and the specific heat and latent heat of ice are 0.5 \(\text{cal/g}^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) and 80 \(\text{cal/g}\), respectively. The final temperature of the mixture is:
1. | \(0^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) | 2. | \(-8^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) |
3. | \(-4^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) | 4. | \(2^{\circ} \mathrm{C}\) |
One mole of a gas is subjected to two processes AB and BC, one after the other, as shown in the figure. BC is represented by . We can conclude that:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
When without a change in temperature, a gas is forced in a smaller volume, its pressure increases because its molecules:-
1. strike the unit area of the container wall more often.
2. strike the unit area of the container wall at a higher speed.
3. strike the unit area of the container wall with greater momentum.
4. have more energy.
When a system is taken from state \(i\) to state \(f\) along path \(iaf, \) \(Q=50\) J and \(W=20\) J. If \(W=-13\) J for the curved return path \(fi,\) \(Q\) in this path is:
1. \(33\) J
2. \(23\) J
3. \(-7\) J
4. \(-43\) J
The thickness of a metallic plate is 0.4 cm. The temperature difference between its two surfaces is 20°C. The quantity of heat flowing per second is 50 erg from
area. In the CGS system, the coefficient of thermal conductivity will be:-
1. 0.4
2. 0.6
3. 0.2
4. 0.5
A beam of white light is incident on a hollow prism of glass as shown in the figure. Then:-
1. the light emerging from prism gives spectrum but the bending of all colors is away from the base
2. the light emerging from prism gives spectrum, all the colors bend towards the base, the violet
most and red least
3. the light emerging from prism gives spectrum, all the colors bend towards the base, the red the most and violet the least
4. the light emerging from prism gives no spectrum
The near point of a person is 50 cm and the far point is 1.5 m. The spectacles required for reading purpose and for seeing distant objects are respectively:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
When an unpolarized light of intensity is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which does not get transmitted is :
1. 0
2.
3.
4.
Two communicating vessels contain mercury. The diameter of one vessel is n times larger than the diameter of the other. A column of water of height h is poured into the left vessel. The mercury level will rise in the right-hand vessel (s = relative density of mercury and = density of water) by
1.
2.
3.
4.
Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that the upward force due to surface tension is balanced by 75 × newton force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface tension of water is 6 × newton/meter then the inner circumference of the capillary must be :
1. 1.25 x m
2. 0.50 x m
3. 6.5 x m
4. 12.5 x m
The Poisson's ratio of a material is \(0.4.\) If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease in the cross-section area by \(2\)%. In such a case the percentage increase in its length will be:
1. | \(3\)% | 2. | \(2.5\)% |
3. | \(1\)% | 4. | \(0.5\)% |
The potential energy of a satellite having mass m and rotating at a height of 6.4 × m from the Earth's surface is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Suppose we consider a large number of containers each containing initially 64000 atoms of radioactive material with a half-life of 2 yr. After 2 years:
1. All the containers will have 32000 atoms of the material
2. All the containers will contain the same number of atoms of the material but that number will only be approximately 32000
3. The containers will, in general, have different numbers of the atoms of the material but their average will be close to 32000
4. None of the containers can have more than 32000 atom
A free atom of iron emits X-rays of energy 6.4 keV. The recoil kinetic energy of the atom will be- (if given mass of iron atom = 9.3 × kg)
1. 3.9 × eV
2. 4.9 × eV
3. 3.9 × eV
4. 4.9 × eV
Find out the velocity of an electron so that its momentum is equal to that of a photon with a wavelength of 5200Å:-
1. 1400 m/s
2. 700 m/s
3. 1700 m/s
4. 400 m/s
The combination of 'NAND' gates shown in the figure is equivalent to:-
1. An OR gate and an AND gate respectively
2. An AND gate and a NOT gate respectively
3. An AND gate and an OR gate respectively
4. An OR gate and a NOT gate respectively
An observer starts moving with uniform acceleration towards a stationary sound source of frequency . As the observer approaches the source, the apparent frequency f heard by the observer varies with time t as
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
If a P-N junction diode is not connected to any circuit-
1. the N-type side is at higher potential than the P-type side
2. the P-type is at higher potential than the N-type side
3. there is no electric field at the junction
4. there is an electric field at the junction directed from the P-type side to the N-type side
The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The output F of the circuit is represented by:-
1. W(X + Y)
2. W·(X · Y)
3. W + (X · Y)
4. W + (X + Y)
The output in the circuit shown in the figure taken across a capacitor is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
What will be the energy loss per hour in the iron core of a transformer if the area of its hysteresis loop is equivalent to 2500 erg/? The frequency of the alternating current is 50 Hz. The mass of the core is 10 kg and the density of iron is 7.5 gm/ -
1. joule
2. joule
3. joule
4. joule