Some universal rules of Binomial Nomenclature for
naming of organisms are given below, in which one is
incorrectly mentioned. Identify that one.
1. The scientific name is printed in italics or underlined
separately when handwritten.
2. Biological names are generally taken from Greek
language irrespective of their origin.
3. The first word denoting genus starts with a capital
letter.
4. Specific epithet starts with a small letter
A place used for storing, preservation, and exhibition of
both plants and animals is called
1. Museum
2. Botanical garden
3. Herbarium
4. Flora
Which one of the following features does not belong to
that prokaryote which is wall less?
1. Sensitive to penicillin.
2. Heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
3. Contains both RNA and DNA.
4. Flagella are absent.
Read the following statements and select the two of
them which are correct for the members of
Basidiomycetes.
a. Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores.
b. Sexual spores are produced exogenously.
c. Mycelia are branched and septate.
d. One of the member is extensively used in
biochemical and genetic work.
1. a and c
2. b and d
3. b and c
4. a and d
Select the wrongly matched pair.
1. Ectocarpus - Laterally attached flagella in
zoospores.
2. Sphagnum - Zygotic meiosis absent.
3. Funaria - Vegetative reproduction by
fragmentation.
4. Porphyra - Motile asexual spores.
Which of the following characteristics are common in
both Selaginella and Pinus?
(i) Spores are of two types.
(ii) Vascular tissues are not present.
(iii) Main plant body is sporophyte.
(iv) Male and female gametophytes are retained on the
sporophyte.
1. (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. (i), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i) and (iii) only
4. (iii) and (iv) only
The term phylloclade is related to
1. Aerial stem
2. Leaf
3. Underground stem
4. Petiole
Match column I with column II and select the correct
option.
Column I Column II
a. A (i) Tomato
b. Epiphyllous androecium (ii) Lily
c. Ovary inferior (iii) Mustard
d. Gamosepalous (iv) Epigynous flower
1. a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
2. a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)
3. a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)
4. a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d (iv)
The cells which give rise to a part of vascular cambium
in main root and laterals roots are
1. Parenchymatous cells of pericycle.
2. Collenchymatus cells of endodermis.
3. Parenchymatous cells of endodermis.
4. Meristematic cells of cortex.
Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
1. The size of vascular bundles in all the veins of a
dicot leaf are not same.
2. Autumn wood is formed due to high activity of
cambium.
3. The part of plants which has radial vascular bundles
can also show secondary growth in dicots.
4. Dicot stems have collenchymatous hypodermis.
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(a) Have 70S ribosomes.
(b) Synthesise proteins in cytoplasm.
Select the correct option.
1. Both (a) and (b) are false.
2. Both (a) and (b) are true.
3. (a) is true and (b) is false.
4. (b) is rue and (a) is false .
Choose the incorrectly matched pair.
1. Contractile vacuole - Excretion.
2. SER - Steroidal hormones synthesis.
3. Xanthophyll - Fat soluble pigment.
4. Eukaryotic flagellum - Extension of basal body.
In G phase of cell cycle
1. RNA synthesis stops.
2. DNA replicates.
3. Deoxyribonucleotide synthesis begins.
4. Tubulin protein synthesis takes place.
Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on the equatorial
plate and splitting of centromeres occur respectively
in which of the following stages of cell division?
1. Anaphase I and anaphase II.
2. Metaphase II and anaphase I.
3. Metaphase I and anaphase II.
4. Pachytene and telophase I.
The interconnected cells which do not show symplastic movement of water are:
1. Mesophyll cells
2. Tracheids
3. Xylem parenchyma cells
4. Cells of endodermis
In most terrestrial plants stomata normally open in the daytime. The immediate cause of the opening of the stomata is:
1. Circular orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the guard cells.
2. Loss of water from guard cells.
3. An increase in CO concentration in the sub-stomatal cavity.
4. An increase in the turgidity of the guard cells.
Which of the following elements is absorbed by plants
as monovalent cation?
1. Magnesium
2. Potassium
3. Iron
4. Chlorine
The first step in biological nitrogen fixation is the
conversion of
1. Ammonia into nitrites.
2. Nitrates into nitrites.
3. Nitrogen into ammonia.
4. Ammonia into nitrates.
Select the Incorrect statement from the following.
1. Nostoc performs oxygenic photosynthesis.
2. During photorespiration, O is first utilized in chloroplast, and CO is released in mitochondria.
3. In a chloroplast, lumen of thylakoids always have least number of protons during
photophosphorylation .
4. In the plants like sugarcane and Amaranthus, primary CO acceptor is phosphoenol pyruvate.
Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I | Column-II |
a. Photolysis of water | (i) C plants |
b. Carboxylation of RuBP | (ii) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation |
c. Synthesis of ATP only | (iii) Cyclic photophosphorylation |
d. Consumption of 5 ATP per CO2 fixed |
(iv) Calvin cycle |
1. a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i)
2. a (iii), b (iv), c (ii), d (i)
3. a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv)
4. a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d (iv)
Read the following statements and choose the option which is true for them.
Statement-I : | During conversion of succinic acid to fumaric acid in Krebs cycle, one molecule of FAD is synthesized. |
Statement-II : | There are three steps in the Krebs cycle where CO 2 is released. |
1. Only statement I is correct.
2. Only statement II is correct.
3. Both the statements I and II are correct.
4. Both the statements I and II are incorrect.
When tripalmitin is used as substrate in respiration, the value of RQ is found to be less than one because
1. | It contains less number of carbon atoms than oxygen atoms. |
2. | The amount of CO2 evolved is more than the amount of O2 consumed. |
3. | The amount of O2 consumed is more than the amount of CO2 evolved. |
4. | The ratio of the numbers of carbon and hydrogen atoms in this molecule is not 1 : 2. |
In a flowering plant if auxins are not synthesizing, then effects which would most probably be seen in this plant are
i. Dropping of fruits at early stage.
ii. Inhibition in the growth of lateral buds.
iii. Delayed abscission of older mature leaves.
iv. Inhibition of cell division in cambium.
1. i, ii and iv
2. i, iii and iv
3. ii and iv only
4. i and iii only
Lettuce hypocotyl elongation test is performed for bioassay of
1. Gibberellin
2. Ethylene
3. Cytokinin
4. ABA
Leaves of which of the following plants are involved in vegetative reproduction?
1. Opuntia
2. Potato
3. Bryophyllum
4. Sugarcane
All of the following organisms produce isogametes, except
1. Ulothrix
2. Marchantia
3. Cladophora
4. Rhizopus
Apomixis is a mechanism in which
1. Nucellus or integuments never participate in embryo
formation.
2. Seeds are produced without fertilization.
3. A diploid egg is fertilized by a male gamete.
4. Embryo always develops from haploid cells.
Choose the correctly matched pair.
1. Ovule of an angiosperm - Called megasporophyll.
2. Cleistogamy - Closed flower.
3. Triple fusion - Zygote.
4. Terminal end of - Root cap
hypocoty.
Total sum of possible genotypes and phenotypes of
blood type amongst the children of a couple having
genotypes and can be
1. 8
2. 6
3. 7
4. 5
Consider the following human pedigree in which the dark symbols represent the affected individuals.
Which of the following conclusions, about that character cannot be derived from the above pedigree?
a. Y - linked.
b. X - linked recessive.
c. Autosomal recessive.
d. Autosomal dominant.
1. a & d
2. b & d
3. b & c
4. a & b
An individual affected with Turner's syndrome
1. Lacks X - chromosomes.
2. Has an additional copy of X- chromosome.
3. Is monosomic due to the presence of only one X - chromosome.
4. Has trisomic condition of an autosome.
By performing a series of experiments that showed the effect of R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae on mice, Griffith concluded that
1. Protein digesting enzyme does not affect
transformation.
2. DNA is more stable genetic material than RNA.
3. DNA replication is semi conservative.
4. Non-virulent bacteria were tranformed by heat killed
virulent bacteria.
Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes in DNA replication. In addition to acting as substrate. the other function is similar to
1. DNA polymerase
2. rRNA
3. Topoisomerase
4. ATP
In lac operon
1. Promoter gene interacts with regulator molecule.
2. Regulator gene possesses the site for RNA
polymerase attachment.
3. Lac z codes for an enzyme that increases
permeability of cell to -galactosides.
4. The i gene codes for a protein known as repressor
protein
For which of the following qualities, Saccharum barberi
was selected, to get desirable qualities in new varieties
of sugarcane?
1. Ability to grow well in low winter temperature.
2. Higher sugar content.
3. Thicker stem and reduced leaves.
4. Soft and branched stem.
In 1963, varieties such as Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were introduced in India. These varieties are of
1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Mustard
4. Maize
Statins have been commercialised as __A__ and is produced by a __B__ .
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks A and B.
1. A – Blood-cholesterol lowering agents
B – Fungus
2. A – Clot busters
B – Fungus
3. A – Clot busters
B – Bacterium
4. A – Immunosuppressive agents
B – Bacterium
Identify the following statement as True (T) or False (F) and select the correct option
I. The algae having blue and red wavelengths
absorbing pigments, found at shallowest depth.
II. Nearly all plants can maintain a constant internal
environment.
III. Phylloclade in Opuntia is a morphological
adaptation to survive in desert habitat.
I II III
1. F T T
2. T T F
3. T F T
4. F F T
Select the wrongly matched pair
1. Predator - Herbivore.
2. Brood parasitism - Cuckoo.
3. Commensalism - Barnacles on the whale.
4. Mutualism - Sea anemone on a hermit crab.
Which of the following organisms can be placed at the place of 'X' in the given food chain?
Plant Insect 'X' , Snake Eagle
1. Mouse
2. Frog
3. Owl
4. Earthworm
Match the following columns and select the correct
option
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
a. |
Phytoplanktons |
(i) |
Key industry animals |
b. |
Saprotrophic bacteria |
(ii) |
Pioneer community in hydrarch succession |
c. |
Primary consumers |
(iii) |
Pioneer community of xerarch succession |
d. |
Lichens |
(iv) |
Nature's scavengers |
1. a (ii), b (iv), c (i), d (iii)
2. a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
3. a (iii), b (iv), c (i), d (ii)
4. a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii)
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
a. As we move on Earth from low to high latitude, the
biodiversity increases.
b. In rivet popper hypothesis given by Paul Ehrlich,
rivets on the wings are considered as key species.
c. India possesses 8.1% species diversity of the world.
1. b and c only
2. b only
3. All a, b and c
4. a and c only
Out of the following, which group of animals has least
number of species in Amazonian rain forest?
1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Amphibians
4. Reptiles
Favourable conditions for the formation of
photochemical smog in traffic-congested cities are
1. Low temperature and humid atmosphere.
2. Low light intensity and low humidity.
3. Warm atmosphere and intense solar radiation.
4. High temperature and high humidity
In 1987, the international treaty to control the emission
of ODS was signed in
1. Copenhagen
2. Canada
3. Paris
4. Morocco
Mark the incorrect match regarding Inulin and Insulin?
Inulin Insulin
1. Structural Hormonal polysaccharide
polypeptide
2. Homopolymer Hetropolymer.
3. Plant product Pancreatic cell secretion.
4. Molecular weight is Molecular weight is more
more than 800 than 800 dalton.
dalton
Which of the following is an example of branched
polymer?
1. Chitin.
2. Cellulose.
3. Amylose.
4. Glycogen
Mark the correct match with the group and its
characteristic?
1. Arthropoda Compound eye and wings.
2. Mammalia Viviparity.
3. Echinodermata Calcareous endoskeleton.
4. Annelida Fresh water and segmented body.
Which of the following chordata is characterised with marine habitat, external fertilization and direct development?
1. Petromyzon.
2. Antedon.
3. Hippocampus.
4. Scolodion.
Compound epithelia is present in -
1. Dry surface of the skin.
2. Moist surface of buccal cavity.
3. Inner lining of ducts of salivary gland.
4. All of these
Collagen fibre is presence in -
(I) Dense regular connective tissue.
(II) Dense irregular connective tissue.
(III) Bones
(IV) Cartilage
1. I, II, III, IV
2. I, III only
3. III, IV only
4. III only
Which of the following structure is present in head of
the cockroach?
1. Pronotum.
2. Arthrodial membrane.
3. Tegmina.
4. Filiform antennae
During catalytic cycle of an enzyme action the binding
of the __a__ induces the __b__ to alter its shape. Here
a and b is _________
1. Substrate, enzyme.
2. Enzyme, substrate.
3. Substrate, Substrate.
4. Enzyme, Enzyme
Mark the incorrect match regarding the process involved in digestion and absorption?
1. | Muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal. | Hormonal control |
2. | Absorption and transport of water | Passive process and depends upon the osmotic gradient |
3. | Absorption of fatty acid | Involvement of micelle |
4. | Large intestine | Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs |
During ‘Erythroblastosis fetalis’ there is
1. Foetal stem cells fails to form RBC.
2. RBC fails to transport O2 to foetal tissues.
3. Agglutination and phagocytosis of RBC.
4. RBC fails to develop Rh antigen on its surface
HLA antigens for causing graft rejection are present on
1. White blood cells.
2. Tissue cells.
3. Red blood cells.
4. Both 1 and 2.
Urinary excretion is equivalent to:
GF = Glomerular filtration.
TR = Tubular reabsorption.
TS = Tubular secretion.
1. GF + TR + TS
2. GF – (TR + TS)
3. GF – TR + TS
4. GF – TS + TR
‘GFR’ is approximately
1. 50% of renal blood flow.
2. 50% of renal plasma flow.
3. 20% of renal plasma flow.
4. 20% of renal blood flow.
Major reason for evolution for diversity in immune
system is
1. Co-evolution.
2. Natural selection.
3. Artificial selection.
4. Natural mutation
Biologists discover about 1000 species in an Island
which is descended from a single ancestor species.
What is the reason behind the such large speciation?
1. Mutation
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Convergent evolution.
4. Reproductive isolation
The sugar glider and flying squirrel belong to two different groups of mammals, but they have both evolved bushy tails and flaps of skin that help them exploit their forest environments more efficiently. This pattern of evolution is an example of :
1. Character displacement
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Convergent evolution
4. Divergent evolution
Natural selection is the survival of fittest, which of the
following most precisely describe the survival of fittest?
1. The physical strength of organism.
2. How many fertile offspring is produced by an
organism.
3. Capability to tolerate environmental extremities.
4. How long they survive.
Select the mismatch
1. |
Scapula |
- |
Situated in between 2nd to 7th ribs |
2. |
Ball and socket joint |
- |
Humerus and pectoral girdle |
3. |
Rib cage |
- |
Formed by vertebrae, ribs and sternum |
4. |
Pelvic girdle |
- |
Articulates with thigh bone at pubic symphysis. |
Select the incorrect statement with respect to parturition.
1. Fully developed foetus and placenta induce mild
uterine contractions.
2. It is a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
3. Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of oxytocin
from foetal pituitary gland.
4. The signal for parturition is called foetal ejection
reflex
Select the mismatch with respect to function of contraceptives.
1. |
Oral contraceptive pills |
- |
Prevent ovulation |
2. |
Barrier methods |
- |
Prevent physical meeting of gametes. |
3. |
Lactational amenorrhoea |
- |
Prevents lactation |
4. |
Vasectomy |
- |
Prevents gamete transport. |
In a large isolated population, alleles p and q at a locus are at Hardy Weinberg equilibrium. The frequencies are p = 0.6 and q = 0.4. The proportion of the heterozygous genotype in the population is
1. 0.24
2. 1
3. 0.48
4. 0.12
Select the odd one with respect to causative agent.
1. Typhoid
2. Pneumonia
3. Ringworms
4. Plague
If the gene of interest is cloned at ECoRI in pBR322,
the recombinant E-coli after transformation are
1. Susceptible to ampicillin and tetracyline.
2. Sensitive to tetracycline.
3. Resistant to kanamycin.
4. Resistant to ampicillin and tetracycline
Read the following statement regarding malaria and
select the correct statement
1. Both formation and storage of sporozoites occurs
in salivary glands of mosquito.
2. Formation of gametes occurs in humans but their
fusion occurs in mosquitoes.
3. Haemozoin released from Plasmodium infected
ruptured RBCs is responsible for high fever and
chills.
4. Sporozoites reproduce sexually in liver cells and
produce gametes
‘GIFT’ is a process by which -
1. Male infertility can be treated.
2. Female infertility can be treated if she is not able
to produce functional ovum.
3. Female infertility can be treated if she has unstable
uterus.
4. Both 1 and 2.
Which of the following is/are controlled by the human brain ?
a. Balance of the body
b. Circadian rhythm of the body
c. Human behaviour
d. Functioning of heart and kidneys
1. Only d
2. a and d
3. a,b and c
4. a,b,c,d
When epinephrine binds to cardiac muscle cells, it
speeds up their contraction. When it it binds to muscle
cells of the small intestine it inhibit their contraction.
How can the same hormone have different effect on
muscle cells?
1. Cardiac cells have more receptors for epinephrine
than do intestinal cells.
2. Epinephrine circulates to the heart first and is in
higher concentration around cardiac cells.
3. The two types of muscle cells have different signal
transduction pathway for epinephrine and this have
different cellular response.
4. Presence of different types of receptors on the
surface of cardiac cells and intestinal cells
Thickest muscularis layer in alimentary canal will be
present in
1. Oesophagous
2. Stomach
3. Duodenum
4. Colon
In the heart the sinus node, controls the beat of the
heart because
1. Only the fibers of SA node have the capability of
self-excitation.
2. SA node fibers connect directly with the atrial
muscle fibers and ventricular muscle fibers.
3. Its rate of rhythmical discharge is greater than that
of any other part of the heart.
4. Sympathetic nerve fibers are connected with SA
node only
During deep anesthesia when many patients develop
severe hypoxia because of inadequate respiration can
result in
1. Cardiac arrest
2. Heart failure
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Atrial flutter.
Mark the correct set for appendicular skeleton?
1. Coxal bone, Clavicle, Hyoid bone.
2. Patella, Coxal bone, Sacrum.
3. Coxal bone, Scapula, Patella.
4. Ulna, Hyoid bone, Zygonatic bone
In chemical synapse, postsynaptic membrane receptor
binds with
1. Excitatory neurotransmitter.
2. Inhibitory neurotransmitter.
3. Ca++ ions.
4. Both 1 and 2
___A___ is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling present in the forebrain of the central nervous system. Here ‘A’ is:
1. Association area
2. Thalamus
3. Pons
4. Hypothalamus
Which of the following symptom can not be expected, if there is tumour like growth in parathyroid glands?
1. | Tetany of muscle. |
2. | Increase in Ca++ level deposition of bones. |
3. | More tubular reabsorption of Ca++ from the nephric tubule. |
4. | Both 1 and 2. |
Which of the following set of hormones can easily pass through the cell membrane of a target cell and bind to specific intracellular receptors?
a. Placental progesterone
b. Aldosterone
c. Estrogen
d. Thyroxine
Mark the correct set:
1. b&c
2. a,b&c
3. a &c
4. a,b,c & d
Mark the incorrect statement regarding the transport of gas.
1. | About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC. |
2. | Nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by RBC. |
3. | Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood deliver 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli. |
4. | Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood deliver 20 ml of O2 to the body tissues |
Approximtely how many corpus luteum would be formed
in a female at the end of 20 years of age, if her menarche
appeared at the beginning of 12 years of age and the
duration of her menstrual cycle is of 30 days - 31 days
approx. In between she has given birth of two
kids also?
1. 108
2. 80
3. 78
4. 90
Which of the following is/are, opportunities infectious
microbes in AIDS patients.
I. Mycobacterium
II. Viruses
III. Fungi
IV. Toxoplasma
1. I, II, III and IV
2. I and II only
3. I and IV only
4. II only
A biologist was given two animal cell populations, X and Y. When he subjected them to culturing under similiar conditions of availability of nutrients, growth factors and substratum he found the growth of sample X stopped after the available substratum was covered while the growth of sample Y continued so that multilayered mass was formed. The cells in sample X and Y respectively, are most likely to be
1. Epithelial cells and leucocytes
2. Germinal cells and muscle cells
3. Normal cells and cancer cells
4. Diploid cells and polyploid cells
In biotechnology transgenic animals are used for
I. Study of disease.
II. To obtained human protein.
III. Vaccine safety for humans.
IV. To know the carcinogenicity of any chemicals.
1. I, II, III and IV
2. III and IV only
3. I, III and IV
4. I and II only
From RNA interference technique
1. Toxins are made to kill soil parasites.
2. Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses.
3. Plants are made resistant to soil parasites.
4. Plants are developed to get the enhanced nutritional
value of food
Which of the following enzyme is involved in the
isolation of genetic material like DNA from a plant cell?
I. Cellulase II. Lysozyme
III. Ribonuclease IV. Protease
1. I, II, III and IV
2. I and II only
3. I only
4. I, III and IV
Similarity between microinjection and biolistic gene
gun method is
1. Used to transform the plant host cells.
2. Used to transform the animal host cells.
3. Recombinant DNA is directly injected into
host cells.
4. Used to transform the bacterial host cells
If a person is infected with deadly microbes to which
quick immune response is required as in tetanus, we
need to directly inject
1. Preformed antibodies.
2. Antitoxin.
3. Drugs to kill the tetanus bacteria.
4. Both 1 and 2
In cattles homozygosity results in
1. Improvement of breed.
2. Inbreeding depression.
3. Cross-breed formation.
4. All of these.
Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a human being to protect our
environment?
1. Restricting the use of vehicles
2. Using plastic bags
3. Setting up compost tin in gardens
4. Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities.
Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction?
1. t – butylamine
2. n – butylamine
3. neo – pentylamine
4. triethylamine
The following ligand is:
1. tridentate
2. bidentate
3. tetradentate
4. hexadenate
Consider the van der Waals constants, a and b, for the following gases.
Gas Ar Ne Kr Xe
1.3 0.2 5.1 4.1
3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0
Which gas is expected to have the highest critical temperature?
1. Ar
2. Xe
3. Kr
4. Ne
Liquid ‘M’ and liquid ‘N’ form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘M’ and ‘N’ are 450 and 700 mm Hg, respectively at the same temperature. Then the correct statement is:
( = mole fraction of ‘M’ in solution; = mole fraction of ‘N’ in solution;
= mole fraction of ‘M’ in vapour phase; = mole fraction of ‘M’ in vapour phase)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among the following the set of parameters that represents path functions, is:
(a). q + w
(b). q
(c) w
(d) H – TS
1. (b) and (c)
2. (b), (c) and (d)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (a) and (d)
The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which:
1. solid is dispersed in a gas
2. gas is dispersed in solid
3. liquid is dispersed in water
4. gas is dispersed in a liquid
The major product of the following reaction is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Aniline dissolved in dilute HCl is reacted with sodium nitrite at . This solution was added dropwise to a solution containing an equimolar mixture of aniline and phenol in dil.
HCl. The structure of the major product is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The major product of the following reaction is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
For any given series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen, let be the difference in maximum and minimum frequencies in the ration is
1. 5: 4
2. 4: 1
3. 9: 4
4. 27: 5
, an allotrope of carbon contains:
1. 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons.
2. 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons.
3. 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons.
4. 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons
Which of the following statements is not true about sucrose?
1. The glycosidic linkage is present between of -glucose and of -fructose
2. It is a non-reducing sugar
3. It is also named as invert sugar
4. On hydrolysis, it produces glucose and fructose
Match the catalysis(Column – I) with products (Column-II)
Column-I Column-II
Catalyst Product
(a) (i) Polyethylene
(b) (ii) Ethanal
(c) (iii)
(d) Iron oxide (iv)
1. (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii); (b)-(iii); (c)-(i); (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)
The difference between H and U (H - U), when the combustion of one mole of
heptane(I) is carried out a temperature T is equal to
(A) -4 RT
(B) -3 RT
(C) 3 RT
(D) 4 RT
The major product obtained in the given reaction is
The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral series of hydrogen spectrum is
found to be about 9. The spectral series are:
(A) Lyman and Paschen
(B) Brackett and Pfund
(C) Paschen and Pfund
(D) Balmer and Brackett
The correct order of the first ionization enthalpies is
(A) Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni
(B) Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti
(C) Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni
(D) Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn
The correct statements among is/ are:
(a) saline hydrides produce gas when reacted with .
(b) reaction of with leads to .
(c) and are electron - rich and electron-precise hydrides, respectively.
(d) HF and are called as molecular hydrides.
(A) (c) and (d) only
(B) (a), (b) and (c) only
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(D) (a), (c) and (d) only
Air pollution that occurs in sunlight is:
(A) oxidising smog
(B) acid rain
(C) reducing smog
(D) fog
For the reaction of with , the rate constant is and . The activation energy for the reaction, in kJ is:
(1) 72
(2) 166
(3) 150
(4) 59
Consider the following reactions:
'A' is:
1.
2.
3. CH=CH
4.
A hydrated solid X on heating initially gives a monohydrated compound Y. Y upon heating above 373K leads to an anhydrous white powder Z. X and Z, respectively, are:
(A) Washing soda and soda ash.
(B) Washing soda and dead burnt plaster.
(C) Baking soda and dead burnt plaster.
(D) Baking soda and soda ash.
The INCORRECT statement is:
(A) the spin-only magnetic moments of
(B) the spin-only magnetic moment of
(C) the gemstone, ruby, has ions occupying the octahedral sites of beryl.
(D) the color of
Which of these factors does not govern the stability of a conformation in acyclic compounds?
(A) Torsional strain
(B) Angle strain
(C) Steric interactions
(D) Electrostatic forces of interaction
The correct statement is:
(A) zincite is a carbonate ore
(B) aniline is a froth stabilizer
(C) zone refining process is used for the refining of titanium
(D) sodium cyanide cannot be used in the metallurgy of silver
For the reaction,
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(A) The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is required.
(B) The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increase.
(C) The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increases.
(D) The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant.
The increasing order of nucleophilicity of the following nucleophiles is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (b) < (c) < (a) < (d)
(2) (a) < (d) < (c) < (b)
(3) (d) < (a) < (c) < (b)
(4) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a)
The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is:
Item-I Item-II
(a) High density polythene I. Peroxide catalyst
(b) Polyacrylonitrile II. Condensation at hgh temperature & pressure
(c) Novolac III. Ziegler-Natta Catalyst
(d) Nylon 6 IV. Acid or base catalyst
(A) (a) - (III), (b)-(I), (c)-(II), (d)-(IV)
(B) (a)-(IV), (b)-(II), (c)-(I), (d)-(III)
(C) (a)-(II), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(III)
(D) (a)-(III), (b)-(I), (c)-(IV), (d)-(II)
The major product 'Y' in the following reaction is:-
Points I, II and III in the following plot respectively correspond to
( : most probable velocity)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively, are
(A) 6 and 4
(B) 7 and 6
(C) 4 and 6
(D) 6 and 7
Compound A () shows positive iodoform test. Oxidation of A with gives acid . Anhydride of B is used for the preparation of phenolphthalein. Compound A is:-
The noble gas that does NOT occur in the atmosphere is:
(A) He
(B) Rn
(C) Ne
(D) Kr
The pH of a 0.02 M solution will be [given and log 2 = 0.301]
(A) 2.65
(B) 5.35
(C) 4.35
(D) 4.65
The crystal field stabilization energy [Fe (H
respectively, are :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The correct option among the following is:
(1) Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis.
(2) Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster the viscosity of the solution is very high.
(3) Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have small surface area.
(4) Addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking.
Which one of the following graphs between molar conductivity (m) versus C is
correct?
1 g of non-volatile non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100g of two different solvents A and B whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in their boiling points, is:
(A) 5 : 1
(B) 10 : 1
(C) 1 : 5
(D) 1 : 0.2
Which of the following is NOT a correct method of the preparation of benzylamine from cyanobenzene?
(A) (i) HCl/ (ii)
(B) (i) (ii)
(C) (i) (gas) (ii)
(D)
In which one of the following equilibria, ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The minimum amount of consumed per gram of reactant is for the reaction: (Given atomic mass: Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Number of stereo centers present in linear and cyclic structures of glucose are respectively
(A) 4 & 5
(B) 5 & 5
(C) 4 & 4
(D) 5 & 4
The major product 'Y' in the following reaction is:
What will be the major product when m-cresol is reacted with propargyl bromide in presence of in acetone
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two identical wires are stretched by the same tension of 100 N and each emits a note of 200 Hz. If tension in one wire is increased by 1 N, the number of beats heard per second when the wires are plucked will be:
1. | 2 | 2. | 1 |
3. | 3 | 4. | 4 |
Heat requried to melt 1 gm of ice is 80 cal. A man melts 60 gm of ice by chewing it in 1 minute. Power supplied by the man to melt ice is
(1) 4800 W
(2) 336 W
(3) 80 W
(4) 0.75 W
The root mean square velocity of the molecules of a gas is 300 m/s. What will be the root mean square speed of the molecules if the atomic weight is doubled and absolute temperature is halved?
1. | 300 m/s | 2. | 150 m/s |
3. | 600 m/s | 4. | 75 m/s |
Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod has the same length. The left and right ends are kept at \(0^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) \(90^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\), respectively.
The temperature at the junction of the three rods will be:
1. \(45^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\)
2. \(60^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\)
3. \(30^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\)
4. \(20^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\)
An ideal gas is taken through the cycle as shown in figure below. If the net heat supplied to the gas is 10 J, then the work done by the gas in the process is
1. | -10 J | 2. | -30 J |
3. | -15 J | 4. | -20 J |
A point charge +q is fixed at point B. Another point charge +q at A of mass m vertically above B at height h is dropped from rest. Choose the correct statement:
(1) It will collide with B
(2) It will execute SHM
(3) It will go down only if
(4) It will go down up to a point and then come up
A and B are two concentric metallic hollow spheres. If A is given a charge q while B is earthed as shown in figure, then
1. charge density of A and B are same
2. field inside and outside A is zero
3. field between A and B is not zero
4. field inside and outside B is zero
A capacitor is connected to a battery. The force of attraction between the plates when the separation between them is halved
1. remains the same
2. becomes eight times
3. becomes four times
4. becomes double
In the circuit shown, the potential difference between points C and B will be
1. (8/9) V
2. (4/3) V
3. (2/3) V
4. 4 V
The potentiometer wire AB is 600 cm long. At what distance from A should the jockey J touch the wire to get zero deflection in the galvanometer?
1. 320 cm
2. 120 cm
3. 20 cm
4. 450 cm
A circular coil A has a radius R and the current flowing through it is I. Another circular coil B has radius 2R and if 2I is the current flowing through it, then the magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil are in the ratio of
1. 4:1
2. 2:1
3. 3:1
4. 1:1
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V and then it enters a magnetic field of induction B normal to the lines. Then the radius of the circular path is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A coil having an area is placed in a magnetic field which changes from in time interval t. The average EMF induced in the coil will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
When the number of turns in a coil is doubled without any change in the length of the the coil, its self-inductance becomes
(1) Four times
(2) Doubled
(3) Halved
(4) Squared
In an AC circuit, the voltage applied is E=. The resulting current in the circuit . The power consumption in the circuit is given by
1.
2.
3. P = 0
4.
The current through a choke coil increases from zero to 6 A in 0.3 seconds and an induced emf of 30 V is produced. The inductance of the coil is
1. 5 H
2. 2.5 H
3. 1.5 H
4. 2 H
In an electromagnetic wave, energy density associated with a magnetic field will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices as shown in the figure . The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, then
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A liquid of refractive index 1.33 is placed between two identical plano-convex lenses, with refractive index 1.50. Two possible arrangements, P and Q, are shown. The system is:
1. | divergent in P, convergent in Q | 2. | convergent in P, divergent in Q |
3. | convergent in both | 4. | divergent in both |
A microscope has an objective of focal length 1.5 cm and an eye-piece of focal length 2.5 cm. If the distance between objective and eye-piece is 25 cm, what is the approximate value of magnification produced for relaxed eye?
1. 75
2. 110
3. 140
4. 25
When nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are , the emitted particles will be:
1. | Neutrons | 2. | Alpha particles |
3. | Beta particles | 4. | Gamma photons |
What is the ratio of the circumference of the first Bohr orbit for the electron in the hydrogen atom to the de-Broglie wavelength of electrons having the same velocity as the electron in the first Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom?
1. 1:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:4
4. 2:1
If the binding energy per nucleon in nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively, then in the reaction energy of proton must be
(1) 39.2 MeV
(2) 28.24 MeV
(3) 17.28 MeV
(4) 1.46 MeV
In a photoelectric effect experiment
1. on increasing intensity and keeping frequency fixed, the saturation current decreases.
2. on increasing intensity and keeping frequency fixed, the saturation current remains constant.
3. on increasing intensity, saturation current may increase.
4. on increasing frequency, saturation current may increase.
In a P-N junction diode not connected to any circuit
(1) The potential is the same everywhere
(2) The P-type is a higher potential than the N-type side
(3) There is an electric field at the juction directed from the N-type side to the P-type side
(4) There is an electric field at the juction directed from the P-type side to the N-type side
The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in the circuit?
1. 1.33 A
2. 1.71 A
3. 2.00 A
4. 2.31 A
Energy due to position of a particle is given by, , where are constants, y is distance. The dimensions of are
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A car starting from rest is accelerated at constant rate until it attains a constant speed v. It is then retarded at a constant rate until it comes to rest. Considering that the car moves with constant speed for half of the time of total journey, the average speed of the car for the journey is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Data insufficient
A particle is projected with a velocity v such that its range on the horizontal plane is twice the greatest height attained by it. The range of the projectile is (where g is acceleration due to gravity)
1. | \(\frac{4 v^2}{5 g} \) | 2. | \(\frac{4 g}{5 v^2} \) |
3. | \(\frac{v^2}{g} \) | 4. | \( \frac{4 v^2}{\sqrt{5} g}\) |
A man can row a boat with speed 4 km/hr in still water. If the velocity of water in river is 3 km/hr. The time taken to reach just opposite point on other bank is (river width = 500 m)
1.
2.
3. 100 hr
4. None
The acceleration 'a' of the box shown in the figure to descend so that the block of mass M exerts a force Mg/4 on the floor of the box, should be:
1. g/4
2. g/2
3. 3g/4
4. 4g
A block A of mass m is placed over a plank B of mass 2m. Plank B is placed over a smooth horizontal surface. The co-efficient of friction between A and B is . Block A is given a velocity towards right. Acceleration of B relative to A is
1.
2. g
3.
4. zero
A vertical spring of force constant 100 N/m is attached with a hanging mass of 10 kg. Now an external force is applied on the mass so that the spring is stretched by additional 2 m. The work done by the force F is - (g=10 m/)
(1) 200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 450 J
(4) 600 J
A body constrained to move in y-direction is subjected to a force given by . The work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 10 m along the y-axis is
1. 20 J
2. 150 J
3. 60 J
4. 190 J
A man 'A', mass 60 kg, and another man 'B', mass 70 kg, are sitting at the two extremes of a 2 m long boat, of mass 70 kg, standing still in the water as shown. They come to the middle of the boat. (Neglect friction). How far does the boat move on the water during the process?
1. | 5 cm leftward | 2. | 5 cm rightward |
3. | 7 cm leftward | 4. | 7 cm rightward |
A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks into two parts, a body B of mass M/3 and a body C of mass 2M/3. The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A towards
(1) body B
(2) body C
(3) does not shift
(4) depends on height of breaking
A uniform rod of length 1 m and mass 2 kg is suspended by two vertical inextensible strings as shown in following figure. Calculate the tension T (in newtons) in the left string at the instant when the right string snaps (g = 10 m/).
1. 2.5 N
2. 5 N
3. 7.5 N
4. 10 N
Which of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of intensity of gravitational field l with the distance r from the centre of a spherical shell of mass M and radius a?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A water tank is 20 m deep. If the water barometer reads 10 m, the pressure at the bottom of the tank is
(1) 2 atmosphere
(2) 1 atmosphere
(3) 3 atmosphere
(4) 4 atmosphere
An elongation of 0.1% in a wire of cross-sectional area causes a tension of 100 N. The young's modulus is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Air is pushed into a soap bubble of radius r to double its radius. If the surface tension of the soap solution is S, the work done in the process is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A cylinder of height 20 m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in ) through a small hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom is
1. 10
2. 20
3. 25.5
4. 5
A mass m is suspended from two springs of spring constant as shown in the figure below. The time period of vertical oscillations of the mass will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
A train moves towards a stationary observer at a speed of 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle and its frequency registered is . If the train's speed is reduced to 17 m/s, the frequency registered is . If the speed of sound is 340 m/s , then the ratio is
1.
2.
3. 2
4.
In an induction coil, the coefficient of mutual inductance is 4 H. If current of 5 A in the primary coil is cut off in second, the emf at the terminals of the secondary coil will be
1. 15 kV
2. 30 kV
3. 10 kV
4. 60 kV