The choroid layer is thin over the posterior two-thirds of the eye ball, but it becomes thick in the anterior part to form the
2. Ciliary body
4. Suspensory ligament
Eustachian tube connects
1. External ear with middle ear
2. External ear with internal ear
3. Middle ear with pharynx
4. Middle ear with internal ear
Thyrotrophic releasing factor (TRF) is secreted by
3. Pars intermedia
Match column-I and column-II, choose the correct combination from the option given
Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue
Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
1. (A)-3, (B)-2, (C)-1
2. (A)-2, (B)-3, (C)-1
3. (A)-2, (B)-1,(C)-3
4. (A)-1, (B)-3, (C)-2
The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into fats and stored in
1. Areolar tissue
2. Adipose tissue
3. Dense regular connective tissue
4. Dense irregular connective tissue
Cartilage is present
A. In the tip of nose and middle ear joints
B. Between adjacent bones of vertebral column
C. Between adjacent bones of limbs and hands in adults
1. A,B and C
2. A and B
3. B and C
4. A anc C
Which factor(s) affects the enzymatic activity?
1. Temperature and pH
2. Change in substrate concentration
3. Binding of specific chemicals that regulates its activity
4. All of the above
Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrate by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds belongs to
Identify enzymes (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) in digestion of carbohydrates
1. A- amylase, B-invertase, C-maltase, D-lactase
2. A-amylase, B-lactase, C-maltase, D-invertase
3. A-amylase, B-maltase, C-lactase, D-invertase
4. A-amylase, B-maltase, C-invertase, D-lactase
Haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) may occur in the featus of a second pregnancy if
1. The mother is and the baby is
2. The mother is and the baby is
3. The mother is and the baby is
4. The mother is and the baby is
Which of the following sequences best represents the pathway of an action potential through the Heart's conduction system?
(i) Sino-atrial (SA) node
(ii) Purkinje fibres
(iii) Bundle of His
(iv) Atrio-ventricular (AV) node
(v) Right and left bundle branches
2. (iv), (i),(iii),(v),(ii)
Select the option having all the correct characteristics
Structure Percentage Function
1. 0.3-0.5 Phagocytic
2. 0.5-1.0 Secrete histamine
3. 30-40 Defense against parasites
4. 30-40 Allergic reactions
Which one is correct regarding electrocardiograph?
1. P-wave represents the electrical excitation of the ventricle
2. QRS complex represent repolarization of the ventricles
3. T-wave represents repolarization of the atria
4. By counting the number of QRS complexes one can determine the pulse rate
Match the vessels in Column-I with appropriate organs if serves in Column-II
Hepatic portal vein
Heart’s blood system
Returns blood to heart from lower limbs
Carries blood to liver
Inferior vena cava
Leads to lungs
1. (A)(r), (B)(s),(C)(p),(D)(q)
Mammalian lungs have numerous alveoli for
1. Increasing volume of inspired air
2. Keeping the lings of proper shape
3. Higher number of muscles to provide greater elascticity
4. Increasing surface area for gaseous diffusion
Diabetes insipidus is due to
1. Hyposecretion of vasopressin (ADH)
2. Hypersecretion of insulin
3. Hypersecretion of vasopressin (ADH)
Match the organism in Column-I with its excretory structure in Column-II
3. (A)(q),(B)(p),(C)(r), (D)(s)
4. (A)(s), (B)(q),(C)(r),(D)(p)
The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is
Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
1. First vertebra is axis which atriculates with the occipital condyles
2. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
3. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone atriculates
4. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair
Pairs of skeletal parts
Malleus and stapes
Sternum and ribs
Clavicle and glenoid cavity
Humerus and ulna
Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
1. Myasthenia gravis- Autoimmune disorder which inhbits sliding of myosin filaments
2. Gout-inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
3. Muscular dystrophy-Age related shortening of muscles
4. Osteoporosis-Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
If Henle's loop were absent from man nephron, which of the following is to be expected?
1. The urine will be more dilute
2. The urine will be more concentrated
3. There will be thardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
4. There will be no urine formation
When a person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption, then which of the following will not help in the maintenance of blood volume?
1. Decreased glomerular filtration
2. Increased ADH secretion
3. Decreased arterial pressure in kidney
4. Increased arterial pressure in kidney
Due to insufficient filtration in the Bowman's capsule, all are likely to happen except
1. Accumulation of fluid in the body
2. Increase in blood pressure
3. Increase in blood urea level
4. Increase in GFR
The process of release of urine in called micturition and the neural mechanisms causing it is called the micturition reflex
(i) Urine formed by the nephron is ultimately carried to the urinary bladder
(ii) This signal is initiated by the stretching of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with urine
(iii) In response, the stretch receptors on the bladder send signals to the CNS
(iv) The CNS passes motor messages to initiated the contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder causing the release of urine
Choose correct option which contain correct order of phenomena of micturation
1. (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv)
2. (ii),(i),(iii) and (iv)
3. (iii),(ii),(i) and (iv)
4. (iv),(ii),(iii) and (i)
Match the terms given in Column-I with their physiological processes given in column-II and choose the correct answer
Proximal convoluted tubule
Formation of concentrated urine
Distal convoluted tubule
Filtration of blood
Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes
Maintainance of a concentration gradient in medulla
1. (A)-(iii); (B)-(v); (C)-(iii); (D)-(ii); (E)-(i)
2. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i);(D)-(v);(E)-(ii)
3. (A)-(i);(B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(v);(E)-(iv)
4. (A)-(iii) ; (B)-(i) ; (C)-(iv) ; (D)-(v) ; (E)-(ii)
A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
1. Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
2. Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
3. Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.
4. Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin.
Thrombokinase performs a specific function in human body
Choose the correct option
1. Thrombin Prothrombin
2. Fibrinogen Fibrin
3. Fibrin Fibrinogen
4. Prothrombin Thrombin
Partial pressure of in alveoli of lungs
1. Equal to that in the deoxygenated blood.
2. More than that in thee deoxygenated blood.
3. Less than that in the deoxygenated blood.
4. More than that of in alveoli.
T-wave in electrocardiogram represents
1. The return of ventricles from excited to normal state.
2. Depolarisation of ventricles from normal to excited state.
3. Onset of atrial systole.
4. Onset of atrial diastole.
Which of the following does not occur in response to decrease in blood volume?
1. Increase in angiotensin II
2. Increase in aldosterone secretion by adrenal cortex
3. Increased tubular reabsorption of sodium
4. Increased secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide from liver
Which of the following is not associated with micturition reflex?
1. Relaxation of urethral sphincter
2. Contraction of detrusor muscle
3. Activation of stretch receptors in wall of ureters
4. Neural mechanism govern micturition reflex
Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t counter current mechanism
1. Osmolarity of filtrate increases while moving down the descending limb of loop of Henle
2. There will be no urine formation if loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephrons
3. NaCl and urea maintain the osmolarity gradient in medulla
4. Osmolarity of fluid moving out from the collecting duct is four times that of plasma
Heart disorder in which cardiac muscles are suddenly damaged by inadequate supply of blood is
1. Heart failure
2. Cardiac arrest
3. Heart attack
Read the following statements regarding various steps of urine formation
A. Blood flows through glomerular capillaries under a pressure created due to difference in diameter of afferent and efferent arterioles
B. Filtrate formed after ultrafiltration is isotonic to blood plasma
C. Reabsorption of glucose occurs throughout the tubules of the nephron
D. Selective tubular secretion of H+ and K+ ions help in maintaining an ionic balance of body
Select the option having only correct statements
1. A and C
2. B, C and D
3. A, B, and D
4. C and D
The correct sequences of layers in the wall of ailmentary canal from lumen to outside is
1. Serosainner circular muscle outer longitudinal muscle sub-mucosa mucosa
2. Mucosasub-mucosainner circular muscle outer longitudinal muscleserosa
3. Serosasub-mucosamucosainner circular muscleouter longitudinal muscle
4. Mucosaserosainner circular muscleouter longitudinal musclesub-mucosa
Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t humans
1. Jaundice is yellowing skin and eye due to increase in level of bile pigments in blood
2. Fluid from cystic duct is rich in bilirubin, sodium taurocholates, lipase and potassium glycocholate
3. Through caecum, harbours symbiotic microorganisms, no significant digestion occurs in large intestine.
4. Stenson's duct releases secretions of parotid gland and buccal cavity
Select the option which is incorrect for enzyme catalase.
1. The cofactor present is inorganic and proteinaceous in nature
2. Haem is the prosthetic group required by the enzyme
3. The cofactor required for optimal activity must be tightly bound to the apoenzyme
4. It catalyses breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
Select the correct statement
1. The base pairs in DNA are stacked 0.34 nm apart
2. The diameter of a right handed helical ds B-DNA molecules is 34
3. Sugar-phosphate and hydrogen bonds are both present in a single nucleotide such as AMP
4. A and T of one strand compulsorily base pair with G and C respectively, of other strand is DNA
Select the correct option that represents the enzyme composition of succus entericus
1. Pepsin, amylase, rennin, lipase
2. Enterocrinin, carboxypeptidase, trypsin, elastase
3. Enterokinase, nucleosidase, dipeptidase, lactase
4. Renin, pepsinogen, trypsinogen, lipase
Select the incorrect statement
1. Na+/K+ ATPase is an electrogenic pump that helps to maintain electrochemical ionic gradient across axolemma
2. At rest, axoplasm has lower ions concentration than ion concentration
3. Brain stem comprises midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata
4. Thalamus part of hindbrain is responsible for emotions like anger and rage
Choose the odd one w.r.t effects of sympathetic nervous system
1. Inhibits secretion of saliva
2. Inhibits secretion of gastric juice
3. Inhibits secretion of pancreatic juice
4. Promotes secretion of intestinal juice
Part of brain that deals with a strange mix of signals about smell and converts information from short term to long term memory is
2. Corpora quadrigemina
Which one of the following sets of animals belong to a single taxonomic group?
1. Cuttlefish, jellyfish, silverfish, dogfish, starfish
2. Bat, pigeon, butterfly
3. Monkey, chimpanzee, man
4. Silkworm, tapeworm, earthworm
Select the correct statement about class-Aves
1. They are warm blooded (homoiothermous) animals and are able to maintain a constant body temperature
2. Respiration occurs through lungs and air sacs connected to lungs for supplement respiration
3. They are oviparous with separate sexes, internal fertilisation and direct development
4. All of the above
What is true about cork cambium?
1. It is extrastelar cambium in dicot stem.
2. In dicot roots it arises from the cells of cortex region.
3. It is also known as phellogen.
4. Both 1 and 3
Read the following statements w.r.t. pericycle and choose the suitable option
(1) It is the outermost portion of stele, that may be paranchymatous or sclerenchymatous.
(2) It is absent in monocot stems.
(3) It is always single layered.
1. Only (1) is correct
2. Only (2) is incorrect
3. Only (3) is incorrect
4. Both (1) (2) are incorrect
State True (T) or False (F) to the given statements and select the correct option
(A) Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in temperate regions.
(B) Lenticels occur in most woody trees and permit the exchange of gases.
(C) Due to stellar secondary growth, central cylinder of wood surrounded by secondary phloem is formed.
(D) The cells of endodermis opposite to protoxylem divide to give rise vascular cambium in dicot roots.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1. T T F F
2. T T T F
3. T F T F
4. F F T T
Read the following statements about dicot stem and choose the correct option.
(1) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
(2) Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type.
(3) Endarch type of arrangement of secondary xylem.
1. Only (2) is correct
2. Only (3) is incorrect
3. Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
4. All (1), (2) and (3) are correct
What is incorrect for companion cell?
1. It is specialized parenchymatous cell.
2. It helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes.
3. It does not retain nucleus throughout the life.
4. It is absent in gymnospmers.
State True (T) or False (F) to the given statements and select the correct option
(A) All tissue layers exterior to the vascular cambium constitute bark.
(B) Root hypodermis is sclerenchymatous.
(C) Ground tissue of leaves is called mesophyll.
(D) Due to presence of casparian strips, endodermis is impervious to water.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1. T F F T
2. T F T T
3. F T T F
4. T F T F
Which of the following characters is/are related to isobilateral leaf?
(1) Stomata are present on both surfaces.
(2) Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
(3) Sub-stomatal cacvity is present below the stoma of the abaxial epidermis.
1. Only (1)
2. Only (3)
3. Only (1) and (3)
4. (1), (2) and (3)
Which of the following floral features is not represented by symbols in a floral formula of a plant family?
1. Relative position of ovary w.r.t. other parts.
2. Adhesion of stamens.
3. Aestivation of calyx and corolla.
4. Symmetry of flower.
Select the incorrect match
1. Green photosynthetic petiole - Austriallian Acacia
2. Leaflets attached at tip of petiole - Silk cotton
3. Papillonaceous corolla - Bean
4. Epiphyllous stamens - Brinjal
Which of the given feature is not related to mustard?
1. Superior ovary.
2. Variable length of filaments of stamens.
3. Parietal placentation.
4. Opposite phyllotaxy.
Cymose inflorescence is dissimilar to racemose inflorescence in
1. Having limited growth of the main inflorenscence axis.
2. Having young flowers at top.
3. Showing centriperal manner of opening of flowers.
4. Having acropetal arrangement of flowers.
Read the following characters and mark the correct ones for family Fabaceae.
(1) Flowers are arranged ina cropetal manner on floral axis.
(2) Flowers with radial symmetry.
(3) Hypogynous flower.
(4) Albuminous seeds.
(5) Monocarpellary ovary.
1. Only (1) and (3)
2. Only (1), (3), (4) and (5)
3. Only (1), (3) and (5)
4. Only (1) and (2)
Which of the following statements is not true for runner?
1. Internodes are longer.
2. Helps plants to spread to new niches.
3. Roots are present at nodes.
4. Found in plants like grasses, strawberry and jasmine.
State True (T) or False (F) to the given statements and select the correct option
(A) Abundance of lichens in any area indicates that the area is highly polluted.
(B) Mycobiont partner of lichens is always heterotrophic.
(C) Body of lichens is made up of phycobionts only.
(A) (B) (C)
1. T T F
2. F T F
3. F F F
4. T F F
Which of the given statement is not true for viruses?
1. They are nucleoproteins where protein is infectious in nature.
2. They can be crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins.
3. Virus means venom or poisonous fluid.
4. A virus can never have both DNA and RNA as its genetic material.
Mark the correct statement for Albugo.
1. Causes white rust in members of Barassicaceae.
2. Plasmogamy occurs by gametangial copulation.
3. Cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose.
4. Mycelium is coenocytic and septate.
Organisms responsible for causing ‘red tide’ are also characterized by
1. Presence of stiff cellulosic plates.
2. Presence of fixing heterocyst.
3. Presence of two longitudinal flagella.
4. Filamentous body made up of trichomes.
How many of the following organisms possess membrane bound cell organelles and autotrophic mode of nutrition?
[Nitrobacter, Chromatium, Methanococcus, Nostoc, Euglena, Gonyaulax, Paramodecium, Yeast, Puccinia]
Group of organisms in which cell wall forms two thin overlapping shells are
1. Responsible for bioluminescence.
2. Chief producers of ocean.
According to mass flow hypothesis
(1) Sucrose is moved into the companion cells and then into the sieve tube by passive transport.
(2) Inside the phloem, an osmotic pressure gradient is generated that facilitates the mass movement in the phloem.
(3) Water in the adjacent xylem moves into the phloem by active process.
1. (1) and (3) are correct.
2. (2) and (3) are incorrect.
3. (1) and (3) are incorrect.
4. (1) and (2) are correct.
Select the incorrect statements
(1) Older dying leaves export most of their mineral content to younger leaves.
(2) Sulphur and calcium and frequently remobilized from senescing parts.
(3) Ions are absorbed from the soil by both passive and active transport.
(4) A plant loses only half as much water as a plant for the same amount of fixed.
1. (1), (2) and (3)
2. Only (1) and (3)
3. Only (2) and (4)
4. All except (3)
Coralloid roots of gymnosperms are/have
1. Irregular and possess large number of roots hairs.
2. Symbiotic association with Rhizobium.
3. Symbiotic association with - fixing cyanobacteria.
In pteridophytes, gametophyte that develops in the homosporous species is usually
1. Monoecious and has events, precursor to the seed habit.
2. Dioecious and does not lead to seed habit.
3. Monoecious and does not lead to seed habit.
4. Dioecious and has events, precursor to the seed habit.
Read the following statements and select the option with correct statements
(1) In Wolfia, the highly reduced female gametophyte present within ovule, is embryo sac.
(2) The ploidy level of endosperm in Cycas and Eucalyptus is triploid.
(3) Azolla is a water fern.
(4) Majority of the red algae are marine with greater abundance in the warmer areas.
1. (1) and (2) only
2. (2) and (3) only
3. (1), (2) and (3)
4. (1), (3) and (4)
Match the classes of pteridophyte given in column-I with their respective members given in column-II
(A) Psilopsida (i) Selaginella
(B) Lycopsida (ii) Adiantum
(C) Pteropsida (iii) Psilotum
(D) Sphenopsida (iv) Equisetum
Select the correct answer from the following
1. (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)
2. (A) – (i), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv)
3. (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (ii), (D) – (iv)
4. (A) – (i), (B) – (iv), (C) – (iii), (D) – (ii)
Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones
(1) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal.
(2) In liverworts, the haploid free living sporophyte is formed by spore germination.
(3) Vegetative reproduction in Polytrichum occurs by budding in the secondary protenema.
(4) Marchantia is a heterosporous bryophyte.
(5) Growth of bog moss ultimately fills ponds and lakes with soil
1. (1), (2) and (3) 2. (4) and (5) only
3. (2) and (4) only 4. All except (1)
The members of phaeophyceae are characterized by all, except
1. Presence of chlorophyll a,c and focuxanthin pigments.
2. Production of pear-shaped and biflagellated asexual spores.
3. Production of pyriform gametes that bear laterally attached flagella.
4. Their occurrence, mostly in fresh water habitats.
Which of the following characters, are defining features of all living organisms?
(A) Growth from inside
(B) Sexual reproduction
(D) Response to stimuli
(E) Cellular organisation
1. Only (C), (D) and (E) 2. Only (A) and (B)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D) 4. All except (B)
A taxonomic aid which gives actual account of habitat and distribution of various plants of given area, is
“The synaptonemal complex is formed during __A__ stage and dissolves during __B__ stage”.
Complete the above statement by choosing the correct option for A and B
1. Diplotene Diakinesis
2. Leptotene Zygotene
3. Zygotene Diplotene
4. Pachytene Diplotene
Chromosomes appear like a ‘ball of wool’ in
Which one of the following features differentiates phase from phase?
1. Synthesis of proteins.
2. Duplication of double membrane bound cell organelles.
3. Duplication of single membrane bound cell organelles.
4. Synthesis of RNA.
Endoplasmic reticulum which is free of ribosomes is involved in all the given functions, except
1. Synthesis of enzyme precursor for lysosomes.
2. Detoxificatin of drugs.
3. Uptake and release of ions during muscle contraction.
4. Passing of products of RER to Golgi apparatus.
A membraneless cell organelle which is not found in higher plants is/has
1. 9+2 arrangement of microtubules.
2. A role in formation of flagella in prokaryotes.
3. composed of rRNA and proteins.
4. Involved in the formation of spindle fibres during cell division in animals.
Enzymes and electron carriers for the formation of cellular energy are present in the mitochondria at
1. Outer membrane only.
2. Inner membrane only.
3. Both outer and inner membrane.
4. Mitochondrial matrix only.
Endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in origin of __A__, which are lined by __B__ and contains a fine tubule called __C__.
Select the option that correctly fills the blanks A,B and C
Select the correct statement w.r.t. axoneme of eukaryotic flagella.
1. It is composed of 9 peripheral triplet microfibrils of tubulin proteins.
2. It does not have covering of plasma membrane.
3. Central tubules are enclosed by a central sheath.
4. It gives rise to spindle apparatus during cell division.
1. Bounded by a single membrane.
2. Always one per cell.
3. Present inside mitochondria.
4. The site for rRNA synthesis
Select the features which are common for both ER and Golgi apparatus.
(A) Both are sites for synthesis of lipids and steroidal hormones.
(B) Both are composed of cisternae, tubules and vasicles.
(C) Both are parts of endomembrane system.
(D) Both help in formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis.
1. Only (B) 2. Only (B) and (C)
3. Only (A) and (D) 4. All except (D)
What is the main arena of all cellular activities of a cell?
1. Cell wall
2. Cell membrane
When solute increases then water potential would
3. Remain same
4. First increase then decrease
Choose the correct labelling for given figure
1. D-saturation point, E-Maximum photosynthesis
2. A-achieved at high light intensity
3. D-10% of total sunlight, E-compensation point
4. A-Light saturation at 10% of total sunlight
The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products
Arrows numbered 4,8 and 12 can all be
3. FAD+ or FADH2
Match the following
Root hair formation
1. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3. a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
4. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(a) Moderate decrease or increase of micronutrients causes deficiency and toxicity symptoms respectively.
(b) Excess of manganese causes toxicity of iron, calcium and molybdenum
(c) A macronutrient is said to be toxic when present below a critical concentration
1. Only (a) is correct
2. Only (b) is correct
3. (b) & (c) are correct
4. (a) & (c) are correct
Which of the following number contains only three
4. 4.2 × 10
6.3 g of a dibasic acid HCO.xHO in 500 ml
solution is 0.2 N. What is the value of x?
10 g of a silver coin when dissolved completely in
excess of conc. HNO gives 8.5 g of silver nitrate.
The percentage purity of the coin is
A metal oxide contains 40% oxygen by weight. Its
equivalent weight is
For a subatomic particle, the uncertainty in position is same as that of uncertainty in its momentum. The
least uncertainty in its velocity can be given as-
The ratio of magnitudes of potential energy to that of
kinetic energy of an electron in the 5th shell of
hydrogen atom is
1. 1 : 1
2. 1 : 5
3. 5 : 1
4. 2 : 1
Which of the following notation represents a 3d orbital?
Which of the following electronic transition in
hydrogen atom will emit the light of maximum
1. n n
2. n n
3. n n
4. n n
Who gave the ‘Law of triads’ for classification of
3. Lother Meyer
An element with atomic number 123 will have the
The period and group of an element with Z = 35 are
1. 3, 5
2. 4, 17
3. 4, 7
4. 3, 15
The element of third period that is expected to have the positive electron gain enthalpy is:
Species that shows deviation from octet rule is :
Species that has bent T-shape is:
The correct decreasing order of ionic character is
1. LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF
2. NaCl > NaBr > NaI > NaF
3. CsI > RbI > KI > NaI
4. LiCl > NaCl > KCl > CsCl
Diamagnetic species among the following options is :
Which of the following gases is expected to have the
largest value of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’?
A mixture of CO & CO2 has a density of 1.5 gL–1 at
20°C and 740 mm Hg. The mole fraction of CO in the
mixture is around
If the temperature of a gas is increased by four
times, then its rate of diffusion
1. Increases four times
2. Increases two times
3. Increases sixteen times
4. Remains the same
Which of the following expression correctly
represents the kinetic gas equation?
Which of the following pair correctly represents intensive property?
1. Entropy, Gibb’s energy
2. Enthalpy, Heat capacity
3. Electrode potential, Vapour pressure
4. Resistance, Conductance
Which of the following is an endothermic process?
1. Enthalpy of freezing
2. Enthalpy of atomization
3. Enthalpy of hydration
4. Enthalpy of neutralisation
At 298 K, the enthalpy of fusion of sodium metal is
2.6 kJ mol–1 and enthalpy of condensation of sodium
vapours is –98 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy of sublimation
of sodium metal is
1. 100.6 kJ mol–1
2. 254.8 kJ mol–1
3. –95.4 kJ mol–1
4. –37.6 kJ mol–1
Which of the following is always true for a
1. Ssystem > 0
2. Hsystem < 0
3. Huniverse = 0
4. Ssurroundings < 0
The difference between the heat of formation of
ammonia at constant pressure and constant volume
at room temperature is
1. –2.47 kJ mol–1
2. –35.8 kJ mol–1
3. 5.6 kJ mol–1
4. 1.5 kJ mol–1
In which of the following solutions AgCl has minimum
1. 10–4 M CaCl2
3. 10–4 M HCl
4. 10–5 M NaCl
Which of the following species does not have a
A sulphuric acid solution has pH = 0. Its molarity is
4. cannot be determined
When 0.01 mole of HCl is added to a buffer solution,
its pH changes from 4.5 to 4.3. The buffer capacity
of the buffer solution is
Which of the following is/are incorrect for orthohydrogen?
1. Nuclei spins are in same direction
2. A sample of dihydrogen at room temperature
contains 75% ortho-hydrogen
3. It is possible to obtain pure ortho-hydrogen at
4. All of these
Ordinary water contains hydrogen in all three isotopic
forms. If ordinary water is subjected to electrolysis,
then the gas which is most readily evolved at
4. All are evolved at the same time
Consider the following reaction sequence
The substance (C) is :
A compound ‘X’ on heating at 100°C gives metaboric
acid. ‘X’ can be obtained by acidifying an aqueous
solution of Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O. The hybridisation of
the central atom in the compound X is
Which of the following group 13 element has the
smaller atomic radius than aluminium?
4. All of these
Which of the following species exist?
Which of the following acid can attack Silica?
Which of the following functional group does not
1. Secondary amine
Which of the following reagent is used for testing
phosphorous in qualitative analysis of organic
Which of the following alkene has the least negative
enthalpy of hydrogenation?
1. (CH3)2 C = C(CH3)2
2. (CH3)2 C = CHCH3
3. (CH3)2C = CH2
4. CH3CH = CH2
The polymer divinyl acetylene is obtained from the
Consider the following reaction sequence.
The end-product (E) is
Which of the following group when attached to
benzene ring is moderately deactivating?
The product obtained is a/an
4. Carboxylic acid
Which of the following is a possible product in
pyrolysis of n-hexane?
4. All of these
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
In a straight line motion if v = 8 – 4t m/s then
maximum displacement occurs at time -
1. 4 s
2. 2 s
3. 1 s
4. 3 s
A ball is falling freely strikes to ground with velocity
60 m/s. Height fallen in last one second before
hitting the ground is
1. 55 m
2. 70 m
3. 60 m
4. 80 m
A projectile is thrown with velocity vector
m/s where is unit vector in east and
is unit vector upward when projectile is moving
at right angles to its direction of projection, its
velocity vector is
From the roof of a train moving with constant velocity
20 m/s a person throws a ball with speed
30 m/s upward relative to himself. When ball is at
highest point, velocity of ball with respect to a
person on ground is
1. 20 m/s
2. 30 m/s
A particle is moving on a circle of radius 2 m, with
frequency 6 rpm which is constant. The average
velocity in 5 seconds will be
2. 0.4 m/s
3. 0.8 m/s
4. 1 m/s
A one-dimensional force is applied on particle. The
force is varying with the time as shown in graph. The
shape of curve is semicircle. Impulse of this force in
time t is
In the figure shown, pulley and string are massless
and smooth. Acceleration of block of mass M is
A solid cylinder of mass M is released from rest on
an inclined rough plane making an angle from
horizontal. The cylinder rolls without slipping. Friction
force required for rolling is-
A rigid body has moment of inertia 12 kgm about
a fixed axis and the body is rotating about it, such
that angular displacement rad at time
t second. Kinetic energy of body at t = 3 second
2. 15 J
3. 20 J
4. 30 J
A solid sphere is rolling on a fixed surface. Total
kinetic energy of the sphere is 140 J. Its
translational kinetic energy is-
1. 140 J
2. 40 J
3. 100 J
4. 70 J
A body of mass m is raised from the surface of earth
to a height equal to radius (R) of earth. If
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
is g. Then gain of its potential energy is
A particle of mass m moving with some velocity
collides with a stationary particle of mass m head
on elastically. After the collision two particles move
with equal speed, then
A planet whose density is double of earth and radius
is half of the earth, will produce gravitational field on its
surface (g = acceleration due to gravity at the surface of
At certain height above the earth, gravitational field is . (R = Radius of earth) What minimum speed should be given here to a particle so that it starts revolving in circular path around earth?
A spring has lengths L and L when forces in it are
F and F respectively. The work done needed to
increase spring’s length from L to L is
A particle starting from rest is moving on a straight
line under the force of constant power. The force on
the particle at time t will be proportional to
Two horizontal pipes have radii in ratio 1 : 2 and
lengths in ratio 1 : 2. Same viscous fluid flows at
same pressure difference in both the pipes. The flow
rates are in the ratio
1. 1 : 2
2. 1 : 4
3. 1 : 8
4. 1 : 16
An U-tube is held vertical and contains mercury
( = 13.6 g/cc). Water is poured into one of its
limbs such that at equilibrium length of water inside
the limb is 27.2 cm. Rise of mercury level in the
other limb is
1. 0.5 cm
2. 2 cm
3. 1 cm
4. 1.5 cm
If a frictionless and bottomless tunnel is dug along
a diameter of earth and a ball is dropped in it, then
motion of the ball is
3. Simple harmonic
4. All of these
Practically range of Possion’s ratio is
1. 0.5 to 1
2. –1 to 0.5
3. 0 to 0.5
4. –0.5 to 0
In a circular motion speed increases at constant rate
4 m/s. At time t = 0 particle is at rest. If radius is
R, then centripetal acceleration at time t is
A body executes S.H.M of period 12 seconds. Time
taken by the body to cover half the amplitude from
mean position is
2. 3 s
3. 1 s
If the volume of diatomic gas increases by 2% in its
adiabatic expansion, then percentage decrease in
The degree of freedom per molecule for a gas at an
average is 8. If the gas performs 100 J of work when
it expands under constant pressure, then amount of
heat absorbed by gas is-
1. 500 J
2. 600 J
3. 20 J
4. 400 J
Which of the following thermodynamic process is
involved in conversion of water into steam?
The pressure in monoatomic gas increases linearly from 4 atm to 8 atm when its volume increases from 0.2 m to 0.5 m. The increase in internal energy is-
1. 480 kJ
2. 550 kJ
3. 200 kJ
4. 100 kJ
In the thermodynamic process shown in figure, the
work done by the system along A B C is
50 J and change in internal energy during C A is
30 J, then heat supplied during A B C is
1. 50 J
2. 20 J
3. 10 J
4. 80 J
A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as
heat engine is used as a refrigerator. If the work
done on the system is 10 J, then the amount of
energy absorbed from the sink at lower temperature
1. 100 J
2. 99 J
3. 90 J
4. 1 J
A body takes 10 minutes to cool from 50°C to 40°C.
If the temperature of the surroundings is 20°C, the temperature
of body in the next 10 minutes is:
Two rods of lengths d1 and d2 and coefficients of
thermal conductivities k1 and k2 are kept touching
each other in series. Both have same area of cross-section. The equivalent thermal conductivity is
1. k1 + k2
2. k1d1 + k2d2
Which of the following equation is correct for
1. = Constant
2. = Constant
3. = Constant
4. All of these
Equal moles of monoatomic and diatomic gases are
mixed, for mixture is
10 g of ice at 0°C is added to 10 g of water at 50°C,
final temperature of mixture
A man is travelling along a straight line joining two
sources, each emits 500 vibrations/second. Speed of
man such that he may hear 8 beats/second is
(speed of sound is 330 m/s)
1. 2.64 m/s
2. 3.86 m/s
3. 4.62 m/s
4. 6.24 m/s
What is sound level for intensity of 10–6 W/m2?
1. 50 dB
2. 60 dB
3. 70 dB
4. 80 dB
A pipe open at both the ends produces a fundamental note of frequency 200 Hz. If of its length is dipped in water, then fundamental
1. 100 Hz
2. 200 Hz
3. 50 Hz
4. 400 Hz
An organ pipe has resonant frequencies as 150 Hz,
450 Hz, 750 Hz, then its fundamental frequency
1. 100 Hz
2. 300 Hz
3. 150 Hz
4. 450 Hz
A rod of length 5 m is made of material of Young’s
modulus 106 N/m2 and density 1500 kg/m3. If it is
suspended vertically, then extension in the rod due
to its own weight is nearly.
1. 19 cm
2. 29 cm
3. 23 cm
4. 20 cm
An ice block of volume is placed in
gravity free space. When ice completely melts, then
its surface area - (Neglect difference in density of ice and water)
The height of water level in a tank is 100 cm. A hole
is made at a depth 25 cm from upper water level.
The range of water stream emerging out of the hole
Dimension of gravitational constant (G) in terms of
speed (V), mass (M) and length (L) is
A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of
5 m/minute. In what direction should a man on south
bank of the river should put his effort with velocity
10 m/minute to cross the river along the shortest
1. 30° West of North
2. 30° North of West
3. 60° West of North
4. 45° North of West
A particle is executing simple harmonic motion,
whose displacement is represented by y = 0.5 m sin
314 t. Frequency of the particle is
1. 100 Hz
2. 25 Hz
3. 50 Hz
4. 10 Hz
A particle starts from origin of co-ordinates with
velocity v along x-axis from time t = 0 and moves in
x-y plane with constant acceleration -directed in the
y-direction. The equation of trajectory is y = x2. Its
velocity component (v) in x-direction
Momentum of a particle at time t is . Power acting on the particle at time t is