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Select the correct sequence of taxonomic categories
of Mango in ascending order
1. Mangifera $\to$ Anacardiaceae $\to$ Dicotyledonae
$\to$ Sapindales $\to$ Angiospermae.
2. Mangifera $\to$ Anacardiaceae $\to$ Sapindales
$\to$ Dicotyledonae $\to$ Angiospermae.
3. Angiospermae $\to$ Dicotyledonae $\to$ Sapindales
$\to$ Anacardiaceae $\to$ Mangifera.
4. Angiospermae $\to$ Sapindales $\to$ Anacardiaceae
$\to$ Dicotyledonae $\to$ Mangifera.

Select incorrect statement with respect to the following group
of organisms and their characteristics
1. Chrysophyte            –    Includes diatoms and
                                       desmids, Planktonic
                                       organism.
2. Dinoflagellate           –   Mostly marine and
                                       photosynthetic, cell wall has
                                       stiff cellulosic plate
                                       on outer surface.
3. Euglenoids               –  Majority of them are fresh
                                      water, cell wall is absent.
4. Slime mould             –  Saprophytic motile spores
                                       with true walls

Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Volvox, Ulothrix, Fucus,
Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Acetabularia,
Laminaria Out of these 10 organisms, how many
organisms belong to the class chlorophyceae,
phaeophyceae and rhodophyceae respectively?
1. 4, 3, 3 
2. 4, 4, 2
3. 5, 3, 2 
4. 6, 2, 2

Select incorrect option with respect to viral disease in both plant
and animal
      Plant disease             Animal disease
1. Leaf rolling         –      Mumps
2. Yellowing            –      Herpes
3. Vein clearing       –      Influenza
4. Damping off        –     Diptheria

Gametophyte of Bryophyte is
1. Green and vascular.
2. Independent, multicellular.
3. Dependent on sporophyte.
4. Foliose in nature.

According to R.H. Whittaker Chlamydomonas and
Chlorella will be kept under
1. Monera 
2. Protista
3. Plantae 
4. Both 2 & 3

Select incorrect option with respect to given diagram

The leaf of Pinus is
1. Needle shaped 
2. Compound leaf
3. Having veinlets
4. Non-cutinised

Some plant groups exhibit intermediate condition with respect to
life cycle pattern. Which characteristic will not be
exhibited by such kind of plant?
1. Haplodiplontic life cycle pattern.
2. Both phases are multicellular and often free living.
3. They can differ in their dominant phase.
4. Meiosis takes place in the zygote

Select correct option with respect to Rhizophora
(i) Grows in swampy area.
(ii) Pneumatophores are present for respiration.
(iii) Is halophyte.
(iv) Shows in-situ germination of seed.
1. All are correct.
2. All are correct except (iv).
3. All are correct except (i) & (iv).
4. All are correct except (i), (iii), & (iv).

Morels and Agaricus have edible fruiting bodies and
belong to their respective class as.
1. Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
2. Basidiomycetes and Ascomycetes.
3. Ascomycetes and Phycomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes only

In gourds and watermelon, the tendril is formed by
the modification of
1. Extra axillary bud.
2. Axillary bud and leaf respectively.
3. Leaf and axillary bud respectively.
4. Leaf.

A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to
each other as in
1. Calotropis, called opposite decussate phyllotaxy.
2. Guava, called opposite superimposed phyllotaxy.
3. Ocimum, called opposite phyllotaxy.
4. More than one option is correct.

Select incorrect option with respect to BGA and bacteria
1. Both are prokaryote.
2. BGA is not motile in any stage of life but bacteria
can be.
3. Heterocyst are formed in few BGA for nitrogen
fixation and it is not formed in bacteria.
4. BGA and bacteria both can be autotrophic and
heterotrophic.

If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another
but not in particular direction, the aestivation is called
1. Imbricate       
2. Valvate       
3. Open          
4. Twisted          

Which one is correct set of option with respect to Coconut?
1.   Mesocarp     –   Sclerenchymatous fibre.
      Endocarp     –    Sclereids.
      Edible part   –    Endosperm.
      Kind of fruit  –   Berry.
2.  Mesocarp      –   Sclereids.
      Endocarp     –    Sclerenchymatous fibre.
      Edible part   –    Seed.
      Kind of fruit  –    Drupe.
3.  Mesocarp      –    Sclerenchymatous fibre.
     Endocarp      –    Sclereids.
     Edible part    –    Endosperm.
     Kind of fruit  –     Drupe.
4.  Mesocarp     –     Sclerenchymatous fibre.
     Endocarp      –     Sclereids.
     Edible part    –     Fruit.
     Kind of fruit  –     Drupe

$\mathrm{Pyruvic} \mathrm{acid} +\mathrm{CoA}+{\mathrm{NaD}}^{+}\stackrel{\mathrm{A}}{\to }$
$\mathrm{B}+{\mathrm{CO}}_2+{\mathrm{NADH}}^{+}+{\mathrm{H}}^{+}$ in the above given reaction of respiration what can be placed at the place of A and B respectively?
1. Iron and Citric acid.
2. Magnesium and Citric acid.
3. Dehydrogenase and Acetyl CoA.
4. Iron and Acetyl CoA

Out of the following examples, how many are belonging
to Fabaceae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae?
Aloe, Indigofera, Asparagus, Colchicum, Belladonna,
Mulaithi
   Fabaceae  Solanaceae   Liliaceae  
1.       3               2            1
2.       2               2            2
3.       2               1            3
4.       4               1            1

Select the incorrect statement with respect to vessel
1. Devoid of protoplasm.
2. Lignified wall.
3. Long cylindrical tube like cells.
4. Presence of vessel is characteristic of gymnosperm.

Which is the correct set of options with respect to the following?
1. Dicot stem         –  Differentiated ground tissue.
    Monocot stem    –  Endarch xylem.
    Dicot leaf           –  Isobilateral leaf.
    Monocot leaf      –  Dorsiventral leaf.
2. Dicot stem         –   Scattered vascular bundle.
    Monocot stem    –   Arranged vascular bundle.
    Dicot leaf           –   Amphistomatic.
    Monocot leaf      –   Hypostomatic.
3. Dicot stem          –   Endodermis is called a starch sheath.
     Monocot stem    –  Vascular bundle surrounded by a sclerenchymatous sheath.
      Dicot leaf          –  Palisade and spongy parenchyma.
      Monocot leaf     –  Stomata present on both surfaces.
4.  Dicot stem         –  Arranged vascular bundle.
    Monocot stem      – Endodermis is called a starch sheath.
    Dicot leaf            –  Amphistomatatic.
    Monocot leaf       –  Palisade and spongy
                                 parenchyma.

In the given diagram, which is not related with (A)
as indicated in the diagram?

1. Complimentary cells.
2. Involved in the exchange of gases.
3. Lens-shaped opening called lenticels.
4. Found in herbaceous trees.

Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to endomembranous system?

Which is not a feature with respect to given diagram of
mitochondria (as indicated in diagram)?

1. A $\to$ Continuous limiting boundary.
2. B $\to$ Forms number of infolding called cisternae.
3. A & B $\to$ Both having own specific enzyme.
4. C $\to$ Site of Krebs’ cycle.

The chromosome in which the centromere is situated close
to its end forming one extremely short and one very
long arm is
1. Telocentric 
2. Submetacentric
3. Acrocentric 
4. Metacentric

In which phase of mitosis, chromosomes are moved
to spindle equator and get aligned at equatorial plate
through spindle fibers to both poles, is
1. Prophase 
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase 
4. Telophase

When a cell is viewed under the microscope, it does
not show golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum,
nucleolus, nuclear envelope in which stage of cell
division?
1. Early prophase 
2. Late prophase
3. Interphase 
4. Telophase

These given statements are related with specific phase
of meiosis, select the unrelated statement with the
phase given below.
               Statement                              Phase
1. The homologous chromosome      –    Anaphase I
separate, while sister
chromatids remain associated
at their centromere
2. The bivalent chromosomes align   –   Metaphase I
on the equatorial plate
3. Cytokinesis follows resulting in      –  Telophase I
the formation of tetrad of cells
4. Terminalisation of chiasmata         –  Final stage
of prophase

NADH synthesized in glycolysis of aerobic respiration
is transferred into
1. Cytoplasm for oxidative phosphorylation.
2. Mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation.
3. Mitochondria for photo oxidation.
4. ETS for photo oxidation.

By convention the water potential of pure water at
standard temperatures, which is not under any
pressure, is taken to be
1. 100 atm 
2. Zero
3. More than 0 atm 
4. Less than 0 atm

Which is correct with respect to osmotic pressure of cells when
cells are in following stages?
        Turgid       Flaccid       Plasmolysed
1.  OP = TP    OP = DPD       OP < DPD
2. OP = TP      OP > DPD      OP < DPD
3. OP = 0        OP > 0          OP < 0
4. OP = DPD    OP = TP        OP < TP

Symplastic movement of water in intracellular space
of cell is aided by
1. Cyclosis 
2. Golgi body
3. Plasmodesmata 
4. Cell wall

Select the correct statement with respect to given statements
1. Water transport is related with transpiration and
guttation is related to stomata.
2. Transpiration is passive process but opening of
stomata is active.
3. C₃ plants are twice efficient in photosynthesis
as compared to C₄ plants whereas C₃ plants are
less efficient with respect to transpiration than C₄ plants.
4. Minerals uptake is passive whereas water
absorption is active.

Presence of oxygen is vital in aerobic respiration because:
1. It drives the whole process by removing hydrogen from ETS.
2. Oxygen causes phosphorylation which is light stimulated.
3. Oxygen directly stimulates complex V to generate ATP.
4. Oxygen is the initial electron acceptor.

Out of the following how many are micronutrient and
macronutrient?
Cu, S, Ca, Zn, Mn, Mg, Cl, Fe, B
      Micronutrient     Macronutrient
1.        5                       4
2.        6                       3
3.        7                       2
4.        4                       5

Select the correct option with respect to activator of element
1.   Mg  – Carboxylase
      Zn  – Rubisco
      Fe   – Nitrogenase
      Mo  – Catalase
2.  Mg – Rubisco
     Zn – Carboxylase
     Fe – Catalase
     Mo – Nitrogenase
3.  Mg – Carboxylase
     Zn – Rubisco
     Fe – Catalase
     Mo – Nitrogenase
4.  Mg – Rubisco
     Zn – Carboxylase
     Fe – Nitrogenase
     Mo – Catalase

Dark reaction of photosynthesis is driven by ______
and the product of first step of dark reaction undergoes
________
1. Light, phosphorylation.
2. Darkness, regeneration.
3. Products of light reaction, reduction.
4. Products of light reaction, carboxylation.

Stroma lamella in plastid lacks
1. PS II and PS I.
2. PS II and NADP reductase.
3. PS I and NAD reductase.
4. PS II only.

Chemiosmosis (related with respiration, photosynthesis ETS) does not require
1. Membrane, a proton pump.
2. ATP.
3. A proton gradient.
4. ATPase.

If there are 12 molecules of CO₂ to be fixed in photosynthesis, then how many turns of the Calvin cycle and how many molecules of glucose will be synthesized respectively?
1. 9 turns, 2 molecules.
2. 12 turns, 1 molecule.
3. 6 turns, 1 molecule.
4. 12 turns, 2 molecules.

In aerobic respiration, release of redox equivalents as
H-atom for the first time in mitochondrial matrix is
catalysed by
1. PGAL dehydrogenase.
2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase.
3. Pyruvate dehydrogenase.
4. $\mathrm{\alpha }$ KGA dehydrogenase.

Which hormone is derived from pigments in plants?
1. ABA
2. GA
3. C₂H₄
4. CK

A. _______ hormone is most widely used PGR in
agriculture.
B. _______ hormone is related with Richmond Lang
effect.
         A             B
1. Auxin          CK
2. Auxin          GA
3. Ethylene      CK
4. ABA            CK

The photoperiodic induction is not shown by plants
when it is
1. Decapitated.
2. Defoliated.
3. Apical meristem is removed.
4. More than one option is correct.

What conditions are required for vernalisation in
plants?
1. Low temperature, CO₂.
2. Low temperature, O₂, leaf.
3. Optimum temperature, O₂.
4. Low temperature, O₂.

Which statement is incorrect with respect to photoperiodism in
plants?
1. The site of perception of light/dark duration is
cotyledons or embryo.
2. It depends on duration of light/dark.
3. Critical exposure of light/dark is required.
4. When there is no correlation between exposure
to light duration and induction of flowering
response, plants are called day neutral plants.

Animals without excretory system, separate sexes,
and calcareous endoskeleton are applicable for
1. Chaetopeura 
2. Ophiura
3. Limulus 
4. Spongilla

Which of the following structure is associated with
locomotion ?
(i) Parapodia.
(ii) Water vascular system.
(iii) Radula.
(iv) Proboscis.
1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 
2. (i) only
3. (i), (ii) only
4. (i), (iii) only

Bony endoskeleton is present in
(i) Pristis (ii) Hippocampus
(iii) Icthyophis (iv) Myxine
1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 
2. (ii), (iii) only
3. (ii) only 
4. (ii), (iii), (iv) only

Blood is different from other connective tissue
because
(i) It is mesodermal in origin.
(ii) Blood cells do not form the composition of blood
plasma or matrix.
(iii) It contains different kind of cells performing
different function.
(iv) It lack fibres.
1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 
2. (ii), (iv) only
3. (iv) only 
4. (ii) only

Areolar connective tissue contains
(i) Semi-fluid ground substance containing modified
polysaccharide.
(ii) Fibroblast cells.
(iii) Mast cells.
(iv) Macrophages.
1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 
2. (ii), (iii), (iv) only
3. (i), (ii) only 
4. (i) only

Mark the incorrect statement regarding the Malpighian tubule in cockroach:
1. It is present at the junction of the midgut and hindgut.
2. It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells.
3. It absorbs uric acid from the hemolymph.
4. It is about 100-150 in number and is a thin yellow filamentous tubule.

Which of the following feature is supposed to be most
important as the evolutionary success of Arthropods?
1. Segmented body.
2. Hard chitinous exoskeleton.
3. Tube within tube body plan.
4. Presence of metathoracic wings.

Male reproductive system of cockroach consist of

Among Inulin, Insulin, Lecithin, Heparin, Morphine and
Chitin, Polymeric compounds are
1. 4 
2. 3
3. 2 
4. 1

In the DNA—
(i) The two strands of DNA are antiparallel.
(ii) The nitrogen bases are projected more or less
perpendicular to this backbone but face inside.
(iii) The back bone is formed by the sugar phosphate
sugar chain.
(iv) All the nitrogenous bases will be present in
equimolar concentration.
1. (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) 
2. (i), (iii) only
3. (i), (ii), (iii) only 
4. (i) only

During catalytic cycle of an enzyme–
1. Enzyme alter its shape to fit the substrate
molecule.
2. Substrate alter its shape to get fit into the
enzyme molecule.
3. Both enzyme and substrate changes its shape
during transition state.
4. Enzyme and substrate are rigid molecular
structure and it never changes its shape.

To make pancreatic enzyme in action, which of the following is required?
(i) Enterokinase (ii) Bile
(iii) Intrinsic factor (iv) HCl
1. (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) 
2. (i), (ii) only
3. (i) only 
4. (i), (iii) only

Mark the incorrect match

How many statements are false from given
information?
(a) Ribozymes are enzyme made up of protein.
(b) In every chemical reaction transition state
energy is always greater than activation energy.
(c) Co-factors are always proteinous in nature
(d) Enzyme inhibition can not be removed.
(e) Enzyme action can be stopped at low temp.
(f) Km value (Michaelis constant) is the specific
concentration of substrate molecule.
1. 2 
2. 3
3. 4 
4. 5

If receptor molecule is removed from target organ for
hormone action, the target organ will
1. Continue to respond but require higher
concentration of hormone.
2. Continue to respond but in opposite way.
3. Continue to respond without any difference.
4. Not respond to hormone.

A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine
even when he is kept on a carbohydrate free diet. It is
because
1. Fats are catabolised to form glucose.
2. Glucose are synthesized in liver.
3. Glucose are discharged in blood stream from
liver.
4. Glycogen from muscles are released in the blood
stream

Given below is a table comparing the effects of
sympathetic and parasymepathetic nervous system
for four featurs (1-4). Which one feature is correctly
described?

A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver. It transports all of the following
to the liver except
1. Monosaccharides.
2. Amino acids.
3. Vitamins A and E.
4. Insulin

Congestive heart failure is often linked to:
1. Congestion of lungs which commonly occur in
asthmatics and smokers.
2. Damage of heart muscles by an inadequate
blood supply.
3. Deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol, and fibrous
tissues in the coronary arteries.
4. Blockage of AVN.

Erythroblastosis fetalis condition arises when a:
1. Rh (+) female carries a Rh(–) foetus for the
first time.
2. Rh (+) female carries a Rh(–) foetus for the
second time.
3. Rh (–) female carries a Rh (+) foetus for the
first time.
4. Rh (–) female carries a Rh (+) foetus for the
second time.

“This segment allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium to keep up the osmolarity”. Which segment does the statement suggest?
1. Descending limb of Henle’s loop.
2. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
3. Collecting duct.
4. Proximal convoluted tubule.

Which of the following correctly explains the function
of a specific part of human nephron?
1. Afferent arteriole: Carriers the blood away from
the glomerulus towards renal vein.
2. Podocytes: Create minute spaces (slit pores) for
the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s capsule.
3. Henle’s Loop: Most reabsorption of major
substances from the glomerular filtrate.
4. Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K⁺
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries.

Which of the following statements are true regarding
association areas of brain?
A. These are the largest areas of forebrain.
B. These are involved in the regulation of sexual
behaviour, expression of emotional reactions
and motivation.
C. These are responsible for complex functions like
intersensory association, memory and
communication.
D. It is a part of cerebral cortex.
1. A & B 
2. A, B & C
3. A, C & D 
4. A & C

The following structures are found in an electrical
synapse except
1. Gap junctions.
2. Pre-synaptic membrane.
3. Post synaptic membrane.
4. Synaptic vesicles.

What would happen if a threshold stimulus is applied
to a nerve fibre?
1. Its permeability for Na⁺ increases.
2. Its permeability for K⁺ increases.
3. There is rapid efflux of K⁺
4. There is rapid influx of Ca²⁺.

Which part of the ear determines the pitch of the sound?
1. Reissner’s membrane.
2. Basilar membrane.
3. Tectorial membrane.
4. Hair cells.

From the table choose the correct option regarding
the hormones, the source gland I cells that secretes it
an its target organ/cell.

The hormones from the heart, kidney, and gastrointestinal tract respectively are:
1. ANF, Rennin, Trypsin
2. ADH, Renin, GIP
3. ANF, Erythropoietin, CCK
4. GIP, CCK, Renin

Select the true statement(s):
A. Growth factors are hormones secreted by several non-endocrine tissues.
B. Estradiol is synthesised and secreted mainly by growing ovarian follicles.
C. Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of glycogen.
D. Adrenal cortex secretes androgen like hormone.
1. B & C 
2. A, C & D
3. A, B, C, D 
4. B, C & D

During counter current mechanism, interstitial medullary concentration can be increased upto 4 times due to

1. i, ii, iii & iv 
2. i & ii
3. ii & iii 
4. i only

Which of the following physiological changes is not associated with Renin– Angiotensin-Aldosterone system?
1. Increase in GFR
2. Increase in blood pressure
3. Increase in blood aldosterone level
4. Increase in tubular secretion

Which of the following statements is not correct about
ECG?
1. P wave represents atrial depolarisation.
2. QRS wave initiates ventricular contraction.
3. The end of T wave marks the end of ventricular
systole.
4. Q wave marks the beginning of atrial systole.

How many statement is false regrading quite
breathing?
(i) Intrapulmonary pressure remains –ve during
inspiration and expiration.
(ii) Intrapleural pressure becomes +ve in expiration.
(iii) About 500 ml of fresh air enter the alveoli during
each inspiration.
1. (i), (ii), (iii) 
2. (i) only
3. (ii) only 
4. (i), (ii) only

The term feedback refers to
1. The effect of substrate on the rate of enzymatic
reaction.
2. The effect of end product on the rate of
enzymatic reaction.
3. The effect of enzyme concentration on the rate
of reaction.
4. The effect of external inhibitor on the rate of
enzymatic reaction.

In a myosin molecule HMM (heavy meromyosin) is
present in
(i) Globular head (ii) Short arm (iii) Myosin tail
1. (i), (ii), (iii) 
2. (i) only
3. (i), (ii) only 
4. (iii) only

Angiotensinogen is produced by
1. Juxtaglomerular cells 
2. Liver
3. Macula densa 
4. Lungs

Presence of albumin in urine usually occurs in
1. Diabetes mellitus 
2. Pregnant women
3. Normal man
4. Bright’s disease

Which of the following bone of the skull is not present
in pair?
1. Temporal bone 
2. Sphenoid bone
3. Zygomatic bone 
4. Maxillary bone

How many polypeptide chains are present in one
subunit of a myosin filament?
1. 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains.
2. 2 heavy chains and 4 light chains.
3. 4 heavy chains and 2 light chains.
4. 4 heavy chains and 4 light chains.

Breathing is best described as
1. Utilisation of O₂ by the cells for catabolic reaction.
2. Transport of gases by the blood.
3. The movement of air into and out of the lungs.
4. Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane

Which of the following characteristics is not correct for squamous epithelium?
1. Made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells.
2. Cells with irregular boundaries.
3. Free surface contains microvilli.
4. Involved in a function like forming diffusion boundary.

Mark the incorrect statement regarding compound epithelium:
1. Made up of more than one layer of cells.
2. Vital role in secretion and absorption.
3. Provide protection against chemical and mechanical stress.
4. It covers the moist surface of the buccal cavity.

Which of the following component is not common in
bones and cartilage?
1. Fibres 
2. Lacunae
3. Intercellular matrix 
4. Lamellae

In the given graph A, B and C are the three curves
representing oxyhaemoglobin dissociation. If graph
B represent the normal state with ${\mathrm{P}}_{{\mathrm{CO}}_2}$ as 40 mm of
Hg, then the graph A and C will be obtained respectively during :

 
1. A : ${\mathrm{P}}_{{\mathrm{CO}}_2}$ as 20 mm of Hg, C : More pH.
2. A : High temperature, C : ${\mathrm{P}}_{{\mathrm{CO}}_2}$ as 80 mm of Hg.
3. A : ${\mathrm{P}}_{{\mathrm{CO}}_2}$as 20 mm of Hg, C : More acidity.
4. A : ${\mathrm{P}}_{{\mathrm{CO}}_2}$as 80 mm of Hg, C : ${\mathrm{P}}_{{\mathrm{CO}}_2}$ as 20 mm of Hg.

Which of the following statement is correct?
1. All the cells of heart are autorhythmic.
2. Only specialized cells of heart are autorhythmic.
3. Only cells of SA node and AV node are
autorhythmic.
4. No cells of heart are autorhythmic.

Calculate the wavelength of the spectral line when the electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from fourth energy level to second energy level ?
1. 4.86 nm              
2. 486 nm
3. 48.6 nm              
4. 4860 nm

The wave number of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen is 15200 cm^–1. The wave number of the corresponding line of Li²⁺ ion is-
1. 15200 cm^–1
2. 60800 cm^–1
3. 76000 cm^–1
4. 136800 cm^–1

The ionization energy of sodium is 495 kJ mol^–1. How much energy is needed to convert atoms present in 2.3 mg of sodium into sodium ions ?
1. 4.95 J                 
2. 49.5 J           
3. 495 J                          
4. 0.495 J  

Which of the following has highest melting point -
1. NaCl                   
2. NaI
3. NaBr                   
4. NaF

Incorrect statement about resonance is :
1. The resonating structures are hypothetical.
2. The unpaired electrons in various resonating structures are same.
3. Hybrid structure is most energetic.
4. Hybrid structure is least energetic.

The order of strength of H-bonds is -
1. ClH – Cl > NH – N > OH – O > FH – F
2. ClH – Cl < NH – N < OH – O < FH – F
3. ClH – Cl < NH – N > OH – O > FH – F
4. ClH – Cl < NH – N < OH – O > FH – F

Which is steam volatile -
1. o-nitrophenol       
2. Aniline
3. Glycerol              
4. p-nitrophenol

Every H₂O molecule is surrounded by maximum how many H₂O molecule -
1. 2      
2. 3          
3. 4      
4. 6

In terms of polar character, which of the following order is correct ?
1. NH₃ < H₂O < HF < H₂S
2. H₂S < NH₃ < H₂O < HF
3. H2O < NH₃ < H₂S < HF
4. HF < H₂O < NH₃ < H₂S

During electrolysis which anion migrates towards anode so as to produce 2,3-dimethyl butane -
1. CH${}_3$–CH${}_2$–COO¯    
2. 
3.        
4. CH3COO^–

Reactivity of alkenes towards HX decreases in the order -
1. Butene > Propene > Ethene
2. Butene > Ethene > Propene
3. Ethene > Propene > Butene
4. None of these

For an endothermic reaction -
1. ${\mathrm{H}}_{\mathrm{R}} = {\mathrm{H}}_{\mathrm{P}}$              
2. ${\mathrm{H}}_{\mathrm{R} }> {\mathrm{H}}_{\mathrm{p}}$         
3. ${\mathrm{H}}_{\mathrm{R}} < {\mathrm{H}}_{\mathrm{P}}$                       
4. None

In the reaction
CO${}_2$(g) + H${}_2$(g) $\to$ CO(g) + H2O(g);
                                          $∆$H = 2.8 kJ    
$∆$H represents
1. Heat of reaction      
2. Heat of combustion  
3. Heat of formation          
4. Heat of solution

For the reaction                                             
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) $\iff$ 2NH₃(g) ; $∆$H = ?
1. $∆$E + 2RT              
2. $∆$E – 2RT         
3. $∆$E + RT                      
4. $∆$E – RT

Heat of neutralisation of a strong acid by a strong base is equal to $∆$H of -
1. H${}^{+}$ + OH¯ = H₂O    
2. H₂O + H${}^{+}$ = H${}_3$O${}^{+}$  
3. 2H₂ + O${}_2$ = 2H₂O                                  
4. CH₃COOH + NaOH = CH₃COONa + H₂O

Consider the following reaction,
S + O₂ $\to$ SO₂,  $∆$H = – 298.2 kJ mole^–1
SO₂ + 1/2 O₂ $\to$  SO₃, $∆$H = – 98.7kJ mole^–1
SO₃ + H₂O $\to$ H₂SO₄ , $∆$H = – 130.2 kJ mole^–1
H₂ + 1/2 O₂ $\to$ H₂O, $∆$H = – 287.3 kJ mole^–1
the enthalpy of formation of H₂SO₄ at 298 K will be–

2.1 g of Fe combines with S evolving 3.77 kJ. The heat of the formation of FeS in kJ/mole is:

A 1 litre container contains 2 moles of PCl₅ initially. If at equilibrium , K_C is found to be 1, degree of dissociation of PCl₅ is -
1. 4         
2. 3       
3. $\frac{1}{2}$        
4. 50

The equilibrium constant for the following equilibrium is given at 0ºC.
Na₂HPO₄.12H₂O $\rightleftharpoons$ Na₂HPO₄.7H₂O(s)+5H₂O(g)                           
                                   K_P = 31.25 × 10^–13
the pressure of water vapor is -
1.  $\frac{1}{5}$x ${10}^{-3}$ atm       
2. 0.5 × 10^–3 atm
3. 5 × 10^–2 atm        
4. 5 × 10^–3 atm

The equilibrium constant for,
2H₂S(g) $\rightleftharpoons$ 2H₂(g) + S₂(g) is 0.0118 at 1200 K while the heat of dissociation is 597.4 kJ. The standard equilibrium constant of the reaction at 1300 K is -
1. 1.180
2. 11.80
3. 118.0                  
4. cannot be calculated from given data

Extent of a reaction can always be increased by increasing the temperature.
1. True
2. False 
3. Can't say
4. None 

In the preparation of quick lime from lime stone, the reaction is:
CaCO₃(s) $\rightleftharpoons$ CaO(s) + CO₂(g)
Experiments carried out between 850ºC and 950ºC led to set of K${}_{\mathrm{p}}$ values fitting an empirical equation
log K${}_{\mathrm{p}}$ = 7.282 – $\frac{8500}{\mathrm{T}}$
where T is absolute temp. If the reaction is carried out in quite air, what temperature would be predicted from this equation for complete decomposition of the lime stone?
1. 1667.26 K
2. 1682.26 K
3. 1695.26 K
4. None of these

For the equilibrium
LiCl.3NH${}_3$(s)   LiCl.NH${}_3$(s) + 2NH3
K${}_{\mathrm{p}}$ = 9 atm${}^2$, at 40ºC. A 5 litre contains 0.1 mole of LiCl.NH${}_3$. How many moles of NH${}_3$ should be added to the flask at this
temperature to drive the backward reaction for completion.
1. 0.78
2. 0.80
3. 0.85
4. None of these

The mass of oxygen that would be required to produce enough CO, which completely reduces 1.6 kg Fe2O3 (at. mass Fe = 56) is -
(Fe₂O₃ + 3CO $\to$ 2Fe + 3CO₂)
1. 240 gm               
2. 480 gm          
3. 720 gm                                
4. 960 gm

The hydrated salt Na₂SO₄.nH₂O, undergoes 55% loss in weight on heating and becomes anhydrous. The value of n will be -
1. 5
2. 3
3. 7
4. 10

During the disproportionation of I₂ to Iodide and Iodate ions, the ratio of Iodate and Iodide ions formed in alkaline medium is:
1. 1 : 5                    
2. 5 : 1   
3. 3 : 1                     
4. 1 : 3

Which of the following reaction in neither oxidation nor reduction ?
1. Cr${\mathrm{O}}_4^{2-}$ $\to$ Cr${}_2$${\mathrm{O}}_7^{2-}$
2. Cr $\to$ CrCl₃
3.  Na $\to$ Na⁺
4. 2S${}_2$${\mathrm{O}}_3^{2-}$_$\to$ S${}_4$${\mathrm{O}}_6^{2-}$

X + C + Cl₂ $\underset{\mathrm{of} \mathrm{about} 1000\mathrm{K}}{\overset{\mathrm{High} \mathrm{temperature}}{\to }}$ Y + CO ; Y + 2H₂O $\to$ Z + 2HCl
Compound Y is found in polymeric chain structure and is an electron deficient Molecule. Y must be -
1. BeO                    
2. BeCl₂
3. BeH₂                                       
4. AlCl₃

MgBr${}_2$ and Mgl${}_2$ are soluble in acetone because of -
1. Their ionic nature
2. Their covalent nature
3. Their co-ordinate nature
4. None is correct

In the reaction,
2KI + H${}_2$O + O${}_3$ $\to$ 2KOH + O${}_2$ + A,                     
the compound A is –
1. KIO${}_3$                          
2. I₂O${}_5$
3. HIO${}_3$                          
4. I${}_2$

Moist iodine reacts with ozone to form–
1. HI                              
2. I${}_2$O${}_5$
3. HIO${}_3$                          
4. HIO${}_4$

Formic acid is considered as a resonance hybrid of the four structure -
               
Which of the following order is correct for the stability of the four contributing structures?
1. I > II > III > IV      
2. I > II > IV > III
3. I < III < II < IV      
4. I > IV > III > II

Which of the following shows the correct order of decreasing acidity-
1. PhCO₂H > PhSO₃H > PhCH₂OH > PhOH
2. PhSO₃H > PhOH > PhCO₂H > PhCH₂OH
3. PhCO₂H >PhOH > PhCH₂OH > PhSO₃H
4. PhSO₃H > PhCO₂H > PhOH > PhCH₂OH

Arrange the following in correct order of acidic strength:
(I) CH₃–NO₂          
(II) NO₂ – CH₂ – NO₂
(III) CH₃ – CH₂ – NO₂
(IV)    
1. IV > II > I > III      
2. IV > II > III > I
3. III > I > II > IV      
4. III > I > IV > II

${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\stackrel{{\mathrm{CH}}_3}{\stackrel{|}{\mathrm{CH}}}-{\mathrm{CH}}_2-{\mathrm{CH}}_3\stackrel{{\mathrm{Cl}}_2/\mathrm{hv}}{\to }$
N (no. of isomers) $\stackrel{\mathrm{Fractional} \mathrm{Distillation}}{\to }$(F),(N) and (F) are
1. 6,4
2. 4,4
3. 6,6
4. 3,3
 

The correct statement(s) about the compound given below is (are) 

1. the compound is optically active
2. the compound possesses centre of symmetry
3. the compound possesses plane of symmetry
4. the compound possesses axis of symmetry

The correct statement(s) concerning the structures E, F and G is/are:

E.
F.
G.

1. E, F, and G are resonance structures
2. F and G are tautomers
3. F and G are geometrical isomers
4. F and G are enantiomers 

The molecular formula of the first member of the family of alkenynes and its name is given by the set :
1. C₃H₂, allene
2. C₅H₆, 1-penten-3-yne
3. C₆H₈, 1-hexen-5-yne
4. C₄H₄, butenyne

The IUPAC name for the compound:

1. Propylene Oxide 
2. 1, 2-Oxo propane
3. 1, 2-Epoxy propane 
4. 1, 2-Propoxide

The IUPAC name of  

1. 1-cyclohexyl-3-methyl-1-pentene
2. 3-methyl-5-cyclohexyl-pent-ene
3. 1-cyclohexyl-3-ethyl-but-1-ene
4. 1-cyclohexyl-3,4-dimethyl-but-1-ene

The systematic name of

1. 1-acetoxy acetic acid
2. 2-acetoxy ethanoic acid
3. 2-ethanoyl oxyacetic acid
4. 2-ethanoyl oxyethanoic acid

A gas is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC at 1.0 atm pressure. If the initial volume of the gas is  10.0 l, its final volume would be 
1. 7.32 l 
2. 10.00 l
3. 13.66 l 
4. 20.00 l

The ratio between the root square velocity of H₂ at 50 K and that of O₂ at 800 K, is -
1. 4 
2. 2
3. 1 
4. 1/4

One mole of N₂O₄(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N₂O₄ (g) decompress to NO₂ (g). The resultant pressure is 
1. 1.2 atm 
2. 2.4 atm
3. 2.0 atm 
4. 1.0 atm

At a temperature T K, the pressure of 4.0 g argon in a bulb is p. The bulb is put in a bath having temperature higher by 50 K than the first one. 0.8 g of argon gas and to be removed to maintain original pressure. The temperature T is equal to 
1. 510 K
2.  200 K
3. 100 K 
4. 73 K

The M.K.S units of the coefficient of viscosity is:
1. $\mathrm{kg} {\mathrm{m}}^{-1}{\mathrm{s}}^{-1}$
2. $\mathrm{kg} {\mathrm{ms}}^{-2}$
3. $\mathrm{kg} {\mathrm{m}}^2{\mathrm{s}}^{-1}$
4. ${\mathrm{kg}}^{-1}{\mathrm{m}}^{-1}{\mathrm{s}}^2$

The SI unit of length is the meter. Suppose we adopt a new unit of length which equals to x meters. The area 1m² expressed in terms of the new unit has a magnitude -
1. x
2. x²
3. $\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}}$
4. $\frac{1}{{\mathrm{x}}^2}$

The displacement - time graph of a moving particle is shown below. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point 

1. C
2. D
3. E
4. F

A body starts from rest, the ratio of distances travelled by the body during 3rd and 4th seconds is :
1. 7/5
2. 5/7
3. 7/3
4. 3/7 

A particle is projected from a horizontal plane (\(x\text-z\) plane) such that its velocity vector at time \(t\) is given by \(\vec{v}=a \hat{i}+(b-c t )\hat{j}\). Its range on this horizontal plane is given by: 

A ball is thrown from a point on ground at some angle of projection. At the same time a bird starts from a point directly above this point of projection at a height h horizontally with speed u. Given that in its flight ball just touches the bird at one point. Find the distance on ground where ball strikes 
1. $2\mathrm{u}\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{g}}}$
2. $\mathrm{u}\sqrt{\frac{2\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{g}}}$
3. $2\mathrm{u}\sqrt{\frac{2\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{g}}}$
4. $\mathrm{u}\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{g}}}$

A ship is travelling due east at 10 km/h. A ship heading 30$°$ east of north is always due north from the first ship. The speed of the second ship in km/h is 
1. $20\sqrt{2}$
2. $20\sqrt{3/2}$
3. 20
4. $20/\sqrt{2}$

A particle is kept at rest at origin. Another particle starts from (5,0) with a velocity of $-4\hat{\mathrm{i}}+3\hat{\mathrm{j}}$. Find their closest distance of approach.
1. 3 m
2. 4 m
3. 5 m
4. 2 m

At a given instant, A is moving with velocity of 5 m/s upwards. What is velocity of B at this time?

1. 15 m/s $\downarrow$
2. 15 m/s $\uparrow$
3. 5 m/s $\downarrow$
4. 5 m/s $\uparrow$

A body of mass \(5\) kg is suspended by the strings making angles $\mathrm{}$\(60^\circ\) and $\mathrm{}$\(30^\circ\) with the horizontal.
 
Then:

A weight can be hung in any of the following four ways by string of same type. In which case is the string most likely to break?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

A particle of small mass m is joined to a very heavy body by a light string passing over a light pulley. Both bodies are free to move. The total downward force in the pulley is 
1. mg
2. 2 mg
3. 4 mg
4. cannot be determined

A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity increases
uniformly and becomes 80 radian per second after 5
second. The total angular displacement is :
1. 800 rad 
2. 400 rad
3. 200 rad 
4. 100 rad

A 1.0 kg block collides with a horizontal weightless
spring of force constant 2.75 Nm^–1 as shown in figure.
The block compresses the spring 4.0 m from the
rest position. If the coefficient of kinetic friction
between the block and horizontal surface is 0.25,
the speed of the block at the instant of collision is

1. 0.4 ms^–1 
2. 4 ms^–1 
3. 0.8 ms^–1 
4. 8 ms^–1

A car of mass 'm' is driven with acceleration 'a'
along a straight level road against a constant external
resistive force 'R'. When the velocity of the car is
'V', the rate at which the engine of the car is doing
work will be :
1. RV 
2. maV
3. (R + ma) V 
4. (ma – R)V

The diagrams represent the potential energy U
of a function of the inter-atomic distance r. Which
diagram corresponds to stable molecules found in
nature.
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Four thin rods of same mass M and same length l, form a square as shown in figure. Moment of inertia of this system about an axis through centre O and perpendicular to its plane is

1. $\frac{4}{3} M{I}^2$
2. $\frac{{\mathrm{MI}}^2}{3}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{MI}}^2}{6}$
4. $\frac{2}{3} M{I}^2$

A horizontal heavy uniform bar of weight \(W\) is supported at its ends by two men. At the instant, one of the men lets go off his end of the rod, the other feels the force on his hand changed to:

A thin circular ring of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity \(\omega\)$$.  Four objects of mass \(m\) are held gently at the opposite ends of the ring's two perpendicular diameters. The angular velocity of the ring will be:
1. \(\dfrac{M\omega}{M+4m}\)
2. \(\dfrac{(M+4m)\omega}{M}\)
3. \(\dfrac{(M-4m)\omega}{M+4m}\)
4. \(\dfrac{M\omega}{4m}\)

Two discs of moment of inertia I₁ and I₂ and angular speeds ${\omega }_1$ and ${\omega }_2$ are rotating along collinear axes passing through their centre of mass and perpendicular to their plane. If the two are made to rotate together along the same axis, the rotational KE of system will be        
1. $\frac{{\mathrm{I}}_1{\mathrm{\omega }}_1+ {\mathrm{I}}_2{\mathrm{\omega }}_2}{2({\mathrm{I}}_1+ {\mathrm{I}}_2)}$
2. _{$\frac{\left(I_1 + I_2\right){\left({\omega }_1 + {\omega }_2 \right)}^2}{2}$}
3. $\frac{{(I_1{\omega }_1+ I_2{\omega }_2)}^2}{2(I_1+ I_2)}$
4. None of these

In the following figure, a body of mass m is tied at one end of a light string and this string is wrapped around the solid cylinder of mass M and radius R. At the moment t = 0 the system starts moving. If the friction is negligible, angular velocity at time t would be  -

1. $\frac{\mathrm{mgRt}}{(\mathrm{M}+ \mathrm{m})}$
2. $\frac{2\mathrm{Mgt}}{(\mathrm{M}+ 2\mathrm{m})}$
3. $\frac{2\mathrm{mgt}}{\mathrm{R}(\mathrm{M}- 2\mathrm{m})}$
4. $\frac{2\mathrm{mgt}}{\mathrm{R}(\mathrm{M}+ 2\mathrm{m})}$

The tidal waves in the sea are primarily due to
1. The gravitational effect of the moon on the earth
2. The gravitational effect of the sun on the earth
3. The gravitational effect of venus on the earth
4. The atmospheric effect of the earth itself

If the radius of a planet is \(R\) and its density is \(\rho,\) the escape velocity from its surface will be:
1. \(v_e\propto \rho R\)
2. \(v_e\propto \sqrt{\rho} R\)
3. \(v_e\propto \frac{\sqrt{\rho}}{R}\)
4. \(v_e\propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{\rho} R}\)

If the compressibility of water is $\sigma$ per unit atmospheric pressure, then the decrease in volume V due to P atmospheric pressure will be
1. $\mathrm{\sigma P}/\mathrm{V}$
2. $\mathrm{\sigma PV}$
3. $\mathrm{\sigma }/\mathrm{PV}$
4. $\mathrm{\sigma V}/\mathrm{P}$

A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. The elastic energy stored in the wire is:
1. 0.2 J
2. 10 J
3. 20 J
4. 0.1 J

If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is the depth of the lake
1. 10 m 
2. 20 m
3. 60 m 
4. 30 m

Three liquids of densities \(d,\) \(2d\) and \(3d\) are mixed in equal proportions of weights. The relative density of the mixture is: 

An ice berg of density$900 Kg/m^3$ is floating in water of density $1000 Kg/m^3$. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is -
1. 20% 
2. 35%
3. 10% 
4. 25%

Consider the following equation of Bernouilli’s theorem. 
$\mathrm{P}+\frac{1}{2}{\mathrm{\rho V}}^2+\mathrm{\rho gh}=\mathrm{K}\left(\mathrm{constant}\right)$
The dimensions of K/P are same as that of which of the following           
1. Thrust                     
2.  Pressure
3. Angle                       
4. Viscosity

A metal rod of Young's modulus Y and coefficient of thermal expansion $\mathrm{\alpha }$ is held at its two ends such that its length remains invariant. If its temperature is raised by $\mathrm{t}°\mathrm{C}$, the linear stress developed in it is:
1. $\frac{\mathrm{\alpha t}}{Y}$
2. $\mathrm{Y\alpha t}$
3. $\frac{Y}{\mathrm{\alpha t}}$
4. $\frac{1}{\mathrm{Y\alpha t}}$

In thermodynamic process, \(200\) J of heat is given to a gas and \(100\) J of work is also done on it. The change in internal energy of the gas is: 
1. \(100\) J 
2. \(300\) J
3. \(419\) J 
4. \(24\) J

If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is $\mathrm{\gamma }$, the change in internal energy of a mass of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure, P is:

The isothermal bulk modulus of a perfect gas at normal pressure is 

1. $1.013\times {10}^5 \mathrm{N}/{\mathrm{m}}^2$
2. $1.013\times {10}^6 \mathrm{N}/{\mathrm{m}}^2$
3. $1.013\times {10}^{-11} \mathrm{N}/{\mathrm{m}}^2$
4. $1.013\times {10}^{11} \mathrm{N}/{\mathrm{m}}^2$

A gas is being compressed adiabatically. The specific heat of the gas during compression is
1. Zero 
2. Infinite
3. Finite but non-zero 
4. Undefined

An ideal heat engine working between temperature T_1­ and T₂ has an efficiency $\eta$. What is the new efficiency if both the source and sink temperature are doubled?
1. $\frac{\mathrm{\eta }}{2}$
2. $\mathrm{\eta }$
3. $2\mathrm{\eta }$
4. $3\mathrm{\eta }$

Suppose ideal gas equation follows $V{P}^3 = \mathrm{constant}$ . Initial temperature and volume of the gas are T and V respectively. If gas expand to 27V, then its temperature will become -
1. T 
2. 9T
3. 27 T 
4. T/9 

A particle executing simple harmonic motion with amplitude of 0.1 m. At a certain instant when its displacement is 0.02 m, its acceleration is 0.5 m/s². The maximum velocity of the particle is (in m/s) 
1. 0.01 
2. 0.05
3. 0.5 
4. 0.25

What is constant in S.H.M. ?
1. Restoring force 
2. Kinetic energy
3. Potential energy 
4. Periodic time

In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to zero displacement is \(0.170\) s. The frequency of the wave is:

Two waves are given by \(y_{1}=asin\left ( \omega t -kx\right )\) and \(y_{2}=acos\left ( \omega t -kx\right ).\) The phase difference between the two waves is:
1. \(\frac{\pi }{4}\)
2. \(\pi \)
3. \(\frac{\pi }{8}\)
4. \(\frac{\pi }{2}\)

Two superposing waves are represented by the following equations: \(y_1=5 \sin 2 \pi(10{t}-0.1 {x}), {y}_2=10 \sin 2 \pi(10{t}-0.1 {x}).\) 
The ratio of intensities \(\dfrac{I_{max}}{I_{min}}\) will be:
1. \(1\)
2. \(9\)
3. \(4\)
4. \(16\)