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The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant, independent, photosynthetic, vascular plant body. It alternates with multicellular, saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but short-lived haploid gametophyte. This type of pattern is exhibited by
1. Bryophytes (Sphagnum, Polytrichum).
2. Pteridophytes (Selaginella, Lycopodium).
3. Most of the algal genera (Fucus, Chara, Polysiphonia).
4. Seed plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms).

The type of life-cycle in which there is no free-living
sporophytes and the dominant, photosynthetic phase
in such plants is the free-living gametophyte. We are
talking about
1. Haplontic life cycle shown in Volvox and some
species of Chlamydomonas.
2. Diplontic life cycle as shown in seed-bearing
plants.
3. Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in bryophytes
and pteridophytes.
4. Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in Kelps

Read the following statements :
A. The male or female cones or strobili may be
borne on same tree in Pinus.
B. In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are
borne on different trees.
C. Stem of Cycas is branched and of Pinus and
Cedrus is unbranched.
D. In gymnosperms generally tap roots are found.
Select the correct statements.
1. A, B 
2. A, B, D
3. A, B, C
4. C, D

Prothallus is
1. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the
thallus develops.
2. A sporophytic inconspicuous free living structure
formed in pteridophytes.
3. A gametophytic inconspicuous free living structure
formed in pteridophytes.
4. A gametophytic conspicuous structure formed
after fertilization in pteridophytes.

Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a
1. Apical bud 
2. Axillary bud
3. Lateral bud
4.  Meristem

Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending
flower and live plants to distant places because
1. It is easily available.
2. It reduces transpiration.
3. It is hygroscopic.
4. All of the above.

In Phaeophyceae, the spores (zoospores) are
1. Pyriform and bear 2 flagella (one longitudinal and
other transverse).
2. Pear-shaped and bear 2 flagella that are laterally
attached.
3. Pyriform and bear 2-8, equal and apial flagella.
4. Pear-shaped and bear 2-8, equal and apical
flagella

The given diagram shows:

Find out the incorrect statement about the
Rhodophyceae.
1. Majority are marine with greater concentrations
found in the warmer areas.
2. They are also found at great depths of oceans
where relatively little light penetrates.
3. Usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation.
4. They reproduce asexually by biflagellate
zoospores.

Read the following statement and find out the
incorrect statement.
1. Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by
fragmentation, asexually by formation of different
types of spores and sexually by formation of
gametes.
2. Algae are classified into three classes,
pteridophytes into four classes and angiosperms
into two classes.
3.  Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid,
autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms.
4. The plant body of algae is more differentiated
than that of bryophytes.

Read the following statements (a-e) and answer
question that follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes
are free-living.
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are
heterosporous.
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo
is oogamous.
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts in more elaborate
than that in mosses.
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One 
2. Two
3. Three 
4. Four

Read the following statements.
(a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(b) Bryophytes have well developed vessels and
sieve tubes.
(c) Strobilus is found in the main plant body of
Equisetum.
(d) Antheridia are absent but archegonia are present
in female storobil of gymnosperms.
Choose the correct option.
1. All of these 
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3.  Only (a) 
4. (b) and (c)

Which one is correct about male and female
gametophyte?
1. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, they have no
independent free-living existence.
2. In bryophytes and angiosperms, they have
free-living existence.
3. In gymnosperms and angiosperms, they have no
independent free-living existence.
4. In bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms,
they have free-living existence

Identify the statement that most accurately describes the plant shown in the given figure:

In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
1. A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are
stored after pollination.
2. An opening in the megagametophyte through
which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
3. The microsporangium in which pollen grains
develop.
4. A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are
formed.

The spreading of living pteridophyte is limited and is restricted to narrow geographical region because of
1. Growth requirements of gametophyte (cool, damp and shady places).
2. Requirement of water for fertilisation.
3. Absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue.
4. Both (a) and (b).

Artificial systems gave equal weightage to
1. Morphological and anatomical characters.
2. Vegetative and sexual characters.
3. Vegetative and anatomical characters.
4. Morphological and sexual characters.

According to phylogenetic classification organisms
belonging to same taxa
1. Are same in anatomy.
2. Have same genetic constituent.
3. Have a common ancestor.
4. Have all characteristics same

Choose the correct statement.
1. Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum and among 70 species of marine algae used as food.
2. Agar is used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice creams and jellies.
3. Algae are useful to man in a variety of ways.
4. All of these.

What is true for both (a) and (b)?

Carlous Linnaeus system is an artificial system
because it is
1. Phylogenetic.
2. Based on evolutionary trends.
3. Based on number of characters.
4. Based on a few characters of superficial
similarities and dissimilarities on morphology.

Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with
respect to six kingdom system)?
1. Two 
2. Three
3. One 
4. Four

Select the incorrect statement.
1. Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for
nigrogen fixation.
2. Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water
bodies.
3. Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in
nature.
4. The cell walls of mycoplasma are made up of
chitin.

Statement I : Bacterial structure and behaviour is
very complex
Statement 2 : They show the most extensive
metabolic diversity as a group
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

The smallest living cells have all known
characteristics except
1. Survive in presence of oxygen.
2. Infect animals and plant.
3. Complete lack of cell membrane.
4. Contain dsDNA as genetic material

Which of the following is a difference between
eubacteria and archaebacteria?
1. They look very different from each other under
microscope.
2. Eubacteria are autotrophic and archaebacteria
are heterotrophic.
3. Archaebacteria are unicellular and eubacteria are
colonial.
4. They have different chemicals in their cell
membranes and cell walls.

Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Protista include chrysophytes, dinoflagellates,
euglenoids and slime moulds.
(ii) Protista are link between monera and fungi.
(iii) Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up two thin
overlapping shells which fit together like a soap
box.
(iv) Diatoms are chief producer in the ocean.
(v) The pigments of euglenoids are different from
those of higher plants.
1. (i), (ii) and (iv) 
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (i), (iii) and (v) 
4. (i), (iv) and (v)

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Slime moulds in vegetative phase are surrounded
by cell wall.
(ii) Slime moulds are obligate autotrophs.
(iii) Euglena behaves like heterotroph in absence of
light predating smaller organism.
(iv) The fishes are killed by toxins released by slime
moulds.
(v) Protists reproduce sexually by zygote formation.
(vi) Euglena has resemblance with plant and animal
both.
1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (vi) 
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

Following features belong to
(i) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red
depending on pigment in cell.
(ii) Stiff cellulosic plates forms the cell wall.
(iii) One longitudinal and one transverse flagella
present.
(iv) Photosynthetic
1. Diatoms
2. Desmids
3. Dinoflagellates 
4. Euglenoids

Which of the following is an incorrect statement
regarding fungi?
1. Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotic.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of
peptidoglycans.
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

Dikaryotic stage is a characteristic of
1. Phycomycetes and ascomycetes.
2. Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
3. Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.

Which of the following eukaryote is extensively used
in experimental genetics?
1. E. coli
2. Alternaria
3. Ustilago
4. Neurospora

Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following
sequential event. Arrange them properly.
(i) Fusion of two nuclei .
(ii) Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or
non-motile gametes.
(iii) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.
1. (i) $\to$ (ii) $\to$ (iii)
2. (ii) $\to$ (i) $\to$ (iii)
3. (iii) $\to$ (ii) $\to$ (i)
4. (iii) $\to$ (i) $\to$ (ii)

Select the correct statement
1. Viroids have double stranded RNA.
2. RNA of viroids has higher molecular weight than
that of viruses.
3. Mumps and herpes are viral diseases.
4. The name virus was given by D.J. Ivanowsky.

Which of the following statement are incorrect with
respect to lichens ?
(i) Algae protects fungus and fungus is parasite on
algae.
(ii) Algae and fungi are in symbiotic association.
(iii) Lichens are pollution indicator.
(iv) Lichen represents the climax of plant
succession.
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (i) and (iv)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)

In lichen, algal component is called______and fungal
component is called ______
1. Mycobiont ; phycobiont
2. Phycobiont ; mycobiont
3. Phycobiont ; mycorrhiza
4. Mycorrhiza ; mycobiont

Consider the following statements :
(i) Increase in mass and increase in number of
individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
(ii) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
(iii) In plants, the growth is seen up to a certain age.
(iv) In majority of higher animals and plants growth
and reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
Choose the correct option :
1. (i) and (iii) 
2. (iii) and (iv)
3.  (i), (ii) and (iii) 
4. (i) and (ii)

From the following statements, select those that are
true for reproduction.
(i) It is not an all-exclsuive defining characteristic of
living organisms.
(ii) It is not an all-inclusive defining characteristic of
living organisms.
(iii) It is not an all-exclusive defining characteristic of
plants and fungi only.
(iv) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
plant breeders only.
(v) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
plants and animals breeders.
(vi) Photoperiod has no role in reproduction.
1. (ii) and (v)
2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (iv) and (vi)
4. All of these

Select the incorrect statement for consiciousness as
one of the characteristic of living organisms.
1. It is the most technically complicated process.
2. It is present in all organisms whether unicellular
or multicellular.
3. It is an obvious feature not found in prokaryotes.
4. It is regarded as a defining feature of living
organisms.

Mayer’s biological concept of species is mainly
based on
1. Morphological traits.
2. Reproductive isolation.
3. Modes of reproduction.
4. Morphology and reproduction.

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to
binomial nomenclature?
1. Biological names are generally in Latin.
2. The first word in a biological name represents the
genus.
3. Biological names are printed in italics.
4. The first word of the genus starts with a small
letter.

Which of the following statements about classification
is not true?
(i) Members of a family are less common than
members of an included genus.
(ii) An order has more members than the number of
members in an included genus.
(iii) Families have more members than phyla.
(iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor
in the more distant past than members of an
included genus.
(v) The number of species in a taxon depends on
their relative degree of similarity
1. Only (iii)
2. Only (iv)
3. Only (v) 
4. None of these

An important function of botanical garden is
1. Providing beautiful area for recreation.
2. One can observe tropical plants over there.
3. They allow ex-situ conservation of germplasm.
4. To allow reproduction freely with each other and
form seeds

Which one of the following is not a correct
statement?
1. Keys are analytical in nature.
2. Zoological parks have collection of living animals
for reference.
3. A monograph gives a detailed account of all the
plant species found in a particular geographical
area.
4. Carolus Linnaeus is regarded as father of
nomenclature.

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
correct option 
Column-I                                                Column-II
(a) Ex-situ conservation                    (i) Central National
Herbarium
(b) Quick referral system                  (ii) Museum
(c) Preserved plants and                   (iii) Flora
animals
(d) Actual account of                        (iv) Royal Botanical
habitat and distribution Garden, Kew
of plants in a given area
1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

Areolar connective tissue joins -
1. Fat body with muscles
2. Integument with muscles
3. Bones with muscles
4. Bone with bones

Mast cells secrete-
1. Hippurin
2. Myoglobin
3. Histamine
4. Hemoglobin

The type of epithelial cells which line the inner
surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as :-
1. Squamous epithelium
2. Columnar epithelium
3. Ciliated epithelium
4. Cubical epithelium

In which one of the following preparations are
you likely to come across cell junctions most
frequently?
1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Thrombocytes
4. Tendon

In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell:

The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
found in :-
1. Tip of the nose
2. Vertebrae
3. Nails
4. Ear ossicles

The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is:-
1. Squamous
2. Cuboidal
3. Glandular
4. Ciliated

The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
walls of blood vessels is:
1. Squamous epithelium
2. Cuboidal epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Ciliated columnar epithelium

What is the similarity between bronchi and
fallopian tube?
1. Pseudostratified epithelium
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium

Tendon and ligaments are example of-
1. Dense regular connective tissue.
2. Dense irregular connective tissue.
3. Loose connective tissue
4. Specialised connective tissue

Which among these is the correct combination
of aquatic mammals?
1. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
2. Whales, Dolphins, seals
3. Trygon, Whales, Seals
4. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined
with flagellated cells called:
1. Oscula
2. choanocytes
3. mesenchymal cells
4. ostia

Which of the following is correct option?

The structure shown in the given diagram is characteristically seen in the Phylum:

 

Find out the correct match

Which of the following have internal fertilisation
1. Sea urchin
2. Platypus
3. Frog
4. Labeo

Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Sea - fan (Gorgonia)
3. Saccharomyces
4. Blue - green algae

Select the Taxon mentioned that represents
both marine and fresh water species :-
1. Echinoderms
2. Ctenophora
3. Cephalochordata
4. Cnidaria

Planaria possess high capacity of :-
1. Metamorphosis
2. Regeneration
3. Alternation of Regeneration
4. Bioluminescence

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
electric current is :-
1. Pristis
2. Torpedo
3. Trygon
4. Scoliodon

Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Human and frog - Nucleated RBC
2. Ascaris and Liver fluke - Internal fertilization
3. Earthworm and cockroach - sexual dimorphism
4. Nereis and Hydra - Segmented body

The active form of Entamoeba histolytical feeds
upon:
1. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
2. Food in intestine
3. Blood only
4. erythrocytes: mucosa and submucosa of colon

Which of the following endoparasited of humans
does show viviparity ?
1. Enterobius vermicularis
2. Trichinella spiralis
3. Ascaris lumbricoides
4. Ancylostoma duodenale

Metagenesis refers to
1. Presence of a segmented body parthenogenetic
mode of reproduction
2. Presence of different morphic forms
3. Alternation of generation between asexual and
sexual phases of an organism
4. Occurrence of a drastic change in form post -
embryonic developement

Which one of the following animals has two
separate circulatory pathways?
1. Shark
2. Frog
3. Lizard
4. Whale

Body having meshwork of cells, internal
cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells
and indirect development is the
characteristics of phylum :
1. Protozoa
2. Coelenterata
3. Porifera
4. Mollusca

Which one of the following characteristic
features always hold true for the corresponding
group of animals?

Which one of the following characteristics is not
shared by birds and mammals ?
1. Ossified endoskeleton
2. Breathing using lungs
3. Viviparity
4. Warm blooded nature

Choose the correct statement.
1. All reptiles have a three- chambered heart
2. All pisces have gills covered by an operculum
3. All mammals are viviparous
4. All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired
fins.

Which of the following is a correct match

An important characteristic that
Hemichordates share with Chordates is :
1. Ventral tubular nerve cord
2. Pharynx with gill slits
3. Pharynx without gill slits
4. Absence of notochord

Choose the correctly matched pair :-
1. Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
2. Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
3. Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
4. Cartilage - Loose connective tissue

Which type of tissue correctly matches with its
location
Tissue                                         Location
1. Smooth muscle                    Wall of intestine
2. Areolar tissue                       Tendons
3. Transitional epithelium           Tip nose
4. Cuboidal epithelium                Lining of stomach

Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component
of the excretory products of :-
1. Frog
2. Man
3. Earthworm
4. Cockroach

Which of the following correctly state as it
happens in the common cockroach ?
1. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs
projecting out from the colon
2. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
3. Nitrogenous excretory products is urea
4. The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard

Which of the following animal is correctly matched to their corresponding respiratory organ ?
1. Earthworm - Open circulatory system with
haemoglobin
2. Cockroach - Three pairs of spiracles in each
thorax
3. Frog in water - Skin and lungs
4. Frog on land - Skin, buccal cavity, lungs

Which type of mouth parts are present in
cockroach?
1. Lapping & chewing
2. Siphoning
3. Sucking and piercing
4. Chewing and biting

The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body
are joined by :
1. Muscular tissue
2. Arthrodial membrane
3. Cartilage
4. Cementing glue

The body cells in cockroach discharge their
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly
in the form of :
1. Calcium carbonate
2. Ammonia
3. Potassium urate
4. Urea

which of the following statements is true
cockroach ?
1. In female anal style is present
2. Labrum is the outermost part of mouth
3. Hepatic caecae is present between mid gut and
hind gut
4. Head is made up of 7 segment

which of the following structures does not open
into the genital chamber of female cockroach
1. A single median oviduct
2. Spermatheca
3. A pair of anal cerci
4. A pair of collateral glands

Conglobate gland is present in :
1. Female cockroach
2. Earthworm
3. Male cockroach
4. Honey bee

The peculiar pungent smell of cockroach is
produced by the secretions of :
1. Pheromones
2. Flame cells
3. Abdominal glands
4. Cervical glands

The cockroach of genus Blatta also called
1. German cockroach
2. Australian cockroach
3. Oriental cockroach
4. American cockroach

Male cockroach and female cockroach can be differentiated by :
1. Ocelli
2. Anal cerci
3. Anal styles
4. Antennae

A particle is projected from a point P(2,0,0) m with a velocity 10 m/s with an angle 45$°$ with the horizontal. The lines PQ which makes an angle of 37$°$ with positive x-axis lies in the plane of the projectile , xy plane is horizontal. The coordinates of the point where the particle will strike the line PQ is (Take g = 10 m/s²)
1. (4.5,15/8,0) m
2. (8,6,0) m
3. (10,8,0) m
4. (6,10,0) m

A particle is projected with a speed \(u\) at an angle \(\theta\) to the horizontal. Radius of curvature at highest point of its trajectory is?
1. \(\frac{u^{2} \cos^{2} \theta}{2 g}\)
2. \(\frac{\sqrt{3} u^{2}\cos^{2} \theta}{2 g}\)
3. \(\frac{u^{2} \cos^{2} \theta}{g}\)
4. \(\frac{\sqrt{3} u^{2} \cos^{2} \theta}{g}\)

A particle is projected from a point (0, 1) on Y-axis (assume +Y direction vertically upwards ) aiming towards a point (4, 9). It fell on the ground along the x-axis in 1 sec. Taking g = 10 m/s² and all coordinate in metres, find the coordinates where it fell.
1. (3, 0)
2. (4, 0)
3. (2, 0)
4. ($2\sqrt{5}$, 0)

A car travels 6 km towards north at an angle of 45° to the east and then travels distance of 4 km towards north at an angle of 135° to the east. How far is the point from the starting point. What angle does the straight line joining its initial and final position makes with the east?
1. $\sqrt{50} \mathrm{km} \mathrm{and} {\tan }^{-1}\left(5\right)$
2. $10 \mathrm{km} \mathrm{and} {\tan }^{-1}\left(\sqrt{5}\right)$
3. $\sqrt{52} \mathrm{km} \mathrm{and} {\tan }^{-1}\left(5\right)$
4. $\sqrt{52} \mathrm{km} \mathrm{and} {\tan }^{-1}\left(\sqrt{5}\right)$

At what angle must the two forces \((x+y)\) and \((x-y)\) act so that the resultant comes out to be \(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}\)?
1. \(\cos^{-1}\left(-\frac{x^2+y^2}{2(x^2-y^2)}\right )\)
2. \(\cos^{-1}\left(-\frac{2(x^2-y^2)}{(x^2+y^2)}\right )\)
3. \(\cos^{-1}\left(-\frac{x^2+y^2}{x^2-y^2}\right )\)
4. \(\cos^{-1}\left(-\frac{x^2-y^2}{x^2+y^2}\right )\)

Figure below shows a body of mass \(M\) moving with a uniform speed \(v\) on a circular path of radius, \(R\). What is the change in acceleration in going from \(P_1\) to \(P_2\)? 
                 
1. zero
2. \(v^{2} / 2 R\)
3. \(2 v^{2} / R\)
4. \(\frac{v^{2}}{R} \times \sqrt{2}\)

E, m, L and G  denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively, then the dimensions of  $\frac{{\mathrm{EL}}^2}{{\mathrm{m}}^5{\mathrm{G}}^2}$ are:
1. Angle
2. Length
3. Mass 
4. Time

The position of a particle at time \(t\) is given by the relation \({x}({t})=\left(\frac{{v}_0}{\alpha}\right)\left(1-{e}^{-\alpha {t}}\right)\), where \(v_0\)${\mathrm{}}_{}$ is a constant and \(\alpha >0\). The dimensions of \(v_0\) and \(\alpha\) are respectively:
1. \(\left[M^0L^{1}T^{-1}\right]~\text{and}~\left[T^{-1}\right]\)
2. \(\left[M^0L^{1}T^{0}\right]~\text{and}~\left[T^{-1}\right]\)
3. \(\left[M^0L^{1}T^{-1}\right]~\text{and}~\left[LT^{-1}\right]\)
4. \(\left[M^0L^{1}T^{-1}\right]~\text{and}~\left[T\right]\)

While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum, a student makes a positive error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of time period. His percentage error in the measurement of g by the relation $\mathrm{g}=4{\mathrm{\pi }}^2\left(\mathrm{L}/{\mathrm{T}}^2\right)$ will be -
1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 7%
4. 10%

The volume V of water passing through any point of a uniform tube during t seconds is related to the cross-sectional area A of the tube and velocity u of water by the relation
$\mathrm{V}\propto {\mathrm{A}}^{\mathrm{\alpha }}{\mathrm{u}}^{\mathrm{\beta }}{\mathrm{t}}^{\mathrm{\gamma }}$
Which one of the following will be true?
1. $\mathrm{\alpha }=\mathrm{\beta }=\mathrm{\gamma }$
2. $\mathrm{\alpha }\ne \mathrm{\beta }=\mathrm{\gamma }$
3. $\mathrm{\alpha }=\mathrm{\beta }\ne \mathrm{\gamma }$
4. $\mathrm{\alpha }\ne \mathrm{\beta }\ne \mathrm{\gamma }$

The dimensions of $\frac{{\mathrm{e}}^2}{2{\mathrm{\epsilon }}_0\left(\mathrm{hc}\right)}$ are
1. $\left[{\mathrm{A}}^2{\mathrm{L}}^3{\mathrm{T}}^4{\mathrm{M}}^{-4}\right]$
2. $\left[{\mathrm{A}}^{-2}{\mathrm{T}}^{-4}{\mathrm{L}}^3\mathrm{M}\right]$
3. $\left[{\mathrm{A}}^0{\mathrm{M}}^0{\mathrm{L}}^0{\mathrm{T}}^0\right]$
4. $\left[{\mathrm{AT}}^2{\mathrm{L}}^{-3}{\mathrm{M}}^{-1}\right]$

Which one of the following relations is dimensionally consistent where h is the height to which a liquid of density $\mathrm{\rho }$ rises in a capillary tube of radius r, T is the surface tension of the liquid, $\mathrm{\theta }$ the angle of contact, and g the acceleration due to gravity?
1. $\mathrm{h}=\frac{2\mathrm{T} \mathrm{cos\theta }}{\mathrm{r\rho g}}$
2. $\mathrm{h}=\frac{2\mathrm{Tr} }{\mathrm{\rho gcos\theta }}$
3. $\mathrm{h}=\frac{2\mathrm{\rho g} \mathrm{cos\theta }}{\mathrm{Tr}}$
4. $\mathrm{h}=\frac{2\mathrm{Tr\rho g} }{\mathrm{cos\theta }}$

Four persons K,L,M and N are initially at the corners of a square of side of length d. If every person starts moving, such that K is always headed towards L,L towards M,M is headed directly towards N and N towards K, then the four persons will meet after 
1. $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{v}} sec$
2. $\frac{\sqrt{2\mathrm{d}}}{\mathrm{v}} sec$
3. $\frac{d}{\sqrt{2\mathrm{v}}} sec$
4. $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{2\mathrm{v}} sec$

Three balls are thrown from the top of a building with equal speeds at different angles. When the balls strike the ground, their speeds are \(v_{1} , v_{2}\) \(\text{and}\) \(v_{3}\) respectively, then:
              
1. \(v_{1} > v_{2} > v_{3}\)
2. \(v_{3} > v_{2} = v_{1}\)
3. \(v_{1} = v_{2} = v_{3}\)
4. \(v_{1} < v_{2} < v_{3}\)${\mathrm{}}_{}$

A ball is dropped vertically from a height \(h\) above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height of \(\frac{h}{2}\). Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity \(v\) varies with the height \(h\) as:
[Take vertically upwards direction as positive.]

1.		2.
3.		4.

A ball is projected at an angle of 45$°$, so as to cross a wall at "a" distance from the point of projection. It falls at a distance "b" on the other side of the wall. If hit the height of the wall then -
1. $\mathrm{h}=\mathrm{a}\sqrt{2}$
2. $\mathrm{h}=\mathrm{b}\sqrt{2}$
3. $\mathrm{h}=\frac{\sqrt{2}\mathrm{ab}}{\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{b}}$
4. $\mathrm{h}=\frac{\mathrm{ab}}{\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{b}}$

A particle is moving with velocity $\overrightarrow{\mathrm{v}}=K\left(y\hat{i}+x\hat{j}\right)$, where K is a constant. The general equation for its path is 
1. ${\mathrm{y}}^2={\mathrm{x}}^2+\mathrm{constant}$
2. $\mathrm{y}={\mathrm{x}}^2+\mathrm{constant}$
3. ${\mathrm{y}}^2=\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{constant}$
4. $\mathrm{yx}=\mathrm{constant}$

A car \(A\) is traveling on a straight level road at a uniform speed of \(60\) km/h. It is followed by another car \(B\) which is moving at a speed of \(70\) km/h. When the distance between them is \(2.5\) km, car \(B\) is given a deceleration of \(20\) km/h². After how much time will car \(B\) catch up with car \(A\)?
1. \(1\) hr
2. \(\frac{1}{2}\) hr
3. \(\frac{1}{4}\) hr
4. \(\frac{1}{8}\) hr

A point starts moving in a straight line with a certain acceleration. At a time 't' after beginning of motion the acceleration suddenly becomes retardation of the same value. The time in which the point returns to the initial point is-
1. $\sqrt{2\mathrm{t}}$
2. $\left(2+\sqrt{2}\right)\mathrm{t}$
3. $\frac{\mathrm{t}}{\sqrt{2}}$
4. Cannot be predicted unless acceleration is given

A projectile is fired vertically upwards with an initial velocity u. After an interval of T seconds a second projectile is fired vertically upwards, also with initial velocity u.
1. They meet at time $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{g}}$ and at a height $\frac{{\mathrm{u}}^2}{2\mathrm{g}}+\frac{{\mathrm{gT}}^2}{8}$
2. They meet at time $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{g}}+\frac{\mathrm{T}}{2}$ and at a height $\frac{{\mathrm{u}}^2}{2\mathrm{g}}+\frac{{\mathrm{gT}}^2}{8}$
3. They meet at time $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{u}}{\mathrm{g}}+\frac{\mathrm{T}}{2}$ and at a height $\frac{{\mathrm{u}}^2}{2\mathrm{g}}-\frac{{\mathrm{gT}}^2}{8}$
4. They never meet

An aero plane is moving with horizontal velocity u at height h. The speed of a packet dropped from it on the earth’s surface will be (g is acceleration due to gravity)
1. $\sqrt{{\mathrm{u}}^2+2\mathrm{gh}}$
2. $\sqrt{2\mathrm{gh}}$
3. 2gh
4. $\sqrt{{\mathrm{u}}^2-2\mathrm{gh}}$

The graph of displacement time is given below.
 
Its corresponding velocity-time graph will be:

1.		2.
3.		4.

A particle moves along a parabolic path \(y =9x^2\) in such a way that the \(x\) component of the velocity remains constant and has a value of \(\frac{1}{3}~\text{m/s}\)${\mathrm{}}^{}$. It can be deduced that the acceleration of the particle will be:
1. \(\frac{1}{3}\hat j~\text{m/s}^2\)
2. \(3\hat j~\text{m/s}^2\)
3. \(\frac{2}{3}\hat j~\text{m/s}^2\)
4. \(2\hat j~\text{m/s}^2\)

A reference frame attached to the earth is:
1. an inertial frame sometimes 
2. an inertial frame always
3. a non-inertial frame 
4. may be inertial or non-inertial.

A 60 kg man stands on a spring balance in a lift. At some instant, he finds that the reading on the scale has changed from 60kg to 50 kg for a while and then comes back to the original mark. What is his conclusion?
1. The lift was in constant motion upwards.
2. The lift was in constant motion downwards.
3. The lift while in motion downward suddenly stopped.
4. The lift while in motion upward suddenly stopped.

At a wall, \(N\) bullets, each of mass \(m\), are fired with a velocity \(v\) at the rate of \(n\) bullets/sec upon the wall. The bullets are stopped by the wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is:
1. \(\frac{Nmv}{n}\)
2. \(nNmv\)
3. \(n\frac{Nv}{m}\)
4. \(nmv\)

A knife edge of mass M is dropped from a height ‘h’ on a wooden floor with its tip pointing downward. If the blade penetrates a distance ‘s’ into the wood, the average resistance offered by the wood to the blade is
1. Mg
2. $\mathrm{Mg}\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{s}}\right)$
3. $\mathrm{Mg}\left(1-\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{s}}\right)$
4. $\mathrm{Mg}{\left(1+\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\mathrm{s}}\right)}^2$

A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination $\theta$ kept on the floor of a lift. When the lift is descending with retardation a, the acceleration of the block relative to the incline is:
1.  (g + a) sin $\mathrm{\theta }$              
2.  (g – a)
3.  g sin $\mathrm{\theta }$
4.  (g – a) sin $\mathrm{\theta }$

A man of mass \(m\) stands on a crate of mass \(M\). He pulls on a light rope, passing over a smooth light pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the crate. For the system to be in equilibrium, the force exerted by the man on the rope will be:
 

Two masses M and m are connected by the arrangement shown in figure. What is the downward acceleration of mass M ?

1. $\left(\frac{2\mathrm{M}-\mathrm{m}}{3\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}\right)\mathrm{g}$
2. $\left(\frac{2\mathrm{M}-\mathrm{m}}{4\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}\right)2\mathrm{g}$
3. $\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}-\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}\right)\mathrm{g}$
4. $\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{2\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}\right)\mathrm{g}$

A force of 12 N is applied on a block of mass 3kg as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the wall and block is 0.6. The magnitude of the force exerted by the wall on the block is-

1. 15N                      2.    25N 
3.  20N                      4.   30N 

A block is gently placed on a conveyor belt moving horizontally with constant speed. After t = 4s, the velocity of the block becomes equal to the velocity of the belt. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the belt is m = 0.2, then the velocity of the conveyor belt is
 1.  2ms^–1                                  2.   4ms^–1
 3.  64ms^–1                                 4.   8ms^–1

A block of mass M is connected to a massless pulley and massless spring of stiffness k. The pulley is frictionless. The spring connecting the block and spring is massless. Initially the spring is untstretched when the block is released. When the spring is maximum stretched, then tension in the rope is

1.  zero                                     2.     Mg
3.  2Mg                                     4.   Mg/2

In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass m each have acceleration a₁, a₂ and a₃ respectively. F₁ and F₂ are external forces of magnitudes 2mg and mg respectively.

1.   a₁ = a₂ = a₃
2.   a₁ > a₃ > a₂
3.   a₁ = a₂, a₂ > a₃
4.   a₁ > a₂, a₂ = a₃

A block of mass m is moving with a constant acceleration a on a frictional plane. If the coefficient of friction between the block and ground is $\mathrm{\mu }$, the power delivered by the external agent after a time t from the beginning is equal to:
1. ma²t
2. $\mathrm{\mu }$mgat
3. $\mathrm{\mu }$m(a+$\mathrm{\mu }$g)gt 
4. m(a+$\mathrm{\mu }$g)at

A spring, placed horizontally on a rough surface is compressed by a block of mass m, placed on the same surface so as to store maximum energy in the spring. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is $\mathrm{\mu }$, the potential energy stored in the spring is
1. $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}^2{\mathrm{m}}^2{\mathrm{g}}^2}{2\mathrm{k}}$
2. $\frac{2{\mathrm{\mu m}}^2{\mathrm{g}}^2}{\mathrm{k}}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{\mu }}^2{\mathrm{m}}^2\mathrm{g}}{2\mathrm{k}}$
4. $\frac{3{\mathrm{\mu }}^2{\mathrm{mg}}^2}{\mathrm{k}}$

A body moves from point A to point B under the action of a force varying in magnitude as shown in the force-displacement graph. Find total work done by the force

1. 50 J
2. 60 J
3. 40 J
4. 45 J

A block of mass m = 2kg is attached to two unscratched springs of force constant k₁ = 100 N/m and k₂ = 125 N/m.

The block is displaced towards left through a distance of 10 cm and released. Find the speed of the block as it passes through the mean position.
1. 1.06 m/s 
2. 1.02 m/s
3. 1.04 m/s 
4. 1.05 m/s
 

A small block of mass 500 gm is pressed against a horizontal spring fixed at one end to a distance of 10 cm. when released, the block moves horizontally till it leaves the spring. Where it will hit the ground 5 m below the spring. (Take k = 100 N/m of spring)

1. 1.441 m 
2. 1.6 m
3. 1.414 m 
4. 1.10 m

A small body of mass m is located on a horizontal plane. The body acquires a horizontal velocity v₀ . Find mean power developed by the frictional force, during the whole time of its motion. If coefficient friction $\mathrm{\mu }$_x = 0.27, mass of body m = 1kg, and V₀ = 1.5 m/s
1. $-\mu mg{v}_0$
2. $\frac{-\mu mg{v}_0}{2}$
3. $\frac{-\mu mg{v}_0}{4}$
4. $\frac{-\mu mg{v}_0}{8}$

A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along x-axis and  and a force F is also acting along x-axis in such a way such that its displacement is varying as: x = 3t². Find work done by force F when it will move 2m.
1. 12 J                                     2.  16 J
3. 32 J                                     4. 42 J

If a particle is moving on straight line and a constant instantaneous power is supplying on the particle then find displacement of particle as a function of time.
1. $\mathrm{x}={\left[\frac{1}{3}{\left(\frac{3\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{m}}\right)}^{1/3}\mathrm{t}\right]}^{3/2}$
2. $\mathrm{x}={\left[\frac{5}{3}{\left(\frac{3\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{m}}\right)}^{1/3}\mathrm{t}\right]}^{3/2}$
3. $\mathrm{x}={\left[\frac{2}{3}{\left(\frac{3\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{m}}\right)}^{1/3}\mathrm{t}\right]}^{3/2}$
4. $\mathrm{x}={\left[\frac{10}{3}{\left(\frac{3\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{m}}\right)}^{1/3}\mathrm{t}\right]}^{3/2}$

An engine is working at a constant power draws a load of mass m against a resistance r. Find time taken to attain half this speed.
1. $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{Pm}}{8{\mathrm{r}}^2}$
2. $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{Pm}}{8\mathrm{r}}$
3. $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{Pm}}{{\mathrm{r}}^2}$
4. $\mathrm{t}=\frac{\mathrm{Pm}}{9{\mathrm{r}}^2}$

A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that tangential acceleration a_c is varying with time t as a_c= k²r t² where k is constant . What is the power delivered to the particle by the forces acting on it ?
1. $\frac{{\mathrm{mk}}^4{\mathrm{r}}^2{\mathrm{t}}^5}{4}$
2. $\frac{{\mathrm{mk}}^4{\mathrm{r}}^2{\mathrm{t}}^5}{5}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{mk}}^4{\mathrm{r}}^2{\mathrm{t}}^5}{3}$
4. $\frac{{\mathrm{mk}}^4{\mathrm{r}}^2{\mathrm{t}}^5}{9}$

Find the total compression in the string

1. $\mathrm{x}=\sqrt{\frac{{\mathrm{mV}}_0^2-{\mathrm{amgL}}^2}{\mathrm{k}}}$
2. $\mathrm{x}=\frac{{\mathrm{mV}}_0^2-{\mathrm{amgL}}^2}{\mathrm{k}}$
3. $\mathrm{x}=\sqrt{\frac{{\mathrm{mV}}_0^2-{\mathrm{amgL}}^2}{{\mathrm{k}}^2}}$
4. $\mathrm{x}=\sqrt{\frac{{\mathrm{mV}}_0^2-{\mathrm{amgL}}^2}{{\displaystyle \raisebox{1ex}{$\mathrm{k}$}\!\left/ \!\raisebox{-1ex}{$2$}\right.}}}$

A surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but not when hit by yellow light. Will electrons be ejected if the surface is hit by red light
1. Yes
2. No
3. Yes, if the red beam is quite intense
4. Yes, if the red beam continues to fall upon

The number of radial nodes, nodal planes for an orbital with n=4; l =1 is
1. 3,1
2. 2,1
3. 2,0
4. 4,0

The de Broglie wavelength relates to applied voltage as :
1. $\mathrm{\lambda }=\frac{12.3}{\sqrt{\mathrm{h}}}\stackrel{0}{\mathrm{A}}$
2. $\mathrm{\lambda }=\frac{12.3}{\sqrt{V}}\stackrel{0}{\mathrm{A}}$
3. $\mathrm{\lambda }=\frac{12.3}{\sqrt{E}}\stackrel{0}{\mathrm{A}}$
4. Both 2 and 3

The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d orbital respectively are
1. 3,1
2. 1,2
3. 3,0
4. 2,1
 

The ionization energy of H atom is x kJ, The energy required for the electron to jump from n=2 to n=3  will be:
1. 5x
2. 36x/5
3. 5x/36
4. 9x/4

A gas of mono atomic hydrogen is excited by an energy of 12.75 eV/atom. Which spectral lines of the following are formed in Lyman, Balmer and Paschem series respectively.
1. 3,2,1
2. 2,3,1
3. 1,3,2
4. 1,2,3

The frequency of the characterstic X ray of ${\mathrm{K}}_{\mathrm{\alpha }}$ line of metal target ‘M’ is 2500 cm^-1 and
the graph between $\sqrt{\mathrm{v}}$ vs ‘z’ is as follows, then atomic number of M is

1. 49
2. 50
3. 51
4. 25

Which of the following does not represents the correct order of the property indicated ?
1. Sc³⁺ >Cr³⁺ >Fe³⁺ > Mn³⁺   ionic radii
2. Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn density
3. Mn²⁺ > Ni²⁺ > Co²⁺ > Fe²⁺  ionic radii
4. FeO<CaO>MnO>CuO  basic nature

EN of the element (A) is E₁ and IP is E₂. Then
EA will be
1. 2E₁ - E₂ 
2. E₁ - E₂ 
3. E₁ - 2E₂ 
4. (E₁+E₂)/2

The correct order of atomic radii is:
1. Yb³⁺ < Pm³⁺ < Ce³⁺ <  La³⁺
2. Ce³⁺ < Yb³⁺ < Pm³⁺ < La³⁺
3. Yb³⁺ < Pm³⁺ < La³⁺ < Ce³⁺
4. Pm³⁺ < La³⁺ < Ce³⁺ < Yb³⁺

Successive ionisation potentials of an element
M are 8.3, 25.1, 37.9, 259.3 and 340.1 eV. the
formula of its bromide is
1. MBr₅ 
2. MBr₄
3. MBr₃ 
4. MBr₂

The IP₁, IP₂, IP₃ and IP₄ of an element A are
6.0, 10.0, 16.0 adn 45.0 eV respectively. The
molecular weight of the oxide of the element A
is (x is atomic weight)
1. x + 48 
2. 2x + 48 
3. 3x + 48 
4. x + 32

The s - character in the hybrid orbital of the
central atom, present in a molecule having
the shape of an octahedron is
1. 25 %               2. 75 %
3. 40 %                4. 16.66 %

Number of hybrid orbitals present in a
molecule of propene are
1. 12 
2. 10 
3. 9 
4. 8

The mode of hybridisation of carbon in C₃O₂ is
1. sp        2. sp² 
3. sp³      4. None

NH₃ and BF₃ form an adduct readily because
they form
1. A co-ordinate covalent bond
2. A covalent bond 
3. An ionic bond
4. A hydrogen bond

In ${\mathrm{O}}_2^{-},{\mathrm{O}}_2 \mathrm{and} {\mathrm{O}}_2^{2-}$ molecular species, the
total number of antibonding electrons
respectively are
1. 7,6,8 
2. 1,0,2 
3. 6,6,6 
4. 8,6,8

Match List I (Molecules) with List II (Bond
order) and select the correct answer using
the codes.
List - I              List - II
I. Li₂                A. 3
II. N₂               B. 1.5
III. Be₂            C. 1.0
IV. O₂              D. 0
                       E. 2
1. I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - E
2. I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - E
3. I - D, II - A, III - E, IV - C
4. I - C, II - B, III - E, IV - A

Anti- bonding molecular orbital is formed by
1. Addition of wave functions of atomic orbitals
2. Substraction of wave functions of atomic
orbitals
3. Multiplication of wave functions of atomic
orbitals
4. Finding the arthemetic mean

Which of the following compounds would
show the evidence of the strongest hydrogen
bonding?
1. Propane-l-ol 
2. Propane-2-ol
3. Propane-l,2-diol 
4. Propane-l,2,3-triol

Most favourable conditions for
electrovalence are
1. Low charge on ions, large cation and small
anion
2. High charge on ions, small cation and large
anion
3. High charge on ions, large cation and small
anion
4. Low charge on ions, small cation and large
anion

The electronegativities of F,Cl,Br and I are
4.0, 3.0, 2.8, 2.5 respectively. The hydrogen
halide with a high percentage of ionic
character is
1. HF             2. HCl 
3. HBr            4. HI

The molecule having non-zero dipole moment
is
1.${\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_2$            2. ${\mathrm{CH}}_4$
3. ${\mathrm{C}}_2{\mathrm{H}}_6$           4.${\mathrm{BF}}_4^{-}$

Molecule having sp² hybrid atom in it is
1. BeCl₂            2. CO₂ 
3. HCHO            4. NH₃

N-H Bond in Ammonia molecule is 
1. ${\mathrm{\sigma }}_{\mathrm{s}-\mathrm{s}}$
2. ${\mathrm{\sigma }}_{\mathrm{p}-\mathrm{s}}$
3. ${\mathrm{\sigma }}_{{\mathrm{sp}}^3-\mathrm{s}}$
4. ${\mathrm{\sigma }}_{{\mathrm{sp}}^3-\mathrm{p}}$

${\mathrm{\sigma }}_{{\mathrm{sp}}^2-\mathrm{s}}$ bond is present in
1. ${\mathrm{CH}}_4$
2. ${\mathrm{NH}}_3$
3. ${\mathrm{SiCl}}_4$
4. ${\mathrm{CH}}_2=\mathrm{CHCl}$

Dipole moment is shown by
1. 1,4-dichlorobenzene
2. Cis 1,2-dichlorobenzene
3. Trans 1,3-dichlorobenzene
4. Trans 2,3-dicholoro-2-butene

For which of the following molecule significant $\mathrm{\mu }\ne 0$ ?

1. A and B
2. Only C
3. C and D
4. Only A

The critical temperature of water is higher
than that of ${\mathrm{O}}_2$ because the ${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$ molecule
has:
1. Fewer electrons than ${\mathrm{O}}_2$
2. Two covalent bonds 
3. V - shape
4. Dipole moment & H- bonding

Which of the following is zero overlap?
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Incorrect statement about the structure of
PCl₅
1. axial P-Cl bonds have more bond length than
equatorial P-Cl bonds
2. ${\mathrm{d}}_{\mathrm{z}}^2$ orbital is involved in sp³d hybridization.
3. The no. of planar atoms in PCl₅ is 4
4. Phosphorous is in 2^nd excited state.

For a given mass of a gas at constant
temperature, if the volume, 'V' becomes three
times then pressure P will become
1. 3P
2. $\frac{\mathrm{P}}{3}$
3. $\frac{3\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{T}}$
4. $9{\mathrm{P}}^2$

Two vessels of equal volume contain
separately equal amounts of H₂ and CH₄. If
the first vessel is at 300K and second vessel
is at 600K, then the ratio of pressure inside
them is
1. 1:2
2. 2:1
3. 4:1
4. 8:1

One mole of argon will have least density at
1. STP 
2. 0⁰C, 2atm
3. 273⁰C, 2atm 
4. 273⁰C, 1atm

The density of CO₂ gas at 27⁰C and 1 atm
pressure is (gram/litre)
1. 1.78 
2. 1.52 
3. 1.96 
4. 1.20

The drain cleaner, drainex contains small bits
of aluminum which reacts with caustic soda to
produce dihydrogen. The volume of
dihydrogen at 20⁰C and one bar will released
when 0.15g of aluminum reacts is
1. 202.87 mL 
2. 203.50 mL
3. 302.50 mL 
4. 303.50 mL

Air is cooled from 25⁰c to 0⁰ c . The decrease
in rms speed of the molecules is
1. 4.3 % 
2. 5 % 
3. 4.8 % 
4. 3 %

The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of number of their molecule is 
1. 1:8
2. 3:16
3. 1:4
4. 7:32

Versene, a chelating agent having chemical formula ${\mathrm{C}}_2{\mathrm{H}}_4{\mathrm{N}}_2{\left({\mathrm{C}}_2{\mathrm{H}}_4{\mathrm{O}}_2\mathrm{Na}\right)}_4$. If each mole of this compound could bind 1 mole of Ca²⁺, then the rating of pure versene expressed as mg of ${\mathrm{CaCO}}_3$ bound per g of chelating agent is:
1. 100 mg
2. 163 mg
3. 200 mg
4.263 mg

One mole of a mixture of CO and CO₂ requires exactly 20 g of NaOH in solution for complete conversion of all the CO2 into ${\mathrm{Na}}_2{\mathrm{CO}}_3$ if the mixture (one mole is completely oxidised to ${\mathrm{CO}}_2$);
1. 60 g
2. 80 g
3. 40 g
4. 20 g

A mixture of HCOOH and ${\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{C}}_2{\mathrm{O}}_4$ is heated with conc. ${\mathrm{H}}_2{\mathrm{SO}}_4$. The gas produced is collected and on treating with KOH solution the volume of gas decreases by 1/6^th. Calculate the ratio (molar. of two acids in original mixture)
1. 4:1
2. 1:4
3. 3:1
4. 2:1

When burnt in air, 14.0 g mixture of carbon and sulphur gives a mixture of ${\mathrm{CO}}_2$ and ${\mathrm{SO}}_2$ in the volume ratio 2:1, volume being measured at the same conditions of temperature and pressure the number of moles of carbon in the mixture is
1. 0.75
2. 0.5
3. 0.40
4. 0.25

A hyrdocarbon 'X' have 81% of carbon. Volume of CO₂ liberated at 298 K and 76 cm of Hg when 0.55 gm of 'x' undergoes combustion
1. 0.90 l
2. 11.09 l
3. 1.89 l
4. 1.09 l
 

Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal to 1.17 g/cc is:
1. 36.5
2. 18.25
3. 32.05
4. 4.65

Arrange in decreasing order , the energy of 2s orbital in the following atoms H,Li,Na,K:
1. ${\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{H}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Li}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Na}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{K}\right)}$
2.  ${\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{H}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Na}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Li}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{K}\right)}$
3. ${\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{H}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Na}\right)}={\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{K}\right)}>{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Li}\right)}$
4. ${\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{K}\right)}<{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Na}\right)}<{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{Li}\right)}<{\mathrm{E}}_{2\mathrm{s}\left(\mathrm{H}\right)}$