The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant, independent, photosynthetic, vascular plant body. It alternates with multicellular, saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but short-lived haploid gametophyte. This type of pattern is exhibited by
1. Bryophytes (Sphagnum, Polytrichum).
2. Pteridophytes (Selaginella, Lycopodium).
3. Most of the algal genera (Fucus, Chara, Polysiphonia).
4. Seed plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms).
The type of life-cycle in which there is no free-living
sporophytes and the dominant, photosynthetic phase
in such plants is the free-living gametophyte. We are
1. Haplontic life cycle shown in Volvox and some
species of Chlamydomonas.
2. Diplontic life cycle as shown in seed-bearing
3. Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in bryophytes
4. Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in Kelps
Read the following statements :
A. The male or female cones or strobili may be
borne on same tree in Pinus.
B. In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are
borne on different trees.
C. Stem of Cycas is branched and of Pinus and
Cedrus is unbranched.
D. In gymnosperms generally tap roots are found.
Select the correct statements.
1. A, B
2. A, B, D
3. A, B, C
4. C, D
1. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the
2. A sporophytic inconspicuous free living structure
formed in pteridophytes.
3. A gametophytic inconspicuous free living structure
formed in pteridophytes.
4. A gametophytic conspicuous structure formed
after fertilization in pteridophytes.
Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a
1. Apical bud
2. Axillary bud
3. Lateral bud
Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending
flower and live plants to distant places because
1. It is easily available.
2. It reduces transpiration.
3. It is hygroscopic.
4. All of the above.
In Phaeophyceae, the spores (zoospores) are
1. Pyriform and bear 2 flagella (one longitudinal and
2. Pear-shaped and bear 2 flagella that are laterally
3. Pyriform and bear 2-8, equal and apial flagella.
4. Pear-shaped and bear 2-8, equal and apical
The given diagram shows:
(1) An alga that lacks flagellated cells
(2) A liverwort
(3) A heterosporous pteridophyte
(4) A gymnosperm with non motile sperms
Find out the incorrect statement about the
1. Majority are marine with greater concentrations
found in the warmer areas.
2. They are also found at great depths of oceans
where relatively little light penetrates.
3. Usually reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation.
4. They reproduce asexually by biflagellate
Read the following statement and find out the
1. Algae usually reproduce vegetatively by
fragmentation, asexually by formation of different
types of spores and sexually by formation of
2. Algae are classified into three classes,
pteridophytes into four classes and angiosperms
into two classes.
3. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid,
autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms.
4. The plant body of algae is more differentiated
than that of bryophytes.
Read the following statements (a-e) and answer
question that follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts in more elaborate
than that in mosses.
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct?
Read the following statements.
(a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(b) Bryophytes have well developed vessels and
(c) Strobilus is found in the main plant body of
(d) Antheridia are absent but archegonia are present
in female storobil of gymnosperms.
Choose the correct option.
1. All of these
2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. Only (a)
4. (b) and (c)
Which one is correct about male and female
1. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, they have no
independent free-living existence.
2. In bryophytes and angiosperms, they have
3. In gymnosperms and angiosperms, they have no
independent free-living existence.
4. In bryophytes, pteridophytes and angiosperms,
they have free-living existence
Identify the statement that most accurately describes the plant shown in the given figure:
(1) This the male prothallus of Marchantia; A is antheridiophore and B is Gemma cup
(2) This the female prothallus of Marchantia; A is archegoniophore and B is Gemma cup
(3) This the male prothallus of Sphagnum; A is antheridiophore and B is Gemma cup
(4) This the female prothallus of Spahgnum; A is archegoniophore and B is Gemma cup
In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
1. A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are
stored after pollination.
2. An opening in the megagametophyte through
which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
3. The microsporangium in which pollen grains
4. A cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are
The spreading of living pteridophyte is limited and is restricted to narrow geographical region because of
1. Growth requirements of gametophyte (cool, damp and shady places).
2. Requirement of water for fertilisation.
3. Absence of stomata in leaf and absence of vascular tissue.
4. Both (a) and (b).
Artificial systems gave equal weightage to
1. Morphological and anatomical characters.
2. Vegetative and sexual characters.
3. Vegetative and anatomical characters.
4. Morphological and sexual characters.
According to phylogenetic classification organisms
belonging to same taxa
1. Are same in anatomy.
2. Have same genetic constituent.
3. Have a common ancestor.
4. Have all characteristics same
Choose the correct statement.
1. Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum and among 70 species of marine algae used as food.
2. Agar is used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice creams and jellies.
3. Algae are useful to man in a variety of ways.
4. All of these.
What is true for both (a) and (b)?
(1) RNA is the genetic material
(2) Capability to infect bacteria
(3) Being obligate endoparasites
(4) Can be killed by antibiotics
Carlous Linnaeus system is an artificial system
because it is
2. Based on evolutionary trends.
3. Based on number of characters.
4. Based on a few characters of superficial
similarities and dissimilarities on morphology.
Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with
respect to six kingdom system)?
Select the incorrect statement.
1. Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for
2. Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water
3. Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in
4. The cell walls of mycoplasma are made up of
Statement I : Bacterial structure and behaviour is
Statement 2 : They show the most extensive
metabolic diversity as a group
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
The smallest living cells have all known
1. Survive in presence of oxygen.
2. Infect animals and plant.
3. Complete lack of cell membrane.
4. Contain dsDNA as genetic material
Which of the following is a difference between
eubacteria and archaebacteria?
1. They look very different from each other under
2. Eubacteria are autotrophic and archaebacteria
3. Archaebacteria are unicellular and eubacteria are
4. They have different chemicals in their cell
membranes and cell walls.
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Protista include chrysophytes, dinoflagellates,
euglenoids and slime moulds.
(ii) Protista are link between monera and fungi.
(iii) Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up two thin
overlapping shells which fit together like a soap
(iv) Diatoms are chief producer in the ocean.
(v) The pigments of euglenoids are different from
those of higher plants.
1. (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (i), (iii) and (v)
4. (i), (iv) and (v)
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Slime moulds in vegetative phase are surrounded
by cell wall.
(ii) Slime moulds are obligate autotrophs.
(iii) Euglena behaves like heterotroph in absence of
light predating smaller organism.
(iv) The fishes are killed by toxins released by slime
(v) Protists reproduce sexually by zygote formation.
(vi) Euglena has resemblance with plant and animal
1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (vi)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)
Following features belong to
(i) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red
depending on pigment in cell.
(ii) Stiff cellulosic plates forms the cell wall.
(iii) One longitudinal and one transverse flagella
Which of the following is an incorrect statement
1. Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotic.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
Dikaryotic stage is a characteristic of
1. Phycomycetes and ascomycetes.
2. Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
3. Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.
Which of the following eukaryote is extensively used
in experimental genetics?
1. E. coli
Sexual reproduction in fungus occurs in the following
sequential event. Arrange them properly.
(i) Fusion of two nuclei .
(ii) Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or
(iii) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores.
1. (i) (ii) (iii)
2. (ii) (i) (iii)
3. (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iii) (i) (ii)
Select the correct statement
1. Viroids have double stranded RNA.
2. RNA of viroids has higher molecular weight than
that of viruses.
3. Mumps and herpes are viral diseases.
4. The name virus was given by D.J. Ivanowsky.
Which of the following statement are incorrect with
respect to lichens ?
(i) Algae protects fungus and fungus is parasite on
(ii) Algae and fungi are in symbiotic association.
(iii) Lichens are pollution indicator.
(iv) Lichen represents the climax of plant
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (i) and (iv)
3. (ii) and (iii)
4. (iii) and (iv)
In lichen, algal component is called______and fungal
component is called ______
1. Mycobiont ; phycobiont
2. Phycobiont ; mycobiont
3. Phycobiont ; mycorrhiza
4. Mycorrhiza ; mycobiont
Consider the following statements :
(i) Increase in mass and increase in number of
individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
(ii) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
(iii) In plants, the growth is seen up to a certain age.
(iv) In majority of higher animals and plants growth
and reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
Choose the correct option :
1. (i) and (iii)
2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i) and (ii)
From the following statements, select those that are
true for reproduction.
(i) It is not an all-exclsuive defining characteristic of
(ii) It is not an all-inclusive defining characteristic of
(iii) It is not an all-exclusive defining characteristic of
plants and fungi only.
(iv) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
plant breeders only.
(v) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
plants and animals breeders.
(vi) Photoperiod has no role in reproduction.
1. (ii) and (v)
2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (iv) and (vi)
4. All of these
Select the incorrect statement for consiciousness as
one of the characteristic of living organisms.
1. It is the most technically complicated process.
2. It is present in all organisms whether unicellular
3. It is an obvious feature not found in prokaryotes.
4. It is regarded as a defining feature of living
Mayer’s biological concept of species is mainly
1. Morphological traits.
2. Reproductive isolation.
3. Modes of reproduction.
4. Morphology and reproduction.
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to
1. Biological names are generally in Latin.
2. The first word in a biological name represents the
3. Biological names are printed in italics.
4. The first word of the genus starts with a small
Which of the following statements about classification
is not true?
(i) Members of a family are less common than
members of an included genus.
(ii) An order has more members than the number of
members in an included genus.
(iii) Families have more members than phyla.
(iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor
in the more distant past than members of an
(v) The number of species in a taxon depends on
their relative degree of similarity
1. Only (iii)
2. Only (iv)
3. Only (v)
4. None of these
An important function of botanical garden is
1. Providing beautiful area for recreation.
2. One can observe tropical plants over there.
3. They allow ex-situ conservation of germplasm.
4. To allow reproduction freely with each other and
Which one of the following is not a correct
1. Keys are analytical in nature.
2. Zoological parks have collection of living animals
3. A monograph gives a detailed account of all the
plant species found in a particular geographical
4. Carolus Linnaeus is regarded as father of
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the
(a) Ex-situ conservation (i) Central National
(b) Quick referral system (ii) Museum
(c) Preserved plants and (iii) Flora
(d) Actual account of (iv) Royal Botanical
habitat and distribution Garden, Kew
of plants in a given area
1. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
2. (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
3. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
4. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Areolar connective tissue joins -
1. Fat body with muscles
2. Integument with muscles
3. Bones with muscles
4. Bone with bones
Mast cells secrete-
The type of epithelial cells which line the inner
surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as :-
1. Squamous epithelium
2. Columnar epithelium
3. Ciliated epithelium
4. Cubical epithelium
In which one of the following preparations are
you likely to come across cell junctions most
1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Ciliated epithelium
In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell:
The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
found in :-
1. Tip of the nose
4. Ear ossicles
The epithelial tissue present on the inner
surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is :-
The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
walls of blood vessels is:
1. Squamous epithelium
2. Cuboidal epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Ciliated columnar epithelium
What is the similarity between bronchi and
1. Pseudostratified epithelium
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium
Tendon and ligaments are example of-
1. Dense regular connective tissue.
2. Dense irregular connective tissue.
3. Loose connective tissue
4. Specialised connective tissue
Which among these is the correct combination
of aquatic mammals?
1. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
2. Whales, Dolphins, seals
3. Trygon, Whales, Seals
4. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined
with flagellated cells called:
3. mesenchymal cells
Which of the following is correct option?
1. Frog - External fertilisation
2. Scoliodon - External fertilisation
3. Exocoetus - Internal fertilisation
4. Ophiura - Internal fertilisation
The structure shown in the given diagram is characteristically seen in the Phylum:
Find out the correct match
1. Chelone, Chameleon, Calotes- epidermal
2. Ornithorhynchus, Panthera leo, Macropus-
3. Exocoetus, Pavo, Psittacula, Columba -
Forelimbs are modified into wings
4. Scoliodon, Pristis, Pterophyllum- Placoid
Which of the following have internal fertilisation
1. Sea urchin
Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
2. Sea - fan (Gorgonia)
4. Blue - green algae
Select the Taxon mentioned that represents
both marine and fresh water species :-
Planaria possess high capacity of :-
3. Alternation of Regeneration
A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
electric current is :-
Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Human and frog - Nucleated RBC
2. Ascaris and Liver fluke - Internal fertilization
3. Earthworm and cockroach - sexual dimorphism
4. Nereis and Hydra - Segmented body
The active form of Entamoeba histolytical feeds
1. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
2. Food in intestine
3. Blood only
4. erythrocytes: mucosa and submucosa of colon
Which of the following endoparasited of humans
does show viviparity ?
1. Enterobius vermicularis
2. Trichinella spiralis
3. Ascaris lumbricoides
4. Ancylostoma duodenale
Metagenesis refers to
1. Presence of a segmented body parthenogenetic
mode of reproduction
2. Presence of different morphic forms
3. Alternation of generation between asexual and
sexual phases of an organism
4. Occurrence of a drastic change in form post -
Which one of the following animals has two
separate circulatory pathways?
Body having meshwork of cells, internal
cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells
and indirect development is the
characteristics of phylum :
Which one of the following characteristic
features always hold true for the corresponding
group of animals?
1. Cartilaginous - Chondrichthyes
2. Viviparous - Mammalia
3. Posses a mouth with - Chordata
an upper and a lower jaw
4. 3 - chambered heart - Reptilia
with one incompletely
Which one of the following characteristics is not
shared by birds and mammals ?
1. Ossified endoskeleton
2. Breathing using lungs
4. Warm blooded nature
Choose the correct statement.
1. All reptiles have a three- chambered heart
2. All pisces have gills covered by an operculum
3. All mammals are viviparous
4. All cyclostomes do not posses jaws and paired
Which of the following is a correct match
Internal fertilization sexes are separate
Tissue level organization, Diploblastic
An important characteristic that
Hemichordates share with Chordates is :
1. Ventral tubular nerve cord
2. Pharynx with gill slits
3. Pharynx without gill slits
4. Absence of notochord
Choose the correctly matched pair :-
1. Tendon - Specialized connective tissue
2. Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
3. Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
4. Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its
1. Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
2. Areolar tissue Tendons
3. Transitional epithelium Tip nose
4. Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component
of the excretory products of :-
Which of the following correctly state as it
happens in the common cockroach ?
1. Malpighian tubules are excretory organs
projecting out from the colon
2. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
3. Nitrogenous excretory products is urea
4. The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard
Which of the following animal correctly matched
to their corresponding respiratory organ ?
1. Earthworm - Open circulatory system with
2. Cockroach - Three pairs of spiracles in each
3. Frog in water - Skin and lungs
4. Frog on land - Skin, buccal cavity, lungs
Which type of mouth parts are present in
1. Lapping & chewing
3. Sucking and piercing
4. Chewing and biting
The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body
are joined by :
1. Muscular tissue
2. Arthrodial membrane
4. Cementing glue
The body cells in cockroach discharge their
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly
in the form of :
1. Calcium carbonate
3. Potassium urate
which of the following statements is true
1. In female anal style is present
2. Labrum is the outermost part of mouth
3. Hepatic caecae is present between mid gut and
4. Head is made up of 7 segment
which of the following structures does not open
into the genital chamber of female cockroach
1. A single median oviduct
3. A pair of anal cerci
4. A pair of collateral glands
Conglobate gland is present in :
1. Female cockroach
3. Male cockroach
4. Honey bee
The peculiar pungent smell of cockroach is
produced by the secretions of :
2. Flame cells
3. Abdominal glands
4. Cervical glands
The cockroach of genus Blatta also called
1. German cockroach
2. Australian cockroach
3. Oriental cockroach
4. American cockroach
Male cockroach and female cockroach can be
differentiated by :
2. Anal cerci
3. Anal styles
4. Male rabbit
A particle is projected from a point P(2,0,0) m with a velocity 10 m/s with an angle 45 with the horizontal. The lines PQ which makes an angle of 37 with positive x-axis lies in the plane of the projectile , xy plane is horizontal. The coordinates of the point where the particle will strike the line PQ is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1. (4.5,15/8,0) m
2. (8,6,0) m
3. (10,8,0) m
4. (6,10,0) m
A particle is projected with a speed u at an angle to the horizontal. Radius of curvature at highest point of its trajectory is
A particle is projected from a point (0, 1) on Y-axis (assume +Y direction vertically upwards ) aiming towards a point (4, 9). It fell on the ground along the x-axis in 1 sec. Taking g = 10 m/s2 and all coordinate in metres, find the coordinates where it fell.
1. (3, 0)
2. (4, 0)
3. (2, 0)
4. (, 0)
A car travels 6 km towards north at an angle of 45° to the east and then travels distance of 4 km towards north at an angle of 135° to the east. How far is the point from the starting point. What angle does the straight line joining its initial and final position makes with the east?
At what angle must the two forces (x + y) and (x – y) act so that the resultant comes out to be ?
Figure below shows a body of mass M moving with a uniform speed v on a circular path of radius, R. What is the change in acceleration in going from P1 to P2?
E, m, L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively, then the dimensions of are:
The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation , where is a constant and >0. The dimensions of and are respectively
While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a simple pendulum, a student makes a positive error of 1% in the length of the pendulum and a negative error of 3% in the value of time period. His percentage error in the measurement of g by the relation will be -
The volume V of water passing through any point of a uniform tube during t seconds is related to the cross-sectional area A of the tube and velocity u of water by the relation
Which one of the following will be true?
The dimensions of are
Which one of the following relations is dimensionally consistent where h is the height to which a liquid of density rises in a capillary tube of radius r, T is the surface tension of the liquid, the angle of contact, and g the acceleration due to gravity?
Four persons K,L,M and N are initially at the corners of a square of side of length d. If every person starts moving, such that K is always headed towards L,L towards M,M is headed directly towards N and N towards K, then the four persons will meet after
Three balls are thrown from the top of a building with equal speeds at different angles. When the balls strike the ground, their speeds are respectively, then:
A ball is dropped vertically from a height h above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height of h/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity v varies with the height h as:
[Take vertically upwards direction as positive.]
A ball is projected at an angle of 45, so as to cross a wall at "a" distance from the point of projection. It falls at a distance "b" on the other side of the wall. If hit the height of the wall then -
A particle is moving with velocity , where K is a constant. The general equation for its path is
A car A is traveling on a straight level road at a uniform speed of 60 km/h. It is followed by another car B which is moving at a speed of 70 km/h. When the distance between them is 2.5 km, car B is given a deceleration of 20 km/h2. After how much time will car B catch up with car A?
1. 1 hr
2. 1/2 hr
3. 1/4 hr
4. 1/8 hr
A point starts moving in a straight line with a certain acceleration. At a time 't' after beginning of motion the acceleration suddenly becomes retardation of the same value. The time in which the point returns to the initial point is-
4. Cannot be predicted unless acceleration is given
A projectile is fired vertically upwards with an initial velocity u. After an interval of T seconds a second projectile is fired vertically upwards, also with initial velocity u.
1. They meet at time and at a height
2. They meet at time and at a height
3. They meet at time and at a height
4. They never meet
An aero plane is moving with horizontal velocity u at height h. The speed of a packet dropped from it on the earth’s surface will be (g is acceleration due to gravity)
The graph of displacement-time is given below.
Its corresponding velocity-time graph will be:
A particle moves along a parabolic path y = 9x2 in such a way that the x component of the velocity remains constant and has a value of . It can be deduced that the acceleration of the particle will be
A reference frame attached to the earth is:
1. an inertial frame sometimes
2. an inertial frame always
3. a non-inertial frame
4. may be inertial or non-inertial.
A 60 kg man stands on a spring balance in a lift. At some instant, he finds that the reading on the scale has changed from 60kg to 50 kg for a while and then comes back to the original mark. What is his conclusion?
1. The lift was in constant motion upwards.
2. The lift was in constant motion downwards.
3. The lift while in motion downward suddenly stopped.
4. The lift while in motion upward suddenly stopped.
At a wall, N bullets, each of mass m, are fired with a velocity v at the rate of n bullets/sec upon the wall. The bullets are stopped by the wall. The reaction offered by the wall to the bullets is:
A knife edge of mass M is dropped from a height ‘h’ on a wooden floor with its tip pointing downward. If the blade penetrates a distance ‘s’ into the wood, the average resistance offered by the wood to the blade is
A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination kept on the floor of a lift. When the lift is descending with retardation a, the acceleration of the block relative to the incline is:
1. (g + a) sin 2. (g – a)
3. g sin 4. (g – a) sin
A man of mass m stands on a crate of mass M. He pulls on a light rope, passing over a smooth light pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the crate. For the system to be in equilibrium, the force exerted by the man on the rope will be:
Two masses M and m are connected by the arrangement shown in figure. What is the downward acceleration of mass M ?
A force of 12 N is applied on a block of mass 3kg as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the wall and block is 0.6. The magnitude of the force exerted by the wall on the block is-
1. 15N 2. 25N
3. 20N 4. 30N
A block is gently placed on a conveyor belt moving horizontally with constant speed. After t = 4s, the velocity of the block becomes equal to the velocity of the belt. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the belt is m = 0.2, then the velocity of the conveyor belt is
1. 2ms–1 2. 4ms–1
3. 64ms–1 4. 8ms–1
A block of mass M is connected to a massless pulley and massless spring of stiffness k. The pulley is frictionless. The spring connecting the block and spring is massless. Initially the spring is untstretched when the block is released. When the spring is maximum stretched, then tension in the rope is
1. zero 2. Mg
3. 2Mg 4. Mg/2
In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass m each have acceleration a1, a2 and a3 respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitudes 2mg and mg respectively.
1. a1 = a2 = a3
2. a1 > a3 > a2
3. a1 = a2, a2 > a3
4. a1 > a2, a2 = a3
A block of mass m is moving with a constant acceleration a on a frictional plane. If the coefficient of friction between the block and ground is , the power delivered by the external agent after a time t from the beginning is equal to:
A spring, placed horizontally on a rough surface is compressed by a block of mass m, placed on the same surface so as to store maximum energy in the spring. If the coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is , the potential energy stored in the spring is
A body moves from point A to point B under the action of a force varying in magnitude as shown in the force-displacement graph. Find total work done by the force
1. 50 J
2. 60 J
3. 40 J
4. 45 J
A block of mass m = 2kg is attached to two unscratched springs of force constant k1 = 100 N/m and k2 = 125 N/m.
The block is displaced towards left through a distance of 10 cm and released. Find the speed of the block as it passes through the mean position.
1. 1.06 m/s
2. 1.02 m/s
3. 1.04 m/s
4. 1.05 m/s
A small block of mass 500 gm is pressed against a horizontal spring fixed at one end to a distance of 10 cm. when released, the block moves horizontally till it leaves the spring. Where it will hit the ground 5 m below the spring. (Take k = 100 N/m of spring)
1. 1.441 m
2. 1.6 m
3. 1.414 m
4. 1.10 m
A small body of mass m is located on a horizontal plane. The body acquires a horizontal velocity v0 . Find mean power developed by the frictional force, during the whole time of its motion. If coefficient friction x = 0.27, mass of body m = 1kg, and V0 = 1.5 m/s
A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along x-axis and and a force F is also acting along x-axis in such a way such that its displacement is varying as: x = 3t2. Find work done by force F when it will move 2m.
1. 12 J 2. 16 J
3. 32 J 4. 42 J
If a particle is moving on straight line and a constant instantaneous power is supplying on the particle then find displacement of particle as a function of time.
An engine is working at a constant power draws a load of mass m against a resistance r. Find time taken to attain half this speed.
A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that tangential acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac= k2r t2 where k is constant . What is the power delivered to the particle by the forces acting on it ?
Find the total compression in the string
A surface ejects electrons when hit by green light but not when hit by yellow light. Will electrons be ejected if the surface is hit by red light
3. Yes, if the red beam is quite intense
4. Yes, if the red beam continues to fall upon
The number of radial nodes, nodal planes for an orbital with n=4; l =1 is
The de Broglie wavelength relates to applied voltage as :
4. Both 2 and 3
The number of angular and radial nodes of 4d orbital respectively are
The ionization energy of H atom is x kJ, The energy required for the electron to jump from n=2 to n=3 will be:
A gas of mono atomic hydrogen is excited by an energy of 12.75 eV/atom. Which spectral lines of the following are formed in Lyman, Balmer and Paschem series respectively.
The frequency of the characterstic X ray of line of metal target ‘M’ is 2500 cm-1 and
the graph between vs ‘z’ is as follows, then atomic number of M is
Which of the following does not represents the correct order of the property indicated ?
1. Sc3+ >Cr3+ >Fe3+ > Mn3+ ionic radii
2. Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn density
3. Mn2+ > Ni2+ > Co2+ > Fe2+ ionic radii
4. FeO<CaO>MnO>CuO basic nature
EN of the element (A) is E1 and IP is E2. Then
EA will be
1. 2E1 - E2
2. E1 - E2
3. E1 - 2E2
The correct order of atomic radii is:
1. Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
2. Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+
3. Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
4. Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
Successive ionisation potentials of an element
M are 8.3, 25.1, 37.9, 259.3 and 340.1 eV. the
formula of its bromide is
The IP1, IP2, IP3 and IP4 of an element A are
6.0, 10.0, 16.0 adn 45.0 eV respectively. The
molecular weight of the oxide of the element A
is (x is atomic weight)
1. x + 48
2. 2x + 48
3. 3x + 48
4. x + 32
The s - character in the hybrid orbital of the
central atom, present in a molecule having
the shape of an octahedron is
1. 25 % 2. 75 %
3. 40 % 4. 16.66 %
Number of hybrid orbitals present in a
molecule of propene are
The mode of hybridisation of carbon in C3O2 is
1. sp 2. sp2
3. sp3 4. None
NH3 and BF3 form an adduct readily because
1. A co-ordinate covalent bond
2. A covalent bond
3. An ionic bond
4. A hydrogen bond
In molecular species, the
total number of antibonding electrons
Match List I (Molecules) with List II (Bond
order) and select the correct answer using
List - I List - II
I. Li2 A. 3
II. N2 B. 1.5
III. Be2 C. 1.0
IV. O2 D. 0
1. I - B, II - C, III - A, IV - E
2. I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - E
3. I - D, II - A, III - E, IV - C
4. I - C, II - B, III - E, IV - A
Anti- bonding molecular orbital is formed by
1. Addition of wave functions of atomic orbitals
2. Substraction of wave functions of atomic
3. Multiplication of wave functions of atomic
4. Finding the arthemetic mean
Which of the following compounds would
show the evidence of the strongest hydrogen
Most favourable conditions for
1. Low charge on ions, large cation and small
2. High charge on ions, small cation and large
3. High charge on ions, large cation and small
4. Low charge on ions, small cation and large
The electronegativities of F,Cl,Br and I are
4.0, 3.0, 2.8, 2.5 respectively. The hydrogen
halide with a high percentage of ionic
1. HF 2. HCl
3. HBr 4. HI
The molecule having non-zero dipole moment
Molecule having sp2 hybrid atom in it is
1. BeCl2 2. CO2
3. HCHO 4. NH3
N-H Bond in Ammonia molecule is
bond is present in
Dipole moment is shown by
2. Cis 1,2-dichlorobenzene
3. Trans 1,3-dichlorobenzene
4. Trans 2,3-dicholoro-2-butene
For which of the following molecule significant ?
1. A and B
2. Only C
3. C and D
4. Only A
The critical temperature of water is higher
than that of because the molecule
1. Fewer electrons than
2. Two covalent bonds
3. V - shape
4. Dipole moment & H- bonding
Which of the following is zero overlap?
Incorrect statement about the structure of
1. axial P-Cl bonds have more bond length than
equatorial P-Cl bonds
2. orbital is involved in sp3d hybridization.
3. The no. of planar atoms in PCl5 is 4
4. Phosphorous is in 2nd excited state.
For a given mass of a gas at constant
temperature, if the volume, 'V' becomes three
times then pressure P will become
Two vessels of equal volume contain
separately equal amounts of H2 and CH4. If
the first vessel is at 300K and second vessel
is at 600K, then the ratio of pressure inside
One mole of argon will have least density at
2. 00C, 2atm
3. 2730C, 2atm
4. 2730C, 1atm
The density of CO2 gas at 270C and 1 atm
pressure is (gram/litre)
The drain cleaner, drainex contains small bits
of aluminum which reacts with caustic soda to
produce dihydrogen. The volume of
dihydrogen at 200C and one bar will released
when 0.15g of aluminum reacts is
1. 202.87 mL
2. 203.50 mL
3. 302.50 mL
4. 303.50 mL
Air is cooled from 250c to 00 c . The decrease
in rms speed of the molecules is
1. 4.3 %
2. 5 %
3. 4.8 %
4. 3 %
The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of number of their molecule is
Versene, a chelating agent having chemical formula . If each mole of this compound could bind 1 mole of Ca2+, then the rating of pure versene expressed as mg of bound per g of chelating agent is:
1. 100 mg
2. 163 mg
3. 200 mg
One mole of a mixture of CO and CO2 requires exactly 20 g of NaOH in solution for complete conversion of all the CO2 into if the mixture (one mole is completely oxidised to );
1. 60 g
2. 80 g
3. 40 g
4. 20 g
A mixture of HCOOH and is heated with conc. . The gas produced is collected and on treating with KOH solution the volume of gas decreases by 1/6th. Calculate the ratio (molar. of two acids in original mixture)
When burnt in air, 14.0 g mixture of carbon and sulphur gives a mixture of and in the volume ratio 2:1, volume being measured at the same conditions of temperature and pressure the number of moles of carbon in the mixture is
A hyrdocarbon 'X' have 81% of carbon. Volume of CO2 liberated at 298 K and 76 cm of Hg when 0.55 gm of 'x' undergoes combustion
1. 0.90 l
2. 11.09 l
3. 1.89 l
4. 1.09 l
Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal to 1.17 g/cc is:
Arrange in decreasing order , the energy of 2s orbital in the following atoms H,Li,Na,K: