Custom Practice Test

Biology

1.

Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one tropic level in a
pond ecosystem?
1. Phytoplankton
2. Fish
3. Zooplankton
4. Frog

2.

Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is
1. Spindle-shaped
2. Upright
3. Urn shaped
4. Inverted

3. In a symbiotic relationship between two species, one benefits and the other is unaffected. This type of relationship is described as:

1.	Mutualism	2.	Commensalism
3.	Parasitism	4.	Competition

4. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Giraffes, in an attempt to forage leaves on tall trees, had to adapt by elongation of their necks.
Reason (R):	This elongated neck, an acquired trait, was inherited by their progeny.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	(A) is False and (R) is False
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

5. Which of the following intra uterine contraceptive devices releases copper ions?

1.	Lippes loop	2.	Progestasert
3.	LNG 20	4.	Multiload 375

6.

Centromere is required for

1.	transcription
2.	crossing over
3.	cytoplasmic cleavage
4.	movement of chromosomes towards poles

7. In aerobic cellular respiration, which of the following processes actually makes a direct use of oxygen?
1. Fermentation
2. Glycolysis
3. Krebs cycle
4. Electron transport

8. When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is called:
1. Cell mediated immunity
2. Humoral immunity
3. Active immunity
4. Passive immunity

9. Consider the following statements about global species diversity:

Statement I:	According to IUCN (2004), approximately 1.5 million plant and animal species have been described so far.
Statement II:	Insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70% of the total animal species on Earth.

Choose the correct option:
1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct.

10. How many of the given statements are correct?

I:	Protonephridia are primarily concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation, i.e., osmoregulation.
II:	Nephridia are the tubular excretory structures of earthworms and other annelids.
III:	Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of most of the insects including cockroaches.
IV:	Antennal glands or green glands perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

11. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth takes place in cells of :

1.	Epiblema	2.	Cortex
3.	Endodermis	4.	Pericycle

12. Consider the give statements:

I:	Wine and beer are produced without distillation.
II:	Whiskey, brandy and rum are produced by distillation.
III:	Toddy is a traditional alcoholic beverage from South India produced by fermenting palm tree sap.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only II and III are correct
3. Only I and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

13.

What is the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide respectively in the venous blood leaving the tissues [in mm of Hg]?

1.	104, 40	2.	95, 40
3.	40, 45	4.	20, 46

14. Deaf-mutism and mental retardation is seen in the deficiency of:

1.	Iron	2.	Calcium
3.	B₁₂	4.	Iodine

15. The exact chemical nature of the ‘transforming principle’ of the Griffith experiment was experimentally determined by:

I:	Avery, McCleod and McCarty
II:	Hershey and Chase

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

16.

The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:
1. Oestrogen only
2. progesterone
3. human chorionic gonadotropin
4. relaxin only

17. How many documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India?
1. 27
2. 1000
3. 50,000
4. 200,000

18. What is the purpose of ICZN?

1.	To regulate the names of animal species
2.	To control the import and export of zoological specimens
3.	To promote zoology as a field of study globally
4.	To provide guidelines for botanical gardens

19. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of biomolecules and their primary function?

1.	Collagen – Structural support in connective tissue.
2.	RuBisCO – Enzymatic activity in the Calvin cycle.
3.	Starch – Energy storage in animal tissues.
4.	Cellulose – Structural component in plant cell walls.

20. The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the pubic symphysis containing:
1. fibrous cartilage
2. hyaline cartilage
3. dense regular connective tissue
4. dense irregular connective tissue

21.

Which of the following will lead to decreased rate of decomposition of detritus?
1. Anaerobiosis
2. High temperature
3. Moist environment
4. High nitrogen content in detritus

22.

The typical growth curve in plants is:

1. sigmoid
2. linear
3. stair-steps shaped
4. parabolic

23. Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
1. Initiation
1. Elongation
3. Termination
4. All of the above

24.

Seminal plasma in humans is rich in:

1.	fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
2.	fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
3.	glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
4.	fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium

25. Besides starch, pyrenoids in many members of Chlorophyceae, contain:

1.	Double-stranded DNA
2.	A low molecular weight RNA
3.	Protein
4.	Lipids

26. Which of the following processes is facilitated by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

1.	Conversion of O₂ into oxyhemoglobin in the alveoli.
2.	Formation of carbamino-hemoglobin in tissues.
3.	Conversion of CO₂ into bicarbonate ions in RBCs.
4.	Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin in tissues.

27. Under resting conditions, the axonal membrane is:

1.	impermeable to Na⁺ ions and relatively more permeable to K+ ions.
2.	impermeable to Na⁺ ions and K⁺ions.
3.	freely permeable to Na⁺ ions and relatively more impermeable to K+ ions.
4.	freely permeable to Na⁺ ions and K⁺ ions.

28.

F₂ generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1: 2: 1. It represents a case of:
1. Co-dominance
2. Dihybrid crosses
3. Monohybrid crosses with complete dominance
4. Monohybrid crosses with incomplete dominance

29. Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between ex situ and in situ conservation, and the situations in which they are applied?

1.	Ex situ conservation involves protecting species within their natural habitats, while in situ conservation involves removing species to special facilities; ex situ is used when species are not immediately threatened, and in situ is used for critically endangered species.
2.	In situ conservation involves protecting species in their natural habitats, while ex situ conservation involves conserving species in controlled environments like zoos or botanical gardens; in situ is used for broad ecosystem conservation, whereas ex situ is applied when a species is critically endangered and requires immediate, targeted protection.
3.	Ex situ conservation and in situ conservation both involve protecting species within their natural habitats; both methods are used interchangeably for endangered species.
4.	In situ conservation involves controlled environments like seed banks or zoological parks, while ex situ conservation is focused on protecting species in the wild; ex situ is used for all species under threat of extinction, and in situ for less vulnerable species.

30.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Pedigree analysis is used for the analysis of inheritance of genetic traits in human families.
Reason (R):	Choice matings are not possible in humans and the number of progeny are also limited, usually.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

31. Match the Scientists given in Column-I with their contribution in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Jan Ingenhousz	P.	Provided evidence for production of glucose when plants grow
B.	T. W Engelmann	Q.	Described the first action spectrum for photosynthesis
C.	Julius von Sachs	R.	Showed that sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
D.	Cornelius van Neil	S.	Inferred that oxygen evolved in photosynthesis comes from water and not from carbon dioxide

Codes

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	Q	P	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	P	S	R	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

32. The electrical event represented by P wave in an ECG leads to:

1.	the contraction of both the atria
2.	the contraction of both the ventricles
3.	the relaxation of both the atria
4.	the relaxation of both the ventricles

33. A transgenic tobacco plant was created to make it resistant to:

1.	a nematode, Meloidogyne incognita.
2.	a nematode, Caenorhabditis elegans.
3.	a trematode, Clonorchis sinensis.
4.	a cestode, Taenia sloium.

34. Regarding type of epithelium:

I:	The bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated epithelium
II:	The alveoli are lined with stratified squamous epithelium.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

35. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is lined by:

1.	simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
2.	simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium
3.	simple columnar brush border epithelium
4.	simple columnar ciliated epithelium

36. Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in all of the following angiosperms, except:

1.	pea	2.	groundnut
3.	beans	4.	coconut

37. An excretory system is absent in:

1.	Asterias	2.	Pheretima
3.	Rotifers	4.	Pinctada

38. Consider the following three statements:
Euglena

A:	Locomote by means of a flagellum
B:	Have a rigid cell wall
C:	Do not have chloroplast

1. Only A is correct
2. Only B and C are correct
3. A, B, and C are correct
4. Only C is correct

39. The given figure shows transverse section of a:

1. Monocot stem
2. Monocot root
3. Dicot stem
4. Dicot root

40. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive foetus. What happens if this condition is left untreated in a subsequent pregnancy?

1.	The foetus may suffer from severe anaemia and jaundice due to maternal Rh antibodies attacking fetal RBCs.
2.	The mother’s immune system remains unresponsive to Rh-positive RBCs in subsequent pregnancies.
3.	The foetus develops an overproduction of RBCs to counteract maternal antibodies.
4.	The condition only affects the first pregnancy, with no impact on later pregnancies.

41. The brain stem includes all the following except:

1.	Medulla oblongata	2.	Pons
3.	Mid brain	4.	Cerebellum

42. Identify the incorrect statement regarding reptiles:

1.	They are mostly aquatic animals and their body is covered by dry and cornified skin, dermal scales or scutes.
2.	They do not have external ear openings. Tympanum represents ear.
3.	Heart is usually three-chambered, but four-chambered in crocodiles.
4.	They are oviparous and development is direct.

43. In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their:
1. charge
2. size
3. 3-D shape
4. base composition

44. Which of the following definitions best describes carrying capacity (K)?

1.	The total number of individuals in a population at a given point in time, irrespective of resource limitations.
2.	The minimum number of individuals a population must reach before a population can start to grow exponentially.
3.	The number of offspring produced per female in a population under optimal conditions.
4.	The maximum population size that a given habitat can support with available resources, beyond which growth cannot be sustained.

45. What is the primary reason why the ribs are described as "bicephalic"?

1.	They articulate only with the sternum
2.	They are connected to both the vertebrae and scapula
3.	They have a dual blood supply
4.	They have two articulation surfaces at the dorsal end

46.

The outer hard layer of the pollen wall is made up of:

1.	Callose, which is easily digested by enzymes
2.	Sporopollenin, which is resistant to all enzymes
3.	Hemicellulose, which is difficult to digest by enzymes
4.	Calcium pectate, which is easily digested by enzymes

47. Consider the following statements about the reproductive system of a male frog and choose the correct option:

I:	The male frog has a pair of testes which are attached to the kidneys by a structure called mesorchium.
II:	The male frog's sperm travels through the urethra which also carries urine.
III:	External fertilization occurs, and the frog's sperm are released directly into the surrounding water.

1. Only I and II are correct.
2. Only I and III are correct.
3. Only II and III are correct.
4. All statements are correct.

48.

Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair has both the microbes that can be used as biofertilizers?
1. Aspergillus and Rhizopus
2. Rhizobium and Rhizopus
3. Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
4. Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria

49.

When population density is plotted against time, the exponential growth curve is:

1.	S shaped	2.	Straight line
3.	J shaped	4.	Hyperbola

50.

Identify the correct statements amongst the following:

I:	When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary
II:	In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne in basipetal order
III:	In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in basipetal order

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only I and III	4.	Only II and III

51. Cytochrome c in the mitochondrial ETS is located:

1.	within the inner mitochondrial membrane
2.	on the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane
3.	on the inner surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane
4.	in the mitochondrial matrix

52. The source of thermostable DNA polymerase used in Polymerase Chain Reaction is:
1. a blue green alga.
2. a bacterium.
3. a yeast.
4. a protozoan.

53. In Dianthus or Primrose, the ovule is:

1.	borne on a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary
2.	attached to axial placenta in a multilocular ovary
3.	borne on central axis and septa are absent
4.	single and attached to placenta at the base of the ovary

54. How do oral contraceptive pills primarily prevent pregnancy?

1.	They prevent the implantation of the embryo in the uterus.
2.	They inhibit gonadotropins and thus causes gonads to regress in size.
3.	They inhibit ovulation by suppressing the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.
4.	They suppress the motility of sperms.

55. Why does endosperm development precede embryo development during post-fertilization events?

1.	To provide structural support to the developing zygote.
2.	To promote the formation of the seed coat before embryo development.
3.	To ensure the formation of the cotyledons first.
4.	To nourish the developing embryo with stored food reserves.

56. The thymus:

1.	is located dorsal to the heart and aorta
2.	is very small in size at birth and gradually increases in size after puberty
3.	provides the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen
4.	is a primary lymphoid organ in the human body

57. Which of the following secondary metabolites is a powerful toxin?

1.	Concanavalin A	2.	Codeine
3.	Abrin	4.	Vinblastine

58. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropy?

1.	A single gene controlling multiple unrelated phenotypic traits
2.	Multiple genes controlling a single phenotype
3.	Two genes interacting to produce a new phenotype
4.	A single gene causing incomplete dominance

59. One of the following biomolecules is neither a macromolecule nor a polymer. Identify it:
1. Proteins
2. Lipids
3. Carbohydrates
4. Nucleic acids

60.

Identify the correct statement with regard to $G_{1}$ phase (Gap 1) of interphase:

1.	The reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
2.	The cell is metabolically active and grows but does not replicate its DNA
3.	Nuclear division takes place
4.	DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

61. The concept that new cells arise only from pre-existing cells was first explained by which scientist, thereby modifying the original cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Schwann?
1. Rudolf Virchow
2. Matthias Schleiden
3. Robert Brown
4. Theodor Schwann

62.

Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
1. the neuromuscular junction
2. the transverse tubules
3. the myofibril
4. the sarcoplasmic reticulum

63. One of the following is not a method of contraception- which one?
1. condoms
2. pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
3. Lippes loop
4. tubectomy

64. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Except for plants in shade or in dense forests, light is rarely a limiting factor for photosynthesis in nature.
Reason (R):	Increase in incident light beyond a point causes the breakdown of chlorophyll and a decrease in photosynthesis.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

65. How many of the given statements are correct?

I:	Bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial plant, animal or human cells.
II:	A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).
III:	The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

66. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as:
1. repetitive DNA
2. satellite DNA
3. genomic DNA
4. complementary DNA

67. A process in which heritable variations enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and leave greater
number of progeny is called as:
1. Evolution
2. Natural selection
3. Speciation
4. Gene flow

68.

The taxonomic category where you expect to find organisms least similar to one another would be:

1.	Class	2.	Genus
3.	Family	4.	Species

69. Analyze the following statements regarding the cell cycle:

Statement A:	During the S phase, DNA replication occurs inside the nucleus, while centrioles duplicate independently in the cytoplasm, ensuring proper spindle formation for the next mitotic division.
Statement B:	Cells that permanently exit the G₁ phase without entering the S phase enter the G₀ phase, where they no longer divide but remain metabolically active.

Choose the correct option:

1.	Both Statement A and Statement B are correct.
2.	Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.
3.	Statement A is correct, but Statement B is incorrect.
4.	Statement A is incorrect, but Statement B is correct.

70. What will not be true regarding ‘industrial melanism’?

1.	Before industrialisation set in in England, it was observed that there were more white-winged moths on trees than dark-winged or melanised moths.
2.	After industrialisation, there were more dark-winged moths in the same area.
3.	In areas where industrialisation did not occur e.g. in rural areas, the count of melanic moths was low.
4.	One of two variants got completely wiped out according to prevalent conditions and later arose through a recurring mutation.

71. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the membrane potential changes in a specific pattern. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events in the generation of an action potential?

1.	The membrane potential remains constant, indicating a steady state of ion exchange across the neuron membrane.
2.	Sodium ions rapidly enter the neuron, causing the membrane potential to become more negative, followed by the exit of potassium ions which restores the membrane to its resting potential.
3.	Potassium ions rapidly exit the neuron, leading to hyperpolarization first, followed by sodium ions entering the neuron to return to the resting potential.
4.	Sodium ions rapidly enter the neuron, making the inside more positive (depolarization), followed by potassium ions exiting the neuron, which restores the membrane to its resting potential (repolarization).

72.

Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to boost the production of tea leaves. This is because:

1.	Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated.
2.	Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages.
3.	Effect of auxins is removed and the growth of lateral buds is enhanced.
4.	Gibberellins delay the senescence of leaves.

73. Which of the following organism is not uricotelic?
1. Land snails
2. Reptiles
3. Insects
4. Aquatic amphibians

74.

Identify the statement that correctly describes the amount of DNA in a typical somatic cell of human body?

1.	A single human cell has approximately one metre long thread of DNA distributed among its twenty three (one set) chromosomes.
2.	A single human cell has approximately two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its twenty three (one set) chromosomes.
3.	A single human cell has approximately two metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty six (twenty three pairs) chromosomes.
4.	A single human cell has approximately one metre long thread of DNA distributed among its forty six (twenty three pairs) chromosomes.

75. Consider the given statements:

I:	Fishes belong to the superclass Pisces within the phylum Chordata.
II:	Fishes possess gills for respiration.
III:	Fishes have a two-chambered heart.

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

76. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidegyne incognita?

1.	Leaf	2.	Stem
3.	Root	4.	Flower

77. In the reproductive system of female frogs, which of the following statements is true?

1.	The oviducts open directly into the coelom.
2.	Females have a single ovary.
3.	Eggs are fertilized internally.
4.	Eggs are laid and fertilized externally in water.

78. Which of the following effects is associated with the removal of the apical bud (decapitation)?

1.	Inhibition of lateral bud growth
2.	Promotion of lateral bud growth into branches
3.	Prevention of root growth
4.	Reduction in stem elongation

79. How many water molecules need to split in photolysis of water during oxygenic photosynthesis to produce one molecule of oxygen?

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

80.

Assertion (A):	The type of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is called malignant.
Reason (R):	There is no known cure for infection caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

81. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The partial pressure of oxygen is equal in alveoli and oxygenated blood.
Statement II:	The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is equal in alveoli and deoxygenated blood.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

82. Flagellated stages will not be seen in the life cycle of:
1. Gracilaria
2. Fucus
3. Ulothrix
4. Chlamydomonas

83.

How many hotspots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?
1. 17
2. 25
3. 34
4. 43

84. For aerobic respiration to take place within the mitochondria, the final product of glycolysis, pyruvate:

1.	is transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.
2.	undergoes oxidative decarboxylation in the cytosol.
3.	is reduced to lactate in liver.
4.	is transported from the cytoplasm first into the Golgi apparatus, where it is packaged and then transported into the mitochondrion.

85. Bottled fruit juices appear clearer compared to homemade juices because:

1.	Microbes ferment the sugars present in bottled juices, enhancing clarity.
2.	Ethanol produced during juice preservation removes suspended particles.
3.	Lipases hydrolyse lipids, reducing oil-based cloudiness.
4.	Enzymes like pectinases and proteases break down complex substances causing turbidity.

86.

Addison’s disease is caused by:
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperadrenalism
4. Hypoadrenalism

87. Identify the correct sequence of processes that happen in an adult female leading to childbirth:

1.	fertilisation → implantation → gestation → ovulation → parturition
2.	ovulation → fertilisation → implantation → gestation → parturition
3.	implantation → ovulation → gestation → fertilisation → parturition
4.	menstruation → fertilisation → ovulation → gestation → parturition

88. A nuclear feature is found in a certain fungus. It is a specialized type of heterokaryon, which is characterized by two genetically distinct nuclei in each cell. This feature is called:

1.	Dikaryon	2.	Dictyate
3.	Dinokont	4.	Diplococcus

89. Identify the correctly matched pairs:

	Layer in the wall of artery/vein	Made up of
I:	Tunica intima	Squamous epithelium
II:	Tunica media	Skeletal muscle/elastic fibres
III:	Tunica externa	Fibrous connective tissue

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

90. Consider the given statements:

I:	Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex.
II:	Aldosterone regulates the secretion of angiotensinogen by liver.
III:	Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

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