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In cymose inflorescence when shoot tip gets converted into flower, than flower is ?
1. It is always solitary 
2. It is in cluster
3. It is always sympodial 
4. It is always acropetal

In a flower staminode represents
1. Fertile stamen 
2. Sterile stamen
3. Under develop stamen 
4. Bunch of stamen

Match the following
A. Diadelphous                   (i) Malvaceae
B. Polyadelphous                (ii) Fabaceae
C. Monodelphous                (iii) Solanaceae
D. Epipetalous                    (iv) Rutaceae
1. A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii 
2. A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
3. A – iv, B – iii, C – i, D – ii 
4. A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii

These are the names of plants, maximum number of plants belong to which family
(i) Sem (ii) Sesbania (iii) Muliathi (iv) Petunia (v) Chilli (vi) belladonna (vii) Asparagus
(viii) Gloriosa (ix) Colchicum (x) Trifolium
1. Solanacea 
2. Malvaceae 
3. Fabaceae 
4. Liliaceae

Which one of the following is not a medicinal plant
1. Lupin 
2. Belladonna 
3. Aloe 
4. Ashwagandha

If false septum is present. Than what would be the placentation
1. Axile 
2. Parietal
3. Marginal 
4. Free central

Which of the following statement is not correct about Cajanus cajan
1. Seed is endospermic 
2. Source of pulses
3. Vexillary aestivation 
4. Ovary superior

Roots become modified to perform functions like
1. Additional support and absorption of water
2. Absorption and conduction of water and minerals
3. Storage of food and respiration
4. Absorption of minerals and storage of food

Select correct option with respect to Mangroves
(i) Grows in swampy area
(ii) Pneumatophores are present for respiration
(iii) Is halophyte
(iv) Shows in-situ germination of seed
1. All are correct 
2. All are correct except (iv)
3. All are correct except (i) & (iv) 
4. All are correct except (i), (iii), & (iv)

Fruit of coconut plant is developed from
1. Monocarpellary ovary 
2. Superior ovary
3. Epigynous flower
4. Both a and b

The type of sub-aerial weak stem present in Pistia is also present in
1. Jasmine 
2. Pineapple 
3. Strawberry 
4. Eichhornia

Read the following statement carefully
(i) In dicots, the leaf base expands into a sheath covering the stem partially or wholly
(ii) Veins provide rigidity to the leaf blade.
(iii) In monocots, leaf base is swollen and is known as pulvinus.
(iv) The petiole holds the blade to light
How many statement(s) is/are incorrect?
1. Two 
2. Four 
3. One 
4. Three

How many statements are correct ?
(i) The seed coat has two layers, the outer testa and the inner tegmen
(ii) The hilum is the small pore on seed coat.
(iii) Both plumule and radical are enclosed in sheath known as coleoptiles in monocot
(iv) Castor seed is endospermic
(v) Generally monocots have non-endospermic seeds except some like orchinds.
(vi) A dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons
1. six 
2. five 
3. four 
4. three

In a papilionaceous corolla, the anterior petal is
1. Smallest and called keel 
2. Known as scale
3.  Largest and is known as wing 
4. Largest and is known as standard

Which of the following pairs of cells is related ontogenetically?
1. Trachieds and tracheae
2. Sieve cells and sieve tube components
3. Sieve tube members and phloem
4. Sieve tube members and companion cells

Conjunctive tissue is
1. parenchymatous tissue present between two vascular bundles in dicot stem
2.  parenchymatous tissue present between xylem and phloem in root
3. sclerenchymatous tissue present in cortex
4. lateral meristem

Protoxylem and stomata in a dorsiventral leaf are present
1. on the abaxial and adaxial sides, respectively
2. on the adaxial and abaxial sides, respectively
3. on the adaxial side
4. on the abaxial side

The cells shown in the below diagram are of ______ tissue and can be seen in ______ layer of the dicot stem.

1. Collenchyma, Hypodermis
2. Sclerenchyma, Sclereids
3. Parenchyma, Pericycle
4. Parenchyma, Pith

Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant such as young stem and petiole of leaf is provided by a living tissue called

Which of the following is correct statement for intercalary meristems?
1. They lie at tip of root apex
2. They lie at base of stem always
3. They are short lived and consumed during primary growth
4. They are long lived and cause increase in length

Compare diagram ‘a’ with ‘b’ and find out which statement is incorrect about difference  between these two diagrams.

1. In ‘a’ mesophyll is of two type where as in case of ‘b’ mesophyll is of single type
2. In ‘a’ stomata is mainly at lower surface whereas in ‘b’ stomata is at both the surface
3. In ‘a’ vascular bundle is of different size whereas in ‘b’ vascular bundle is of more or
less equal size
4. In ‘a’ xylem is towards adaxial surface whereas in ‘b’ xylem is towards abaxial surface

A large number of proteins made by the ribosomes get modified in
1. Lysosomes. 
2. Trans face of Golgi apparatus.
3. Cisternae of Golgi apparatus. 
4. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Three of the following statements regarding cell organelles are correct while one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
1. Lysosomes are double membraned vesicles budded off from golgi bodies and contain digestive enzymes.
2. Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a network of membranous tubules and helps in transport,
synthesis and secretion.
3. Leucoplasts are bound by two membranes, lack pigments but contain their own DNA and protein synthesizing machinery.
4. Sphaerosomes are single membrane bound and are associated with synthesis and storage of lipids.

Consider the following cellular functions:
A. Transport of substances.
B. Synthesis of proteins.
C. Synthesis of steroidal hormones.
D. Glycogen metabolism.
E. Detoxification of drugs
F. Giving rise to sphaerosomes.
ER helps in how many of the above functions?
1. Two 
2. Four 
3. Six 
4. Five

Select the incorrect statement:
1. Leeuwenhoek first described a live cell
2. Robert Brown discovered the nucleus
3. Robert Hooke first saw a living cell
4.  Schwann proposed that bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and
products of cells

"One of the most important functions of the plasma membrane is the transport of molecules." Which of the following is correct with respect to this statement?
1. Polar molecules can pass easily through the lipid bilayer
2.  The membrane does not support passive transport
3. Neutral solutes require a carrier protein of membrane for transport
4. The memebrane is selectively permeable to some molecules present on either side of it

Mitochondria and plastids are similar in all of the following aspects, except:
1. Possess circular ds-DNA
2. Have endo-symbiotic origin
3. Are the sites of carbohydrate biosynthesis
4. Divide by fission

Lysosomes are:
1. Double membrane bound vesicular structures
2. Rich in few hydrolases
3. Formed by packaging in Golgi apparatus
4. Formed by engulfing the food particles

Choose the correct statement with respect to the following diagram:

1. Section of flagella showing different parts seen in eukaryotes and prokaryotes
2. It shows the cartwheel organisation with 9 + 0 microtubular arrangement
3. They form structures which cause movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid
4. It forms structure which is not covered by any membraneHow many of the following features
are associated', with the endomembrane system?

The type of placentation shown in the given diagram is seen in:

1. China rose
2. Mustard
3. Marigold
4. Dianthus

Select the correct statement:
1. Centrioles form the basal body of cilia and flagella
2. Secondary constrictions on the chromosomes do not have a constant location
3. Microbodies are present in plant cells only
4. Nucleoli are less in number in cells undergoing protein synthesis

Find the incorrect statement:
1. Middle lamella is mainly made up of calcium pectate
2. Cell wall is formed on the inner side of the cell therefore secondary wall formed first
3. Middle lamella glues the neighbouring cells together
4. Cell wall helps in cell to cell interaction and provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules

Transitional vesicles enclosing biochemicals pinched off from ER fuse with:
1. Maturing face of golgibody
2. Forming face of golgi body
3. Primary lysosome for intracellular digestion
4. Plasma membrane to remove them from cell

According to fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane the quasifluid nature of:
1. Protein enables lateral movement of lipids within the overall bilayer
2. Lipid and protein enable the lateral movement of carbohydrates
3. Lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer
4. Lipid enables the flip-flop movement of proteins

The enzymes present in lysosomes belong to the class_______ and acidic condition inside the
lysosome is maintained by_______:
1. Oxidoreductases, pumping protons
2. Hydrolases, secretion of acids
3. Hydrolases, pumping of protons
4. Lyases, removal of hydroxyl ions

Which of the following is correct about cell cycle?
1. All events occur in coordinated manner
2. All events are under genetic control
3. DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage in the cell cycle
4. All

Identify A, B, C, D in below diagram

1. A-G₁, B-S, C-G₂, D-M Phase 
2. A-G₂, B-M Phase, C-G₁, D-S
3. A-S, B-G₂, C-G₁, D-M Phase 
4. A-M Phase, B-G₁, C-G₁, D-S

Events of telophase are
1. chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements
2. nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome cluster
3. nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reforms
4. all

Select the total number of correct statements.
I. Cell-plate formation occurs in plant cell during cytokinesis.
II. During cytokinesis, mitochondria and plastid get distributed between two daughter cells in mitosis.
III. Liquid endosperm in coconut is syncytium.
IV. Furrow formation occur in animal cell during cytokinesis.
1. 1 only 
2. 2 only 
3. 3 only 
4. 4 only

Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing
1. same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
2. half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids
3. half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids
4. same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatid

Mitosis differs from meiosis in
1. forming four haploid cells
2. pairing of homologous chromosomes and their subsequent separation
3. doubling of each chromosome and each pair showing four chromatids
4.  duplication of chromosomes and subsequent separation of the duplicates

Meiosis involves
1. two nuclear divisions and two chromosome divisions
2. two nuclear divisions and one chromosome division
3. one nuclear division and one chromosome division
4. one nuclear division and two chromosome divisions

Synaptonemal complex has a role in
1. chromosome pairing 
2. chromosome movement
3. chromosome segregation 
4. chromosome organization

Cross-like configuration when nonsister chromatids of a bivalent come in contact during first meiotic division are
1. chiasmata 
2. bivalents 
3. chromomeres 
4. centromeres

Significance of meiosis lies in the
1. reduction of chromosome number to one half
2. maintaining constancy of chromosome number during sexual reproduction
3. production of genetic variability
4. all of these

The type of reaction that would link monomers in the formation of a macromolecule is:
1. hydrophobic reaction
2. hydrolysis reaction
3. dehydration reaction
4. denaturation reaction

Cellulose is the most common organic compound on earth yet it is difficult for most animals to digest primarily because:
1. they don't have the proper enzyme to break the bonds between subunits
2. cellulose is made up of chitin, which is indigestible
3. the bonds holding cellulose subunits together are extremely strong, stronger than in any other macromolecule
4. there are many hydrogen bonds holding the subunits together

The molecule shown below can be:

1. the major constituent of cell membranes
2. a major source of energy for animals
3. storage form of carbohydrate in animals
4. a precursor of steroid hormones in animals
 

The level of polypeptide folding in which the primary sequence coils around itself, stabilized by regularly spaced hydrogen bonds, is called:
1. primary structure
2. alpha helix
3. beta sheet
4. tertiary structure

The structure of ATP molecule most closely resembles that of:
1. Ribonucleotide
2. Deoxyribonucleotide
3. Gamma amino acid
4. Saturated fatty acid

Identify the incorrect statement regarding enzymes:
1. Enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
2. Enzymes are specific.
3. Enzymes provide activation energy for reactions.
4. Enzyme activity can be regulated.

In the graph given below which letter represents the reaction occurring in the presence of a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
 

Which of the following secondary metabolites is an anti-cancer drug?
1. Concanavalin A
2. Abrin
3. Ricin
4. Vinblastin

Each minor calyx receives urine from the:
1. renal papillae
2. pelvis
3. ureter
4. columns of Bertini

All the following are functions of kidneys except:
1. Deactivate vitamin D and stimulation of the activity of osteoclasts.
2. Control of the rate of red blood cell production.
3. help to regulate blood pressure.
4. regulate the composition, volume, and pH of body fluids.

The concentrations of substances in the plasma, in the glomerular filtrate, and in urine differ in what way?
1. Plasma contains the most water, glomerular filtrate contains less water, and urine contains the least.
2. Plasma and glomerular filtrate are virtually identical, but urine contains proportionately more waste products.
3. Plasma differs from glomerular filtrate and urine, which have virtually identical concentrations of substances.
4. All three have the same concentrations of nutrients and waste materials, but differ in the amount of proteinaceous material they contain.

Within the renal tubule, two hormones play a role in determining the final volume and sodium concentration of the urine. The hormone ____ regulates sodium reabsorption, while ______ regulates water reabsorption.
1. aldosterone; antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
2. cortisol; atrial natriuretic peptide
3. renin; angiotensin II
4. antidiuretic hormone (ADH); epinephrine

The term urine can be correctly used for the first time for the fluid in:
1. urinary bladder
2. collecting duct
3. distal convoluted tubule
4. loop of Henle

The mucosa of the bladder is comprised of:
1. smooth muscle
2. squamous epithelium
3. transitional epithelium
4. simple columnar epithelium

What causes urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder?
1. gravity
2. hydrostatic pressure
3. peristalsis
4. osmotic pressure

Which of these could appear in the urine from dieting or the utilization of excess lipids?
1. urea
2. uric acid
3. glycine
4. ketone

The targets of angiotensin II are blood vessels and:
1. nerves
2. adrenal cortex
3. adrenal medulla
4. kidney nephron

Intrinsic factor is secreted by which cells of the gastric glands?
1. mucous cells
2. chief cells
3. peptic cells
4. parietal cells

What hormone does the small intestine release in response to acidic chyme?
1. cholecystokinin
2. secretin
3. gastric inhibitory peptide
4. gastrin

What is the primary function of the large intestine?
1. to complete the absorption of most nutrients
2. to house gas-producing bacteria
3. to rid the body of toxins
4. to compact, store, and eliminate feces

What blocks pancreatic secretions from entering the duodenum?
1. pyloric valve
2. sphincter of Oddi
3. the common bile duct
4. cholecystokinin secretion

Which of the following triggers the formation of the others?
1. trypsin
2. enterokinase
3. carboxypeptidase
4. chymotrypsin

Which of the following acts to inhibit acid production?
1. secretin
2. somatostatin
3. cholecystokinin
4. gastrin

A person at rest has a respiratory rate of 12 breath per minute, a tidal volume of 500 mL and a dead space air volume of 150 mL. How much air is wasted (not involved in gas exchange) per minute?
1. 500 mL/min
2. 1800 mL/min
3. 4200 mL/min
4. 6000 mL/min

At lungs carbon dioxide diffuses out of the pulmonary capillaries into the alveoli. As a result hemoglobin’s ability to bind to oxygen would:
1. be unstable
2. stay the same
3. decrease
4. increase

Aging RBCs are phagocytized by macrophages in the mononuclear phagocyte system [sleen or liver] and their components are recycled, EXCEPT for the
1. iron atom from the heme group, which is excreted in bile
2. globin peptide chains, which are sent to the kidneys for excretion
3. globin peptide chains, which are converted into bilirubin
4. heme group (minus the iron atom), which is converted into a green pigment called biliverdin

The normal pacemaker of the human heart, sinoatrial node, is derived from the more primitive:
1. ventricle
2. bundle of His
3. conus arteriosus
4. sinus venosus

Amongst the following, a molecule that would lead to coagulation of the blood would be:
1. prostacyclin
2. tissue factor or thromboplastin
3. plasmin
4. tissue plasminogen activator

The efficiency of a respiratory system would be increased by all the following except:
1. increase the surface area available for diffusion of gases
2. decrease the distance over which the gases must diffuse
3. increase the concentration differences of gases inside and outside the system
4. dry the system out so the gases do not have to diffuse through water

How many of the statements given below are correct?
I. During inspiration the diaphragm moves upward while the thorax expands and moves outward.
II. The anatomical dead space represents the air that is trapped in the alveoli and is around 150mL.
III. Decreasing blood oxygen and increasing carbon dioxide cause the major increases seen in breathing rate during strenuous exercise.
IV. Oxygen dissociates faster from hemoglobin during exercise.
V. Increased pH shifts oxyHb-dissociation curve to the right.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Respiration is under neural and chemical regulation. The receptors for chemical regulation are located in the:

Choose the correct order for the steps of hemostasis:
1. blood coagulation, platelet plug formation, blood vessel spasm
2. platelet plug formation, blood coagulation, blood vessel spasm
3. blood vessel spasm, platelet plug formation, blood coagulation
4. blood vessel spasm, blood coagulation, platelet plug formation

During a cardiac cycle:
1. About 70 ml of blood is pumped by the two ventricles
2. The left atrium and the left ventricle contract simultaneously
3. More blood is pumped into the systemic than in pulmonary circulation
4. The atria contract prior to the ventricles

Kwashiorkor is characterized by:
1. Sufficient calorie intake but insufficient protein consumption
2. Insufficient calorie intake but sufficient protein consumption
3. Insufficient calorie intake and insufficient protein consumption
4. Sufficient calorie intake and sufficient protein consumption

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below

    A   B   C   D
1.  a   b   c   d
2.  b   d   c   a
3.  d   a   b   c
4.  d   b   c   c

What is the primary function of the Pneumotaxic Center in the regulation of respiration in human beings?
1. It increases the rate and depth of breathing
2. It decreases the rate of and depth of breathing
3. It controls the “switch off’ point of inspiration
4. It initiates the “Herring-Breur” reflex

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented during a second pregnancy in a Rh negative mother who is likely to carry a Rh positive fetus by:

What is shown in the given figure:

1. Type II pneumocytes lining the respiratory membrane
2. Lining of the small intestine with a brush border
3. Vascular endothelium showing gap junctions
4. Ciliated epithelial lining of the oviduct

Which of the following have no nuclei and originate as pinched-off cytoplasmic fragments of large cells in the bone marrow?
1. Mature RBC
2. Reticulocytes
3. Thrombocytes
4. Macrophages

In the given diagram, the functional residual capacity will be depicted by:

1. B + F
2. B + D + F
3. A – [B + C]
4. A – E

Some human infants, especially those born prematurely, suffer serious respiratory failure because of
1. The sudden change from the uterine environment to the air.
2. The incomplete development of the lung surface.
3. Lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant.
4. Mutations in the genes involved in lung formation.

An increase from pH 7.2 to pH 7.4 around hemoglobin causes:
1. Hemoglobin to release all bound oxygen molecules.
2. An increase in the affinity of hemoglobin to bind oxygen molecules.
3. Hemoglobin to denature.
4. An increase in the binding of H+ by hemoglobin.

“Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin makes hemoglobin a stronger acid” forms the physiological basis of:
1. Herring-Breur Reflex
2. Bohr effect
3. Haldane effect
4. Singultus

Robin Warren and Barry Marshall received Nobel Prize for the discovery that:
1. Cancer cells present MHC I on their surface
2. Limbic system controls behavior in humans
3. Bombay phenotype lacks H antigen
4. Most duodenal ulcers are caused by a bacterium

How many of the statements given below are correct?
I. A high reticulocyte count in the blood could indicate that there is a slow production of erythrocytes from the bone marrow.
II. A deficiency of the oxygen carrying capacity in the blood will cause the production of more red blood cells.
III. In pernicious anemia, the lack of vitamin cyanocobalamin causes the red blood cells to become enlarged.
IV. Serum is the liquid portion of the blood that cannot clot.
V. Persons with type A antigen will have anti-B antibody in their blood also.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Among the following groups maximum –I effect is exerted by:
\(1 . - C_{6} H_{5}\)
\(2 .\) \(- \left(OCH\right)_{3}\)
\(3 .\) \(- Cl\)
\(4 .\) \(-NO_2\)

Zero inductive effect is exerted by -
$1. {\mathrm{C}}_6{\mathrm{H}}_5-$
$2. \mathrm{H}-$
$3. {\mathrm{CH}}_3-$
$4. \mathrm{CI}-$

Which pair of groups exerts a (\( - I \)) effect?
\(1 .   -NO_{2} ~~  \&~~~   - CH_{3}\)
\(2 .   - NO_{2}  ~~ \&   - Cl\)
\(3 .   - Cl  ~~ \&   -CH_{3}\)
\(4 .   - CH_{3}  ~~~~ \&  ~ - C_{2} H_{5}\)${\mathrm{}}_{}$

M effect takes part in -
1. Saturated system 
2. Unsaturated system containing conjugated double bond. 
3. Unsaturated system containing non conjugated double bond.
4. A triple bond in a carbon chain

Which of the following pairs of structures do not represent  resonating structures ?
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

In which delocalization of positive charge is possible
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

The o, p-directing but deactivating group is
1. $-{\mathrm{NH}}_2$
2. $-\mathrm{OH}$
3. $\mathrm{R}-\left(\mathrm{alkyl}\right)$
4. $\mathrm{X}-\left(\mathrm{Halogen}\right)$

The order of stability of the following resonating structures

1. II > I > III         2. I > III > II
3. I > II > III         4. III > II > I

In which of the following structures is hyperconjugation possible?

i.		ii.
iii.		iv.

1. i and ii             
2. i, ii and iii
3. only ii                     
4. In all of the above

Which of the following groups has the highest hyperconjugative effect but least + I-effect ?
1. – CH₃                    2. – CH₂CH_3
3. – CH (CH₃)₂           4. – C (CH₃)₃

The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is  51 kcal/mol    and its resonance energy is 36 kcal/mol. What will be the heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene ?
1. 18 kcal mol^–1                   2. 29 kcal mol^–1
3. 50 kcal mol^–1                   4. 26 kcal mol^–1

Which of the following is not paramagnetic -
1. Carbon free radical   2. Singlet carbene
3. Triplet carbene         4. All 

Which of the following are diamagnetic -
1. Carbocation                2. Carbanion
3. Singlet carbene           4. All 

Arrange the following  nucleophiles in the order of their nucleophilic strength :
1. OH^–  > CH₃COO^– > OCH₃^– > C₆H₅O^–
2. CH₃COO^– < C₆H₅O^– < CH₃O^– < OH^–
3. C₆H₅O^– < CH₃COO^– < CH₃O^– < OH^–
4. CH₃COO^– < C₆H₅O^– < OH^– < CH₃O^–

Which order is untrue for resonance energy
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
 

Which of the options is correct about product (A)?

1. Product is aromatic  
2. Product has a high dipole moment
3. Product has less resonance energy          
4. Both A and B

Which of the following is not an aromatic compound -
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

In which of the following molecules, the substituent does not exert its resonance effect?
1. C₆H₅NH₂              2. ${\mathrm{C}}_6{\mathrm{H}}_5\stackrel{\oplus }{\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{H}}_3$
3. C₆H₅OH                4. C₆H₅Cl

Which is strongest acid -   
1. Ortho iodo benzoic acid       
2. Ortho bromo benzoic acid
3. Ortho chlorobenzoic acid       
4.  Ortho fluro benzoic acid  

The correct order of basicities of the following compounds is -      

1. 2 > 1 > 3 > 4           2. 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
3. 3 > 1 > 2 > 4           4. 1 > 2 > 3 > 4

Arrange the following compounds according to decreasing order of basic strength 

1. 2 > 1 > 3
2. 1 > 2 > 3
3. 2 > 3 > 1
4. 3 > 2 > 1

 when X is made to react with 2 eq. of NaNH2 the product formed will be:         
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
 

Correct order of acidic strength is :
1. x > y > z            2. z > y > x
3. y > z > x            4. x > z > y

The correct acidity order of the following is-

1. (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)        
2. (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
3. (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)                    
4. (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)

Which H/CH₃ group is most likely to migrate to the positively charged carbon in the given carbocation?
 

Among the following compounds, the most acidic is -                     
1. p-nitrophenol                
2. p-hydroxybenzoic acid
3. o-hydroxybenzoic acid                                               
4. p-toluic acid

The total number of contributing structures showing hyperconjugation (involving C–H bonds) for the following carbocation is

1. 6 H
2. 4 H
3. 2 H
4. None of above

The IUPAC name of compound

1. 1,3 - Dicarbomoylheptane 
2. 4 - Carbamoyloctane
3. 2 - Butyl pentanediamide
4. 2 - Butyl pentane diamino ketone

Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

1. 2-Amino-3-Formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid 
2. 2-Formyl-3-amino butane-1,4-dioic acid
3. 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid 
4. 2-Amino-3-carboxy-4-oxo butanoic acid

The metamer and functional isomer of N, N-Diethylethanamine is/are
1. N, N-Dimethylbutan-2-amine and N-Propylbutan-1-amine respectively
2. N-Ethyl-N-methylpropan-3-amine and N-methylpentan-2-amine respectively
3. N-Ethyl-N-methylpropan-1-amine and N-Isopropylpropan-1-amine respectively
4. N,N-Dimethylpropan-2-amine and N-Ethylbutan-2-amine respectively

The no. of isomeric sodium salt that will be required to obtain neopentane.
1. 3                        2. 1
3. 4                        4. 6

$\stackrel{{\mathrm{H}}_2/\mathrm{Ni}}{\to }\mathrm{A}$. A is
1. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-{\left({\mathrm{CH}}_2\right)}_4-{\mathrm{CH}}_3$
2. 
3. 
4. 

The reacting species of alc. KOH is -
1. OH¯                  2. OR⁺               
3. OK⁺                  4. RO¯

The reduction of 4-octyne with H₂ in the presence of Pd/CaCO₃ – quinoline gives (as a major product) -
1. trans-4-octene      
2. cis- 4- octene
3. a mixture of cis and trans-4-octene    
4. a completely reduced product C₈H₁₈

What would be the product when ethene is oxidised with cold dil. KMnO₄ solution -
1. 
2. 
3. 
4.${\mathrm{CO}}_2+{\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{O}$

Propene react with Cl₂ at 500ºC the product is formed -
1. 1-chloro propene-1
2. 2-chloro propene-1
3. 1,2-dichloro propane
4. 3-chloro propene-1

Which of the following will not react with an ammonical silver nitrate solution -
1. CH₃C$\equiv$CH            2. (CH₃)₂CH–C$\equiv$H
3. CH₃C$\equiv$CCH₃         4. HC$\equiv$CH

Consider the following reactions

The correct set of reagents for these reactions is

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment ?
1. 
2. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3\mathrm{C}\equiv {\mathrm{CCH}}_3$
3. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}$
4. ${\mathrm{H}}_2\mathrm{C}=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{C} \mathrm{CH}$

Pollutants, which are slowly degradable and remain in the environment in an unchanged form for many decades, are termed as :
1. slow-degradable pollutants
2. non-degradable pollutants
3. soil pollutants
4. none of the above

Carbon monoxide is mainly released into air by :
1. automobile exhaust
2. incomplete combustion of coal
3. incomplete combustion of firewood
4. all of the above

Among the following gases which one is damaging the ozone layer?
1. CFCs                   2. CO₂
3. CH₄                         4. SO₂

Classical smog is a mixture of :
1. smoke + SO₂
2. smoke + H₂O
3. smoke + fog + H₂O
4. smoke +  fog + SO₂

Which one of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding photochemical smog?
1. CO does not play any role in photochemical smog formation
2. Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in character
3. Photochemical smog is formed through photochemical reaction involving solar energy
4. Photochemical smog does not cause irritation in eyes and throat

Which of the following options represent(s) the PAN?
1. ${\mathrm{CH}}_2\mathrm{O}$
2. ${\mathrm{CH}}_2=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{CHO}$
3. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3{\mathrm{CH}}_2-\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{N}=\mathrm{O}$
4. ${\mathrm{CH}}_3-\underset{\mathrm{O}}{\underset{\left|\right|}{\mathrm{C}}}-{\mathrm{OONO}}_2$

A small solid sphere of mass m is released
from a point A at a height h above the bottom
of a rough track as shown in the figure. If the
sphere rolls down the track without slipping,
its rotational kinetic energy when it comes to
the bottom of track is

1. mgh
2. $\frac{10}{7}\mathrm{mgh}$
3. $\frac{5}{7}\mathrm{mgh}$
4. $\frac{2}{7}\mathrm{mgh}$

A solid sphere of mass M and radius R cannot
have moment of inertia
1. $\frac{2}{3}{\mathrm{MR}}^2$
2. $\frac{1}{2}{\mathrm{MR}}^2$
3. $\frac{2}{5}{\mathrm{MR}}^2$
4. $\frac{2}{7}{\mathrm{MR}}^2$

The angular displacement($\mathrm{\theta }$) of the blades of
a ceiling fan, when the fan is switched on at
t = 0, is shown in figure. The average angular
velocity of the fan blades during the first 8
seconds will be

1. 40$\mathrm{\pi }$ rad/s
2. 20$\mathrm{\pi }$ rad/s
3.10$\mathrm{\pi }$ rad/s
4. 5$\mathrm{\pi }$ rad/s

A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with
angular speed $\mathrm{\omega }$ on a horizontal plane as
shown. The magnitude of angular momentum
of the disc about the origin O is-

1. $\frac{1}{2} {\mathrm{MR}}^2\mathrm{\omega }$
2. ${\mathrm{MR}}^2\mathrm{\omega }$
3. $\frac{3}{2}{\mathrm{MR}}^2\mathrm{\omega }$
4. $2{\mathrm{MR}}^2\mathrm{\omega }$

A mass m₁ moves with a large velocity. It
strikes another mass m₂ at rest in a head-on 
elastic collision. It comes back along its path with
lesser speed after collision. Then :
1. m₁ > m₂
2. m₁ < m₂
3. m₁ = m₂
4. There is no relation between m₁ and m₂.

Six identical balls are lined up along a straight
frictionless groove. Two similar balls moving
with speed v along the groove collide
elastically with this row on extreme left side
end. Then :
1. One ball from the right end will move on
with speed 2v, all the other remains at rest.
2. Two balls from the extreme right will move
on with speed v each and the remaining
balls will be at rest.
3. All the balls will start moving to right with
speed v/8 each.
4. All the six balls originally at rest will move
on with speed v/6 each and the two
incident balls will come to rest.

In the figure shown X and Y components of
acceleration of center of mass are [All surfaces
are smooth]

1. ${\left({\mathrm{a}}_{\mathrm{cm}}\right)}_{\mathrm{x}}=\frac{{\mathrm{m}}_1{\mathrm{m}}_2}{{\mathrm{m}}_1+{\mathrm{m}}_2}\mathrm{g}$
2. ${\left({\mathrm{a}}_{\mathrm{cm}}\right)}_{\mathrm{x}}=\frac{{\mathrm{m}}_1{\mathrm{m}}_2 \mathrm{g}}{{\left({\mathrm{m}}_1+{\mathrm{m}}_2\right)}^2}$
3. ${\left({\mathrm{a}}_{\mathrm{CM}}\right)}_{\mathrm{y}}={\left(\frac{{\mathrm{m}}_2}{{\mathrm{m}}_1+{\mathrm{m}}_2}\right)}^2\mathrm{g}$
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct

A bullet of mass a and velocity b is fired into
a large block of wood of mass c. The final
velocity of the system is-
1. $\frac{\mathrm{cb}}{\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{b}}$
2. $\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{c}}\left(\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{b}\right)$
3. $\frac{\mathrm{ab}}{\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{c}}$
4. $\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{a}}\left(\mathrm{a}+\mathrm{c}\right)$

Two skaters A and B of masses 50kg and 70kg
respectively stand facing each other 6m apart.
Then they pull on a rope stretched between
them. How far has each moved when they
meet ?
1. Both 3m
2. A moves 2.5m and B, 3.5m
3. A moves 3.5m and B, 2.5m
4. A moves 2m and B, 4m

A wheel of radius R rolls without slipping on the ground with a uniform velocity v. The relative acceleration of the topmost point of the wheel with respect to the bottommost point is:
 
1. $\frac{{\mathrm{v}}^2}{\mathrm{R}}$
2. $\frac{2{\mathrm{v}}^2}{\mathrm{R}}$
3. $\frac{{\mathrm{v}}^2}{2\mathrm{R}}$
4. $\frac{4{\mathrm{v}}^2}{\mathrm{R}}$

A projectile is moving at 60 m/s at its highest
point, where it breaks into two equal parts due
to an internal explosion. One part moves
vertically up at 50 m/s with respect to the
ground. The other part will move at-
1. 110 m/s
2. 120 m/s
3. 130 m/s
4. $10\sqrt{61}$ m/s

Four rods of equal lengths AB, BC, CD and
DA have mass m, 2m, 3m and 5m respectively
are placed in x-y plane (see figure) given
AB = BC = CD = DA = 4 meters. The centre
of mass of the system  satisfies (x and y are
in meters)

1. x>4 ,y>4 
2. x<4, y<4
3. x=0, y>2 
4. x>2, y=0

Five uniform circular plates, each of diameter \(D\) and mass \(m,\) are laid out in a pattern shown. Using the origin shown, the \(y\text-\text{coordinate}\) of the centre of mass of the ''five–plate'' system will be:

A body of mass of 4 kg is acted upon by a force that varies as shown in the graph below.
The momentum acquired is:

1. 280 N–s 
2. 140 N–s
3. 70 N–s 
4. 210 N–s

Statement-1 : A solid sphere and a hollow
sphere when allowed to roll down on an
inclined plane, the solid sphere reaches the
bottom first.
and
Statement-2 : Moment of inertia of solid
sphere is greater than that of hollow sphere.
1. Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
2. Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
3. Statement-1 is ture, statement-2 true;
statement-2 is the correct explanation of
statement-1
4. Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true;
statement -2 is not correct explanation of
statement-1.

A \(5\) kg stationary bomb explodes in three parts with masses in the ratio \(1:1:3\) respectively. If parts having the same mass move in perpendicular directions with velocity \(30\) m/s, then the speed of the bigger part will be:

A man weighing 80 kg is standing on a trolley
weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on
frictionless horizontal rails. If the man starts
walking on the trolley at speed 1 m/s with
respect to trolley, then after 4 sec his
displacement relative to the ground will be -
1. 5 m 
2. 4.8 m
3. 3.2 m 
4. 3.0 m

A bullet of mass 0.01 kg, travelling at a speed
of 500 m/s, strikes a block of mass 2 kg,
which is suspended by a string of length 5
m, and emerges out. The block rises by a
vertical distance of 0.1 m. The speed of the
bullet after it emerges from the block is
approximately equal to -
1. 55 m/s 
2. 110 m/s
3. 220 m/s 
4. 440 m/s

A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides
inelastically with another identical mass. After
collision, the first mass moves with velocity
$\mathrm{v}/\sqrt{3}$ in a direction perpendicular to the
initial direction of motion. Find the speed of
the 2nd mass after collision.

1. $\frac{2\mathrm{v}}{\sqrt{3}}$
2. $\frac{\mathrm{v}}{\sqrt{3}}$
3. v
4. $\sqrt{3}\mathrm{v}$

A block of mass \(4~\text{kg}\) hangs from a spring of spring constant \(k = 400~\text{N/m}\). The block is pulled down through \(15~\text{cm}\) below the equilibrium position and released. What is its kinetic energy when the block is \(10~\text{cm}\) below the equilibrium position? [Ignore gravity]
1. \(5~\text{J}\)
2. \(2.5~\text{J}\)
3. \(1~\text{J}\)
4. \(1.9~\text{J}\)

A metre stick is swinging in vertical plane about a  horizontal axis passing through its one end , undergoes small oscillation of frequency f₀. If the bottom half of the stick were cut off, then its new frequency of small oscillation would become -

1. ${\mathrm{f}}_0$
2. $\sqrt{2}{\mathrm{f}}_0$
3. $2{\mathrm{f}}_0$
4. $2\sqrt{2}{\mathrm{f}}_0$
 

Two springs, of force constants k₁ and k₂ are connected to a mass m as shown in the figure. The frequency of oscillation of the mass is f. If both k₁ and k₂ are made four times their original values, the frequency of oscillation will become:
        

A travelling wave in a stretched string is described by the equation $\mathrm{y}=\mathrm{Asin}\left(\mathrm{kx}-\mathrm{\omega t}\right)$. The maximum particle velocity is:
1. $\mathrm{A\omega }$
2. $\mathrm{\omega }/\mathrm{k}$
3. $\mathrm{d\omega }/\mathrm{dk}$
4. x/t

Two pulses in a stretched string whose centers are initially 8 cm apart are moving towards each other as shown in the figure. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm/s. After 2 seconds , the total energy of the pulses will be 

1. zero
2. purely kinetic
3. purely potential
4. partly kinetic and partly potential

A particle is executing SHM according to \(y = a \cos\omega t.\) Then, which of the following graphs represent variations of potential energy?
             
1. I and III
2. II and IV
3. II and III
4. I and IV

In which of the following case frequency of
spring-block system will be same as $\frac{1}{2\mathrm{\pi }}\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{K}}{\mathrm{m}}}$
1. if placed on accelerated elevator
2. if dipped in non-viscous liquid completely
3. both (1) and (2)
4. Neither (1) nor (2)

A particle is performing simple harmonic
motion.
(i) its velocity–displacement graph is
parabolic in nature
(ii) its velocity–time graph is sinusoidal in
nature
(iii) its velocity–acceleration graph is elliptical
in nature
CORRECT answer is
1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (ii) 
4. (i) and (iii).

A simple pendulum of mass \(m\) swings about point \(B\) between extreme positions \(A\) and \(C\). Net force acting on the bob at these three points is correctly shown by:

1.		2.
3.		4.

A triangular transverse wave is propagating in the positive \(x\text-\)direction. The velocity of \(P\) at this instant will be:

1. vertically upward.
2. vertically downward.
3. at rest.
4. cannot be determined.

A plane wave is described by the equation
$\mathrm{y}=3 \cos \left(\frac{\mathrm{x}}{4}-10\mathrm{t}-\frac{\mathrm{\pi }}{2}\right)$. The maximum velocity of the particles of the medium due to this wave is
1. 30
2. $\frac{3\mathrm{\pi }}{2}$
3. 3/4
4. 40

A string of length \(3\) m and a linear mass density of \(0.0025\) kg/m is fixed at both ends. One of its resonance frequencies is \(252\) Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is \(336\) Hz. Then the fundamental frequency will be:
1. \(84~\text{Hz}\)
2. \(63~\text{Hz}\)
3. \(126~\text{Hz}\)
4. \(168~\text{Hz}\)

Statement–1 : Velocity of sound waves does
not change appreciably as the waves
propagate upwards from surface of Earth [for
a small distance].
and
Statement–2 : Density and pressure decrease
but as long as the temperature remains constant
the velocity of sound remains unchanged.
1. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1
2. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1
3. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
4. Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Statement–1 : In the case of a stationary wave,
a person hear a loud sound at the pressure nodes
as compared to the antinodes.
and
Statement–2 : In a stationary wave all the
particles of the medium vibrate in phase.
1. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1
2. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1
3. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
4. Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

The displacement of an object attached to a spring and executing simple harmonic is given by $\mathrm{x}=2\times {10}^{-2} \mathrm{cos\pi t}$ metre. The time at which the maximum speed first occurs is-
1. 0.25 s
2. 0.5 s
3. 0.75 s
4. 0.125 s

Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad sec^-1 have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio their maximum acceleration is -
1. $1:{10}^3$
2. $1:{10}^4$
3. 1:10
4. $1:{10}^2$

A spring when connected by mass m gives time period 'T'. If spring is cut in n equal parts and each part connected in parallel with same mass. New time-period will be
1. nT
2. T/n
3. $\mathrm{T}/\sqrt{\mathrm{n}}$
4. $\sqrt{\mathrm{n}}\mathrm{T}$

A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes S.H.M with amplitude A₁. When the mass M passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move together with amplitude A₂. The ratio of $\left(\frac{{\mathrm{A}}_1}{{\mathrm{A}}_2}\right)$ is :
1. $\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}$
2. $\frac{\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}$
3. ${\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}\right)}^{1/2}$
4. ${\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}+\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\right)}^{1/2}$

A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = -A and x = =A. The time taken for it go from 0 to A/2 is T₁ and to go from A/2 to A is T₂. Then- 
1. ${\mathrm{T}}_1<{\mathrm{T}}_2$
2. ${\mathrm{T}}_1>{\mathrm{T}}_2$
3. ${\mathrm{T}}_1={\mathrm{T}}_2$
4. ${\mathrm{T}}_1=2{\mathrm{T}}_2$

A block of mass m compresses a spring of stiffness k through a distance l/2 as shown in the figure. If the block is not fixed to the spring, the period of motion of the block is-

1. $2\mathrm{\pi }\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{k}}}$
2. $\left(\mathrm{\pi }+4\right)\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{k}}}$
3. $\left(1+\mathrm{\pi }\right)\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{k}}}$
4. None of these

The ends of a stretched wire of length L are fixed at x = 0 and x = L. In one experiment, the displacement of the wire is ${\mathrm{y}}_1=\mathrm{Asin\pi }\left(\mathrm{x}/\mathrm{L}\right) \mathrm{sin\omega t}$ and energy is ${\mathrm{E}}_1$ and in another experiment its displacement is ${\mathrm{y}}_2=\mathrm{Asin}\left(2\mathrm{\pi x}/\mathrm{L}\right) \sin 2\mathrm{\omega t}$ and energy is ${\mathrm{E}}_2$. Then-
1. ${\mathrm{E}}_2={\mathrm{E}}_1$
2. ${\mathrm{E}}_2=2{\mathrm{E}}_1$
3. ${\mathrm{E}}_2=4{\mathrm{E}}_1$
4. ${\mathrm{E}}_2=16 {\mathrm{E}}_1$

Statement–1 : For an oscillating simple
pendulum, the tension in the string is
maximum at the mean position and minimum
at the extreme position.
and
Statement–2 : The velocity of oscillating bob
in simple harmonic motion is maximum at the
mean position.
1. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1
2. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation
for Statement-1
3. Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
4. Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True