Custom Practice Test

Physics

1. In the $\mathrm{P\text-V}$ diagram, $\mathrm{I}$ is the initial state and $\mathrm{F}$ is the final state. The gas goes from $\mathrm{I}$ to $\mathrm{F}$ by; (i) $\mathrm{IAF}$ (ii) $\mathrm{IBF}$ (iii) $\mathrm{ICF}$
The heat absorbed by the gas is:

1.	the same in all three processes.
2.	the same in (i) and (ii).
3.	greater in (i) and (ii) than in (iii).
4.	the same in (i) and (iii).

2.

The ratio $C_P/C_V=1.5$ for a certain ideal gas. The gas is taken at an initial pressure of $2$ kPa and compressed suddenly to $\dfrac14$ of its initial volume. The final pressure is:
1. $\dfrac12$ kPa
2. $4$ kPa
3. $8$ kPa
4. $16$ kPa

3. The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by $C_P$ and $C_V,$ respectively. If $\gamma =\frac{C_P}{C_V}$ and $R$ is the universal gas constant, then $C_V$ is equal to:

1.	$\dfrac{R}{\gamma -1}$	2.	$\dfrac{\gamma -1}{R}$
3.	$\gamma R $	4.	$\dfrac{\left ( \gamma -1 \right )R}{\left ( \gamma +1 \right )}$

4. An ideal gas is taken from state $A$ to state $B$ along two different paths:

(i)	the direct isothermal path $AB.$
(ii)	the path $ACB,$ where $AC$ is isochoric and $CB$ is isobaric.

These paths are shown on the standard $P\text-V$ indicator diagram. The temperature at $C$ is $300~\text K.$

The volume of the gas at $B$ is $V_1,$ where,
1. $V_1=2V_0$
2. $V_1=4V_0$
3. $V_1=V_0\ln2$
4. $V_1=\Large\frac{V_0}{\ln2}$

5. An ideal gas is taken from $A$ to $C$ through the process $ABC$ and independently, from $A$ to $C$ through the process $ADC$ – as shown on the indicator $(P\text -V)$ diagram. The work done in $ABC$ is $W_1$ and in $ADC$ is $W_2;$ the change in internal energy is $\Delta U_1$ for process $ABC,$ $\Delta U_2$ for process $ADC.$

The relationship between $W_1$ and $W_2$ is:

1.	$W_1=W_2$	2.	$W_1=3W_2$
3.	$W_1=6W_2$	4.	$W_2=2W_1$

6.

An ideal monoatomic gas at a temperature of $300\text{ K}$ and a pressure of $10\text{ atm}$ is suddenly allowed to expand into vacuum so that its volume is doubled. No exchange of heat is allowed to take place between the gas and its surroundings during the process. After equilibrium is reached, the final temperature is:

1.	$300\text{ K}$	2.	$\dfrac{300}{2^{5/3}}\text{ K}$
3.	$\dfrac{300}{2^{2/3}}\text{ K}$	4.	$600\text{ K}$

7. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of $\frac{C_P}{C_V}$ for the gas is:
1. $2$
2. $5/3$
3. $3/2$
4. $4/3$

8. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle $ABCD$ as shown in the figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the cycle is:

1.	$2 {PV}$	2.	$4{PV}$
3.	$\dfrac{1}{2}{PV}$	4.	$PV$

9. An ideal gas forms the working substance of a Carnot engine, and is taken around the Carnot cycle. We form the integral: $I=\int\dfrac{dQ}{T},$
where $dQ$ is the heat supplied to the gas and $T$ is the temperature of the gas. The integral is evaluated over the entire cycle. The value of the integral $I$ is:

1.	zero
2.	negative
3.	positive
4.	non-negative(positive or zero)

10. In which of the following processes does the internal energy of a gas remain constant?
1. Isothermal
2. Isochoric
3. Isobaric
4. Adiabatic

11. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	It is not possible for a system, unaided by an external agency to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to another at a higher temperature.
Reason (R):	It is not possible to violate the second law of thermodynamics.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

12. A Carnot cycle consists of:

1.	two stages	2.	four stages
3.	six stages	4.	eight stages

13. The mechanical equivalent of heat, $J,$ has the value:

1.	$J=1~\text{joule/calorie}$	2.	$J=4.2~\text{joule/calorie}$
3.	$J=4.2~\text{calorie/joule}$	4.	$J=4200~\text{calorie/joule}$

14. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	The isothermal curves intersect each other at a certain point.
Reason (R):	The isothermal changes, take place rapidly, so the isothermal curves have very little slope.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

15. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken around the cyclic process $ABCD.$ The temperature at $A$ is $300~\text K.$

The work done by the gas during the process is just the area enclosed on the $P\text-V$ diagram. This equals: ($R\text:$ universal gas constant in S.I.)
1. $600R$
2. $300R$
3. $150R$
4. zero

16. A gas with a fixed number of molecules does $32~\text J$ of work on its surroundings, and $16~\text J$ of heat are transferred from the gas to the surroundings. What happens to the internal energy of the gas?
1. It decreases by $48~\text J.$
2. It decreases by $16~\text J.$
3. It increases by $16~\text J.$
4. It increases by $48~\text J.$

17.

An ideal gas goes from state $A$ to state $B$ via three different processes as indicated in the $(P\text-V)$ diagram.

If $Q_1,Q_2,Q_3$ indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and $\Delta U_1, \Delta U_2, \Delta U_3$ indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then:

1.	$Q_3>Q_2>Q_1$ and $\Delta U_1= \Delta U_2= \Delta U_3$
2.	$Q_1=Q_2=Q_3$ and $\Delta U_1> \Delta U_2> \Delta U_3$
3.	$Q_3>Q_2>Q_1$ and $\Delta U_1> \Delta U_2> \Delta U_3$
4.	$Q_1>Q_2>Q_3$ and $\Delta U_1= \Delta U_2= \Delta U_3$

18. A diatomic gas ($\gamma= 1.4$) does $400$ J of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas in the process is:
1. $1000$ J
2. $1200$ J
3. $1400$ J
4. $1600$ J

19. A gas is taken through the cycle $A\rightarrow B\rightarrow C\rightarrow A,$ as shown in the figure. What is the total amount of work done by the gas?

1.	$1000~\text{J}$	2.	zero
3.	$-2000~\text{J}$	4.	$2000~\text{J}$

20. The pressure versus temperature graph for two moles of Neon gas is shown in the figure. The ratio of the heat absorbed to the change in internal energy of the gas in this process $(1\text-2)$ is:

1.	$1$	2.	$\dfrac{3}{5}$
3.	$\dfrac{5}{3}$	4.	$\dfrac{3}{2}$

21.

The volume $(V)$ of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature $(T),$ as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas to the heat absorbed by it when it undergoes a change from state $A$ to state $B$ will be:

1.	$\dfrac{2}{5}$	2.	$\dfrac{2}{3}$
3.	$\dfrac{1}{3}$	4.	$\dfrac{2}{7}$

22.

An ideal gas is taken reversibly around the cycle $a\text-b\text-c\text-d\text-a$ as shown on the temperature $(T)$ - entropy $(S)$ diagram.

The most appropriate representation of the above cycle on an internal energy $(U)$ - volume $(V)$ diagram is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

23. Which one of the statements is not true for an isothermal process:

1.	The temperature of the system is kept constant.
2.	In an isothermal process, $PV=\text{constant},$ where $P$ is the pressure and $V$ the volume of the gas.
3.	There is no change in the internal energy of an ideal gas.
4.	The internal energy of an ideal gas changes in an isothermal process.

24. Physical quantities associated with an ideal gas undergoing a process are indicated in Column-I while their values are given in a different order in Column-II. Match them. $R$ is the universal gas constant.

Column-I		Column-II
(A)	Molar specific heat of a monatomic gas in an isobaric process (as a multiple of $R$)	(I)	$1$
(B)	Molar specific heat of a diatomic gas in an isochoric process (as a multiple of $R$)	(II)	$\dfrac32$
(C)	Bulk modulus of elasticity as a multiple of pressure for a monatomic gas undergoing an adiabatic process	(III)	$\dfrac53$
(D)	Bulk modulus of elasticity as a multiple of pressure for a diatomic gas undergoing an isothermal process	(IV)	$\dfrac52$

1.	A-IV, B-IV, C-III, D-I
2.	A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3.	A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
4.	A-II, B-II, C-I, D-III

25. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The efficiency of any thermodynamic engine can approach $100\%$ if friction and all dissipative processes are reduced.
Statement II:	The first law of thermodynamics is applicable only to non-living systems.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

26. Select the correct option based on statements below.
A Carnot engine works between two thermal reservoirs maintained at absolute temperatures $T_{\text{high}}$ and $T_{\text{low}}$.

Assertion (A):	If the efficiency of the engine is $\frac1n,$ then the coefficient of performance of the reversed cycle working as a refrigerator is $n-1$.
Reason (R):	The efficiency of Carnot's cycle is $1-\frac{T_{\text{low}}}{T_{\text{high}}},$ while the coefficient of performance of the reversed cycle is $\frac{T_{\text{low}}}{T_{\text{high}~-~T_{\text{low}}}}$.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

27. When the amount of heat supplied to a gas in a system is equal to $1000$ J, the system in return does $200$ J of work on the surrounding. What would be the change in the internal energy of the gas?
1. $800$ J
2. $1200$ J
3. $1000$ J
4. $1100$ J

28. A gas is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of heat supplied used for external work is:

1.	$\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}$	2.	$\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}}\right)$
3.	${\gamma}{-}{1}$	4.	$\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{{\gamma}}^{2}}}\right)$

29. A gas with ${\Large\frac{C_P}{C_V}}=\gamma $ goes from an initial state $(P_1,V_1,T_1)$ to a final state $(P_2,V_2,T_2)$ through an adiabatic process. The work done by the gas is:

(A)	$\Large\frac{nR(T_1-T_2)}{\gamma-1}$	(B)	$\Large\frac{P_1V_1-P_2V_2}{\gamma-1}$
(C)	$\Large\frac{P_1V_1+P_2V_2}{\gamma+1}$	(D)	$n\gamma R(T_1-T_2)$

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1.	(A), (B) and (C)
2.	(A) and (B) only
3.	(C) and (D) only
4.	(B), (C) and (D) only

30. $(P\text-V)$ diagram of an ideal gas is shown in the figure. Work done by the gas in the process $ABCD$ is:

1. $4P_0V_0$
2. $2P_0V_0$
3. $3P_0V_0$
4. $P_0V_0$

31.

$n$ moles of a perfect gas undergoes a cyclic process $ABCA$ (see figure) consisting of the following processes.

I.	$A\rightarrow B:$ Isothermal expansion at temperature $T$ so that the volume is doubled from $V_1$ to $V_2=2V_1$ and pressure changes from $P_1$ to $P_2$.
II.	$B\rightarrow C:$ Isobaric compression at pressure $P_2$ to initial volume $V_1$.
III.	$C\rightarrow A:$ Isochoric change leading to the change of pressure from $P_2$ to $P_1.$

The work done in the isothermal process is:

1. $0$
2. $nRT\left(\ln2+\frac{1}{2}\right)$
3. $nRT\ln2$
4. $nRT\left(\ln2-\frac{1}{2}\right)$

32. The molar specific heat (at constant volume) of a monoatomic ideal gas is $C_v={\Large\frac32}R$ while that of a diatomic ideal gas is $C_v={\Large\frac52}R,$ where $R$ is the universal gas constant. The molar specific heat (at constant pressure) of an equimolar mixture of the two will be:

1.	$\dfrac{1}{2}\left ( \dfrac{3}{2}R+\dfrac{5}{2}R \right )$	2.	$\left(\dfrac23+\dfrac25\right)^{-1}R$
3.	$3R$	4.	$\dfrac{8}{15}R$

33. The heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in the figure is:

1.	${10}^{3}\mathit{\pi}$ J	2.	${10}^{2}\mathit{\pi}$ J
3.	${10}^{4}\mathit{\pi}$ J	4.	${10}^{7}\mathit{\pi}$ J

34.

One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state $A$ to the final state $B$ with two processes. It first undergoes isothermal expansion from volume $V$ to $3V$ and then its volume is reduced from $3V$ to $V$ at constant pressure. The correct $(P-V)$ diagram representing the two processes is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

35.

Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram:

Match the following:

Column-I		Column-II
$\mathrm{(P)}$	Process I	$\mathrm{(a)}$	Adiabatic
$\mathrm{(Q)}$	Process II	$\mathrm{(b)}$	Isobaric
$\mathrm{(R)}$	Process III	$\mathrm{(c)}$	Isochoric
$\mathrm{(S)}$	Process IV	$\mathrm{(d)}$	Isothermal

1.	$\mathrm{P → c, Q → a, R → d, S→ b}$
2.	$\mathrm{P→ c, Q → d, R → b, S → a}$
3.	$\mathrm{P → d, Q → b, R → b, S → c}$
4.	$\mathrm{P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b}$

36. $600~\text{J}$ of heat is added to a monoatomic gas in a process in which the gas performs a work of $150~\text{J}$. The molar heat capacity for the process is:
1. $3R$
2. $4R$
3. $2R$
4. $6R$

37. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Internal energy of an ideal gas does not change when it is taken through a cyclic process.
Reason (R):	Internal energy is a state function, and when the gas returns to the same state – it attains the same value independent of the process.

Choose the correct option from the given ones:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

38. An ideal monatomic gas and a diatomic gas, both undergo adiabatic expansion starting from the same point on the $P$-$V$ (indicator) diagram. The gases also undergo isothermal expansion. The curves are given by $a,b,c.$ Which of the following is correct?

1.	$a$–isothermal, $b$–monatomic adiabatic, $c$–diatomic adiabatic
2.	$a$–monatomic adiabatic, $b$–diatomic adiabatic, $c$–isothermal
3.	$a$–diatomic adiabatic, $b$–monatomic adiabatic, $c$–isothermal
4.	$a$–isothermal, $b$–diatomic adiabatic, $c$–monatomic adiabatic

39. Two gases having molar specific heats $C_{P_{\large1}}$ & $C_{P_{\large2}}$ are mixed in the molar ratio $1:1.$ The molar specific heat of the mixture will be $C_{P},$ where $C_{P}=$

1.	$\dfrac{C_{P_{\large1}}+C_{P_{\large2}}}{2}$	2.	$\dfrac{C^2_{P_{\large1}}+C^2_{P_{\large2}}}{C_{P_{\large1}}+C_{P_{\large2}}}$
3.	$\sqrt{C_{P_{\large1}}\ C_{P_{\large2}}}$	4.	$\dfrac{2C_{P_{\large1}} C_{P_{\large2}}}{C_{P_{\large1}}+C_{P_{\large2}}}$

40. A gas is compressed adiabatically. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Internal energy is constant
2.	Temperature increases
3.	\|Work done\| = \|change in internal energy\|
4.	Heat is not supplied to the system

41.

A closed vessel contains $0.1$ mole of a monatomic ideal gas at $200~\text{K}$. If $0.05$ mole of the same gas at $500~\text{K}$ is added to it, the final equilibrium temperature (in $\text{K}$) of the gas in the vessel is:
1. $100~\text{K}$
2. $200~\text{K}$
3. $300~\text{K}$
4. $400~\text{K}$

42. The internal energy of a gas is given by $U=\dfrac32PV.$ The gas expands in such a way that its internal energy (initially $U_0$) remains constant throughout the process, but its volume changes from $V_0$ to $2V_0.$ The heat supplied to the gas equals:

1.	$U_0\mathrm{ln}(2)$	2.	$\dfrac12U_0~\mathrm{ln}(2)$
3.	$\dfrac13U_0~\mathrm{ln}(2)$	4.	$\dfrac23U_0~\mathrm{ln}(2)$

43. For the given cycle, the work done during the isobaric process is:

1.	$200$ J	2.	zero
3.	$400$ J	4.	$600$ J

44. The figure shows two processes, $a$ and $b,$ for a given sample of gas. Let $\Delta Q_1,~ \Delta Q_2$ represent the amount of heat absorbed by the system in the two cases, and $\Delta U_1,~ \Delta U_2$ represent the changes in internal energy in the respective cases.

Based on this information, which of the following is true?

1.	$\Delta Q_1= \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2$
2.	$\Delta Q_1> \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 > \Delta U_2$
3.	$\Delta Q_1< \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 < \Delta U_2$
4.	$\Delta Q_1> \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2$

45. The $P\text-V$ diagram of $2~\text{g}$ of helium gas for a certain process $A\rightarrow B$ is shown in the figure. What is the heat given to the gas during the process $A \rightarrow B$?

1.	$4P_0V_0$	2.	$6P_0V_0$
3.	$4.5P_0V_0$	4.	$2P_0V_0$

Chemistry

46. The first ionization enthalpies of elements X and Y are 419 kJ mol^–1 and 590 kJ mol^–1, respectively and the second ionization enthalpies of X and Y are 3069 kJ mol^–1 and 1145 kJ mol^–1, respectively. The correct statement is:

1.	X is an alkali metal and Y is an alkaline earth metal.
2.	X is an alkaline earth metal and Y is an alkali metal.
3.	Both X and Y are alkali metals.
4.	Both X and Y are alkaline earth metals.

47.

An element R forms an oxide with the formula R₂O₅, where R shows its highest oxidation number. To which group does the element R belong in the periodic table?
1. Group 14
2. Group 15
3. Group 16
4. Group 17

48.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the element Unununium?
1. It is an inner transition element.
2. It belongs to the 8th period in the periodic table.
3. It is a transition element.
4. It is a non-transition element.

49. The incorrect electronic configuration among the following is/are :
A. $\mathrm{K}=[\mathrm{Ar}] 4 s^1$
B. $\mathrm{Pd}=[\mathrm{Kr}] 4d^8, 5 s^2$
C. $\mathrm{Cr}=[\mathrm{Ar}] 3 d^4, 4 s^1$
D. $\mathrm{Cu}=[\mathrm{Ar}] 3 d^{10}, 4 s^1 $
1. C and D only
2. B and C only
3. A and D only
4. B, C, and D only

50.

Match the elements given in List-I with the atomic radius given in List-II the correct atomic radius with the corresponding element.

	List-I Element		List-II Atomic radius (pm)
A.	Be	i.	74
B.	C	ii.	85
C.	O	iii.	112
D.	B	iv.	77
E.	N	v.	66

Options:	A	B	C	D	E
1.	i	ii	iii	iv	v
2.	iii	iv	v	ii	i
3.	iv	ii	iii	i	v
4.	v	ii	i	iii	iv

51.

Which of the following species will be isoelectronic with each other?
(i) F^– (ii) Ar (iii) Mg²⁺ (iv) Rb⁺
1. i and ii
2. i and iv
3. i and iii
4. ii and iv

52.

Assertion (A):	Na⁺and Al³⁺are isoelectronic but the magnitude of ionic radius of Al³⁺ is less than that of Na⁺.
Reason (R):	The magnitude of effective nuclear charge of the outer shell electrons in Al³⁺ is greater than that in Na⁺.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True and (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

53. Based on the successive ionization energies of element X shown in the table below, which of the following is most likely the formula of the compound produced when element X reacts with fluorine?

	Ionization Energy
First	786
Second	1,577
Third	3,232
Fourth	4,356
Fifth	16,091

1. $\mathrm{XF}$
2. $\mathrm{XF}_2$
3. $\mathrm{XF}_4$
4. $\mathrm{XF}_5$

54.

The pair of elements where the addition of a second electron to each atom is endothermic is:
1. N, Ne
2. Be, F
3. B, C
4. All of the above

55.

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(i)	Generally the radius trend and the ionization energy trend across a period are exact opposites.
(ii)	Electron affinity values of elements may be exothermic (negative) or endothermic (positive).
(iii)	The first ionization energy of sulphur is higher than that of phosphorus.
(iv)	$Te^{2-} > I^- > Cs^+ > Ba^{2+}$ represents the correct decreasing order of ionic radii.

1. (i), (iii) and (iv)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

56. Given below are two statements.

Statement I:	Total metals comprise more than seventy-eight percent of the known elements in the modern periodic table.
Statement II:	Total non-metals comprise less than twenty in number in the modern periodic table.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

57. Which of the following could be the electronic configuration of an excited oxygen atom?

1.	1s²2s²2p⁴	2.	1s²2s²2p⁵
3.	1s²2s²2p³3s¹	4.	1s²2s²2p⁴3s¹

58. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is more than that of sulphur.
Reason (R):	Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

59. If the ionic radii of K⁺and F^- are nearly the same (i.e., 1.34 Å), what are the atomic radii of K and F respectively?

1.	1.34 $\overset{o}{A}$ , 1.34 $\overset{o}{A}$	2.	0.72 $\overset{o}{A}$ , 1.96 $\overset{o}{A}$
3.	1.96 $\overset{o}{A}$ , 0.72 $\overset{o}{A}$	4.	1.96 $\overset{o}{A}$ , 1.34 $\overset{o}{A}$

60. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The first ionization enthalpy of aluminum is lower than that of magnesium.
Reason (R):	Ionic radius of aluminum cation ($\mathrm{Al}^{3+}$) is smaller than that of magnesium cation ($\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}$).

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

61. The correct arrangement among the following, in order of increasing size, is:
1. N< O< F
2. Na< Mg< K
3. Cr< Cr²⁺ <Cr³⁺
4. Cl< Cl^- <S^2-

62.

The ionisation energy will be maximum for the process:
1. $B a \to B a^{2 +}$
2. $B e \to B e^{2 +}$
3. $C s \to C s^{+}$
4. $L i \to L i^{+}$

63. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the given four element is:

1.	C < N < F < O	2.	C < N < O < F
3.	C < O < N < F	4.	C < F < N < O

64.

According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their:
1. Atomic masses
2. Nuclear mass
3. Atomic numbers
4. Nuclear neutron-proton number ratio

65.

The term(s), that does not have a unit among the following, is/are:
(a) Electronegativity
(b) Electron gain enthalpy
(c) Ionization enthalpy
(d) Metallic character
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) and (d)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (d)

66. Which species among the following has the largest ionic radius?
1. $S^{2-}$
2. $Cl^-$
3. $K^+ $
4. $Ca^{2+}$

67.

Identify the pair of elements with similar electronegativity from the options given below:

1.	B and C	2.	B and Al
3.	B and Si	4.	Al and C

68.

Which of the following species exhibits the highest electron affinity?
1. F^–
2. O^–
3. O
4. Na

69. The element 'Re' belongs to which group and period, respectively?
1. 7 and 6
2. 7 and 7
3. 6 and 7
4. 6 and 6

70.

Three elements X, Y, and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y, and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric, and acidic.
What is the correct order of the atomic numbers for X, Y, and Z?
1. Z < Y < X
2. X < Z < Y
3. X < Y < Z
4. Y < X < Z

71.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	All transition elements are d-block elements.
Reason (R):	Zn, Cd, and Hg are d-block elements but not transition elements.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

72.

To which group does the element named ununtrium (Uut) belong according to the IUPAC naming convention?

1.	s-block element	2.	p-block element
3.	d-block element	4.	Actinoids

73. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
1. Basic oxides - $\mathrm{In_2O_3 , K_2O , SnO_2}$
2. Neutral oxides - $\mathrm{CO, NO_2, N_2O}$
3. Acidic oxides - $\mathrm{Mn_2O_7, SO_2, TeO_3}$
4. Amphoteric oxides -$\mathrm{BeO , Ga_2O_3 , GeO }$

74. Which of the following has the highest electronegativity?

1.	Carbon	2.	Oxygen
3.	Boron	4.	Fluorine

75. In which of the following is the order is not in accordance with the property mentioned?

1.	Li < Na < K < Rb	Atomic radius
2.	F > N > O > C	Ionisation enthalpy
3.	Si < P < S < Cl	Electronegativity
4.	F < Cl < Br < I	Electronegativity

76. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P , S and F (lowest first) is:
1. F < S < P < B
2. P < S < B < F
3. B < P < S < F
4. B < S < P < F

77.

For the second-period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

1.	Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
2.	Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
3.	Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
4.	Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne

78. Which of the following groups has the species correctly listed in the order of decreasing radius?
1. $\mathrm{Cu}^{2+}, \mathrm{Cu}^{+}, \mathrm{Cu}$
2. $\mathrm{V}, \mathrm{V}^{2+}, \mathrm{V}^{3+}$
3. $\mathrm{F}^{-}, \mathrm{Br}^{-}, \mathrm{I}^{-}$
4.$\text { B, Be, Li }$

79. Calcium reacts with element X to form an ionic compound. If the ground-state electron configuration
of X is $1 s^2 2 s^2 2 p^4,$ what is the simplest formula for this compound?

1.	$\mathrm{CaX}$	2.	$\mathrm{CaX}_2 $
3.	$\mathrm{Ca}_4 X_2$	4.	$\mathrm{Ca}_2 \mathrm{X}_2$

80. Which of the following arrangements is correct for increasing order of electronegativity?

1.	Si < C < O < N < F	2.	O < F < N < C < Si
3.	F < O < N < C < Si	4.	Si < C < N < O < F

81. Which list presents the elements in the order of increasing first ionization energy?
1. Ca < Si < P < N
2. N < P < Si < Ca
3. Ca < N < P < Si
4. N < Si < P < Ca

82.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the electron affinity trend among halogens?

1.	Br > F	2.	F > Cl
3.	Br > Cl	4.	F > I

83. Which of the following element sets correctly shows elements arranged from lowest metallic character to highest metallic character?
1. Si, P, S
2. As, P, N
3. Al, Ge, Sb
4. Br, Se, As

84. Arrange the elements Li, Be, B, C, and N in increasing order of their first ionization enthalpies:

1.	Li < B < Be < C < N	2.	Li < Be < C < B < N
3.	Li < Be < N < B < C	4.	Li < Be < B < C < N

85.

Match the atomic numbers in List I with the corresponding groups in List II:

	List-I (Atomic number)		List-II (Group)
i.	52	P.	s
ii.	37	Q.	p
iii.	65	R.	f
iv.	74	S.	d

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (i)-Q, (ii)-P, (iii)-R, (iv)-S
2. (i)-Q, (ii)-P, (iii)-S, (iv)-R
3. (i)-S, (ii)-R, (iii)-P, (iv)-Q
4. (i)-R, (ii)-P, (iii)-Q, (iv)-S

86.

Match the elements in Column I with their corresponding types in Column II.

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Copper	(i)	Non-metal
(b)	Fluorine	(ii)	Transition metal
(c)	Silicon	(iii)	Lanthanoid
(d)	Cerium	(iv)	Metalloid

Identify the correct match:
1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

87. The correct order of first ionisation potential of Be, B , C, N and O is:
1. O >N > C > B > Be
2. N >O > C > B > Be
3. N > O > C > Be > B
4. O >N > C > Be > B

88. With the electronegativity values provided (H = 2.1, F = 4, Cl = 3.0, Br = 2.8, I = 2.3, N = 3.0), the correct order of decreasing electronegativity difference of the following compounds is:
1. $\mathrm{NCl}_3>\mathrm{HF}>\mathrm{HCl}>\mathrm{HBr}>\mathrm{HI}$
2. $\mathrm{HF}>\mathrm{HCl}>\mathrm{HBr}>\mathrm{HI}>\mathrm{NCl}_3$
3. $\mathrm{HI}>\mathrm{HBr}>\mathrm{HCl}>\mathrm{HF}>\mathrm{NCl}_3$
4. $\mathrm{HF}>\mathrm{HCl}>\mathrm{NCl}_3>\mathrm{HBr}>\mathrm{HI}$

89. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion(A):	The mobility of sodium ion is lower than that of potassium ion.
Reason(R):	Ionic mobilities depend on the effective radius of the ion.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

90.

Element which has the lowest ionisation potential among the following is:

1.	C	2.	Si
3.	Sn	4.	Pb

Biology

91. In Ctenophora:

a:	body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
b:	reproduction takes place only by asexual means.
c:	digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
d:	sexes are separate.

The correct statements are:

1.	a and c only	2.	b and d only
3.	a, b and c only	4.	a, b and d only

92. The photochemical phase of photosynthesis include:

A.	Oxygen release	B.	Formation of NADPH
C.	Use of ATP	D.	Water splitting
E.	Carboxylation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	C and E only	2.	A, B and D only
3.	B, C and E only	4.	A, B, C and D only

93. Match the following biological names with their common names:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Asterias	i.	Earthworm
B.	Pila	ii.	Starfish
C.	Periplaneta	iii.	Snail
D.	Pheretima	iv.	Cockroach

1. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
2. A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
3. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
4. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

94. Which animals amongst the following would be pseudocoelomates?
1. Nematodes
2. Cestodes
3. Hexapodes
4. Trematodes

95. The correct statements regarding cyclostomes will be:

(a)	All living members of the class Cyclostomata are endoparasites in mammals.
(b)	Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
(c)	Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
(d)	Cranium and vertebral column are bony.

1.	Only (a) and (b)
2.	Only (b) and (c)
3.	Only (a) and (d)
4.	Only (c) and (d)

96. The bundle sheath cells in Kranz anatomy arrangement:

1.	may form several layers around the vascular bundles
2.	are characterised by having only a few number of chloroplasts
3.	have thin walls freely permeable to gaseous exchange
4.	have large intercellular spaces.

97. ATP synthesis is linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane in:

I:	Mitochondria
II:	Chloroplasts

1.	Only I
2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II
4.	Neither I nor II

98. Match the following phyla with their characteristic features:

	Phylum (List I)		Characteristic Feature (List II)
A.	Chordata	1.	Spicules for support
B.	Porifera	2.	Notochord present at some stage
C.	Echinodermata	3.	Segmented body
D.	Annelida	4.	Radial symmetry and water vascular system

1. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

99. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The Z scheme of electron transport involves both Photosystem I and Photosystem II.
Statement II:	Non-cyclic photophosphorylation generates both ATP and NADPH.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

100. How many of the given statements are correct?

I.	Cartilaginous fishes have cycloid or ctenoid scales.
II.	An air bladder is present in bony fishes.
III.	Amphibians have three-chambered heart.
IV.	Reptiles have dermal scales.
V.	Birds are warm-blooded.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

101. What is necessary for the reduction of NADP⁺ to NADPH + H⁺?
1. Only electrons
2. Only protons
3. Electrons and protons
4. Water molecules

102. ATP in the Calvin cycle is used for:

I.	The conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate.
II.	The photolysis of water.
III.	The regeneration of RuBP.

1.	Only I and II
2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III
4.	I, II and III

103. Consider the given statements:

Statement I:	Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment involved in photosynthesis, which absorbs light in the blue and red regions of the spectrum.
Statement II:	Chlorophyll b and carotenoids function primarily as accessory pigments to extend the range of light absorption.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

104. In Obelia:

a:	both polyp and medusa forms exist during its life cycle
b:	metagenesis, a sort of alternation of generation, is seen
c:	polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae form the polyps sexually

1.	only a is correct	2.	only a and b are correct
3.	only c is correct	4.	a, b and c are correct

105. Consider the given two statements:

I:	PS I is so called because it was discovered before Photosystem II.
II:	Photosystem II is the first protein complex in the light-dependent reactions of oxygenic photosynthesis.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

106. Which group of animals belongs to the same phylum?
1. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm
2. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
3. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
4. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

107. Consider the following statements regarding roundworms:

Statement I:	Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
Statement II:	An excretory tube removes body wastes from the body cavity through the excretory pore.
Statement III:	They are dioecious and males are longer than females.

The incorrect statement is/are:

1.	Only Statement II
2.	Only Statement III
3.	Only Statement I and Statement II
4.	Only Statement II and Statement III

108. Why are the enzymatic reactions in the chloroplast stroma called "dark reactions"?

1.	They occur only in the absence of light.
2.	They are independent of the light-driven products of photosynthesis.
3.	They depend on ATP and NADPH formed during the light reactions.
4.	They require darkness to synthesize sugar.

109. What type of symmetry do adult echinoderms exhibit?
1. Bilateral symmetry
2. Radial symmetry
3. Asymmetry
4. Spherical symmetry

110. Consider the given two statements:

I:	Water splitting complex is associated with PSII in photosynthetic plants.
II:	Chlorophyll a reaction center in PSII is called as P680

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Neither I nor II

111.

The first step for initiation of photosynthesis will be:

1.	Photolysis of water
2.	Excitement of chlorophyll molecule due to absorption of light
3.	ATP formation
4.	Glucose formation

112. Ichthyophis is:
1. a flightless bird
2. a limbless amphibian
3. an egg laying mammal
4. an extinct reptile that was direct ancestor of mammals

113. The reducing power used in Calvin cycle for reduction of carbon dioxide is:

1.	NADH	2.	NADPH
3.	ATP	4.	Water

114. Identify the incorrect statement about photosynthesis in higher plants:
1. It occurs within the chloroplast.
2. Carbon dioxide is reduced.
3. Oxygen is released.
4. The hydrogen carrier is NAD.

115. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Protochordates are exclusively marine.
Statement II:	In Urochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail, while in Cephalochordata, it extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

116. Which of the following animals is not matched to its correct scientific name?

1.	Penguin: Aptenodytes	2.	Tortoise: Testudo
3.	Platypus: Macropus	4.	Angel fish: Pterophyllum

117. Which of the following is a critical difference between Ctenophora and Cnidaria?

1.	Ctenophores exhibit bioluminescence, while cnidarians do not.
2.	While cnidarian primarily use tentacles for movement, ctenophores have comb plates for locomotion.
3.	Ctenophores are diploblastic, while cnidarians are triploblastic.
4.	Cnidarian possess cnidocytes, while ctenophores do not.

118. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Metamerism appeared for the first time in annelida
2.	Arthropods have jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton
3.	Reptiles are endotherms
4.	Forelimbs of birds are modifies into wings

119. C₄ plants:

I:	have a special type of leaf anatomy
II:	tolerate higher temperatures
III:	lack a process called photorespiration

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

120. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

	Animal	Characteristic	Taxon
1.	Millipede	Ventral nerve cord	Arachnids
2.	Sea Anemone	Triploblastic	Cnidaria
3.	Silverfish	Pectoral and pelvic fins	Chordata
4.	Duckbilled platypus	Oviparous	Mammalian

121. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The swim bladder is an essential organ for bony fishes.
Reason (R):	It allows them to maintain buoyancy without expending energy.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

122. Select the option which shows the correct matching of animal with excretory organs and excretory product:

	Animal	Excretory organs	Excretory product
1.	Labeo (Rohu)	Nephridial tubes	Ammonia
2.	Salamander	Kidney	Urea
3.	Peacock	Kidney	Urea
4.	Housefly	Renal tubules	Uric acid

123. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Echinoderms are spiny skinned animals
Statement II:	They have an endoskeleton made of calcareous ossicles

1.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

124. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Only green plants can prepare their own food.
II:	In green plants, all cells, tissues and organs photosynthesise.

1.	Only I
2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II
4.	Neither I nor II

125. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion(A):	Muscle tissue is not seen in diploblastic animals.
Reason (R):	An undifferentiated layer, mesoglea, is present in between the ectoderm and endoderm in diploblastic animals.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	(A) is True; (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

126. Match the following:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Ascaris	P.	Filaria worm
B.	Wuchereria	Q.	Roundworm
C.	Ancylostoma	R.	Hookworm

Codes

	A	B	C
1.	R	Q	P
2.	R	P	Q
3.	Q	R	P
4.	Q	P	R

127. In order to assimilate one $\text {CO}_2$ molecule via photosynthesis, the green plants require:

1.	9 ATP and 6 NADPH molecules
2.	5 ATP and 3 NADPH molecules
3.	3 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules
4.	18 ATP and 12 NADPH molecules

128. What is the role of cyclic photophosphorylation in the Calvin cycle?

1.	To meet the ATP demand of the Calvin cycle
2.	To produce NADPH required for glucose formation
3.	To supply oxygen for the Calvin cycle
4.	To fix additional CO₂ molecules

129. What is the number of carbon atoms in a molecule of ribulose biphosphate?

1.	3	2.	4
3.	5	4.	2

130. Synthesis of ATP linked to development of a proton gradient across a membrane is:

1.	Mass flow hypothesis	2.	Wobble hypothesis
3.	Chemiosmotic hypothesis	4.	Rivet Popper hypothesis

131. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The light-harvesting complex is composed of chlorophyll and accessory pigments.
2.	The Z-scheme represents the flow of electrons from water to NADP+.
3.	Cyclic photophosphorylation produces both ATP and NADPH.
4.	Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves both Photosystem I and II.

132. C4 plants have a unique mechanism to minimize photorespiration. Which of the following cells in C4 plants contain the enzyme PEP carboxylase?
1. Mesophyll cells
2. Bundle sheath cells
3. Guard cells
4. Epidermal cells

133.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Phylum	Characteristic
1.	Porifera	Water vascular system
2.	Ctenophora	Bioluminescence
3.	Molluska	Radula
4.	Annelida	Closed circulatory system

134. Which phylum exhibits alternation of generations (metagenesis) between polyp and medusa forms?

1.	Porifera	2.	Platyhelminthes
3.	Ctenophora	4.	Cnidaria

135. Regarding the temperature optimum for photosynthesis of different plants:

I:	Tropical plants have a lower temperature optimum than the plants adapted to temperate climates.
II:	The C₄plants respond to higher temperatures and show higher rate of photosynthesis while C₃ plants have a much lower temperature optimum.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

136.

The $C_{3}$ and $C_{4}$ photosynthesis pathways are so called because the initial carbon fixation product in them are respectively:

1.	pyruvate; malate
2.	malate; pyruvate
3.	3-phosphoglycerate; oxaloacetic acid
4.	glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate; phospho-enol-pyruvate (PEP)

137. Which of the following statements are NOT true for the phylum-Chordata?

(a)	In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail and is present throughout their life
(b)	In Cephalochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail
(c)	Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
(d)	Anus is terminal
(e)	Heart, if present, is ventral

1. Only (c) and (d)
2. Only (a) and (b)
3. Only (b) and (e)
4. Only (c) and (e)

138. Bundle sheath cells:

1.	are rich in PEP carboxylase
2.	lack RuBisCo
3.	lack both RuBisCo and PEP carboxylase
4.	are rich in RuBisCo

139. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of birds?

1.	They have a four-chambered heart
2.	They are ectothermic
3.	They exhibit external fertilization
4.	They possess mammary glands

140. What role does chlorophyll b play in photosynthesis?

1.	It acts as the primary pigment absorbing light for photosynthesis.
2.	It assists chlorophyll a by expanding the range of light wavelengths that can be absorbed.
3.	It is directly involved in the conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
4.	It protects chlorophyll a from photodamage by dissipating excessive light.

141. The reaction centres in PSI and PSII in higher plants are respectively called as:

1.	P680 and P700	2.	P700 and P680
3.	P870 and P700	4.	P680 and P870

142. What is the first stable product of CO₂ fixation in plants using the C₃ pathway?
1. Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
2. 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
3. Oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
4. Glucose

143. Which statement correctly relates to body symmetry with examples in the animal kingdom?

1.	Radial symmetry is found in annelids, allowing them to move in any direction.
2.	Bilateral symmetry is present in cnidarians like jellyfish.
3.	Bilateral symmetry is characteristic of vertebrates like humans, allowing for directional movement.
4.	Asymmetry is commonly seen in vertebrates, providing varied evolutionary advantages.

144. Annelids, Arthropods, Molluscs, Echinoderms and Chordates are all:
I: eucoelomates [having true coelom].
II: animals having organ system level of organisation.

1.	Only I is correct	2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct	4.	Both I and II are incorrect

145.

All the following are features of non chordates except:
1. A dorsal heart, if present
2. Ventral, solid and double central nervous system
3. Absence of gill slits
4. Post anal tail

146. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required to fix one molecule of CO₂ in the Calvin cycle?
1. 1 ATP and 1 NADPH
2. 2 ATP and 1 NADPH
3. 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
4. 6 ATP and 3 NADPH

147. Consider the given statements:

I:	ATP synthesis during photosynthesis is called photophosphorylation.
II:	Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves both Photosystem I and Photosystem II.
III:	Cyclic photophosphorylation produces NADPH in addition to ATP.

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

148. Which of the following chordates is also a vertebrate but lacks a jaw?
1. Ascidia
2. Amphioxus
3. Scoliodon
4. Petromyzon

149.

The primary ${CO}_{2}$ acceptor in $C_{4}$ plants is:

1.	RuBP in mesophyll cells
2.	RuBP in bundle sheath cells
3.	PEP in mesophyll cells
4.	PEP in bundle sheath cells

150.

In a photosystem:

1.	The reaction centre is where light is captured, while the antenna complex is where this light energy is transformed into chemical energy.
2.	The antenna complex is where light is captured, while the reaction centre is where this light energy is transformed into chemical energy.
3.	The antenna complex is where light energy is captured and transformed into chemical energy.
4.	The reaction centre is where light energy is captured and transformed into chemical energy.

151. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Phylum]		Column II [Characteristic]
A.	Porifera	P.	Water vascular system
B.	Aschelminthes	Q.	Canal system
C.	Echinodermata	R.	Pseudocoelom
D.	Hemichordata	S.	Stomochord

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	P	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	Q	S	R	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

152. Consider the two statements:

I:	Current availability of carbon dioxide levels is limiting to the C₄ plants.
II:	C₃ plants have a much lower temperature optimum than C₄ plants.

1.	Only I is correct	2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct	4.	Both I and II are incorrect

153. The given figure shows a/an:

1.	rag worm, an annelid
2.	round worm, a nematode
3.	flat worm, a platyhelminth
4.	acorn worm, a hemichordate

154. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Limulus	P	Gregarious pest
B	Locusta	Q	Living fossil
C	Ancylostoma	R	Filaria worm
D	Wuchereria	S	Hookworm

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	Q	P	R	S

155.

Air bladder is found in:

1.	Osteichthyes	2.	Aves
3.	Cyclostomata	4.	Chondrichthyes

156.

Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of
1. Hydra and starfish
2. Starfish and sea anemone
3. Ctenoplana and Beroe
4. Aurelia and Paramoecium

157. What was the significance of Jan Ingenhousz’s experiment with aquatic plants?

1.	It demonstrated that green parts of plants release oxygen only in the dark.
2.	It proved that plants release CO₂ during photosynthesis.
3.	It showed that sunlight is essential for oxygen release in photosynthesis.
4.	It revealed that non-green parts of plants perform photosynthesis more efficiently.

158. Consider the given statements:

I:	P680 is the reaction center of Photosystem II.
II:	The Z-scheme of electron transport occurs in the thylakoid membrane.
III:	The electron transport chain generates a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane.

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

159. What would not be true regarding cartilaginous fishes?

1.	In males, pelvic fins bear claspers
2.	Some of them have electric organs [Torpedo]
3.	None of them is viviparous
4.	Some possess poison sting [Trygon]

160. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Chlorophyll a is the primary pigment involved in photosynthesis.
Reason (R):	Chlorophyll a initiates the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

161. T.W. Engelmann used a prism and an alga, Cladophora, in his experiments to show which spectral regions are most effective for photosynthesis?

1.	Green and yellow light
2.	Blue and red light
3.	Ultraviolet and infrared light
4.	Violet and orange light

162. How does water limitation indirectly affect photosynthesis in a plant under normal light and CO₂ conditions?

1.	Water stress directly impacts the chlorophyll molecule, reducing its light absorption.
2.	It limits the plant’s ability to carry out the Calvin cycle by decreasing ATP production.
3.	Water stress causes stomatal closure, limiting CO₂ uptake and lowering photosynthetic rates.
4.	Reduced water decreases light intensity, impacting light reactions.

163. Identify the option where all given animals belong to the same phylum:

1.	Squid, Devil fish, Flying fish, Dogfish
2.	Apple snail, Pearl oyster, Brittle star, Brain coral
3.	Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Sea horse
4.	Cuttlefish, Sea-hare, Tusk shell, Chiton

164. Match each item in Column-I with the one in Column-II regarding C4 plants and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Primary acceptor of carbon dioxide	P.	RuBP
B.	Cells in which Calvin cycle takes place	Q.	PEP
C.	Primary carbon dioxide fixation product	R.	Bundle sheath
D.	Example	S.	Mesophyll
		T.	PGA
		U.	OAA
		V.	Sorghum
		W.	Wheat

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	S	U	V
2.	P	S	T	W
3.	Q	R	U	V
4.	P	R	T	W

165. Which of the following correctly differentiates cartilaginous fishes (Chondrichthyes) and bony fishes (Osteichthyes)?

Feature	Cartilaginous Fishes (Chondrichthyes)	Bony Fishes (Osteichthyes)
A	Skin has placoid scales	Skin has cycloid/ctenoid scales
B	Mouth is mostly ventral	Mouth is mostly terminal
C	Gill slits are separate and without an operculum	Gill slits are covered by an operculum
D	Air bladder is absent	Air bladder is present for buoyancy regulation

Choose the correct option:
1. A and B only
2. A and C only
3. A, C, and D only
4. A, B, C and D

166.

Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Sponges exhibit a cellular level of organization.
2. Platyhelminthes have a complete digestive system.
3. Arthropods have an open circulatory system.
4. The body of mollusks is not segmented.

167. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Hemichordates	Worm like with proboscis, collar and trunk
2.	Mollusca	External skeleton of shell usually present
3.	Porifera	Body with pores and canals in walls
4.	Arthropoda	Exoskeleton of cellulose and jointed appendages

168. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Adult echinoderms exhibit radial symmetry.
Reason (R):	Adult echinoderms are diploblastic.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

169. On chromatogram, which of the following photosynthetic pigments appears yellow to yellow-orange?

1.	Chlorophyll a	2.	Chlorophyll b
3.	Xanthophylls	4.	Carotenoids

170.

Which one of the following pair of animals comprises 'jawless fishes'?

1.	Lampreys and eels
2.	Mackerals and rohu
3.	Lampreys and hagfishes
4.	Guppies and hagfishes

171. Which two-carbon compound is formed during photorespiration in C₃ plants when RuBisCO reacts with oxygen?
1. Oxaloacetic acid
2. 3-phosphoglycerate
3. Phosphoglycolate
4. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

172. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Aschelminthes in general:

1.	Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
2.	An excretory tube removes body wastes from the body cavity through the excretory pore.
3.	Sexes are separate (dioecious), i.e., males and females are distinct.
4.	Often females are shorter than males.

173. Ornithorhynchus is:
1. a flightless bird
2. a limbless amphibian
3. an egg laying mammal
4. an extinct reptile that was direct ancestor of mammals

174. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants under high temperature and light.
Reason (R):	C4 plants have a mechanism to reduce photorespiration.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

175. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and select the best match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	C₃ plants	P.	Calvin cycle only
B.	Bundle sheath cells	Q.	C₄ pathway
C.	PS I and PS II	R.	Light reactions
D.	Carotenoids	S.	Accessory pigments

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	S	P	R
3.	S	P	Q	R
4.	R	Q	S	P

176. Which of the following statements accurately describes the differences between Mollusca and Annelida?

1.	Mollusca are segmented, while Annelida are not
2.	Mollusca have a coelom, while Annelida do not
3.	Mollusca have an open circulatory system, while Annelida have a closed circulatory system
4.	Mollusca are primarily terrestrial, while Annelida are aquatic

177. Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis:

(a)	Splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane.
(b)	Protons accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.
(c)	The primary acceptor of electrons transfers the electrons to an electron carrier.
(d)	NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
(e)	Protons increase in number in stroma.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (a), (b) and (e)
2. (a), (b) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (b), (c) and (e)

178. Current availability of CO₂ levels is limiting to:

1.	the C₃ plants.
2.	the C₄ plants.
3.	both C₃plants and C₄ plants.
4.	CAM plants.

179. Which of the following is the first stable product formed during the Calvin cycle in C₃ plants?

1.	Oxaloacetic acid
2.	Malic acid
3.	3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
4.	Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)

180. Consider the given statements:

Assertion (A):	Echinoderms exhibit radial symmetry in their adult stage.
Reason (R):	Echinoderms exhibit bilateral symmetry in their larval stage.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

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1.	\(\dfrac{R}{\gamma -1}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{\gamma -1}{R}\)
3.	\(\gamma R \)	4.	\(\dfrac{\left ( \gamma -1 \right )R}{\left ( \gamma +1 \right )}\)

(i)	the direct isothermal path \(AB.\)
(ii)	the path \(ACB,\) where \(AC\) is isochoric and \(CB\) is isobaric.

1.	\(300\text{ K}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{300}{2^{5/3}}\text{ K}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{300}{2^{2/3}}\text{ K}\)	4.	\(600\text{ K}\)

1.	\(J=1~\text{joule/calorie}\)	2.	\(J=4.2~\text{joule/calorie}\)
3.	\(J=4.2~\text{calorie/joule}\)	4.	\(J=4200~\text{calorie/joule}\)

1.	\(Q_3>Q_2>Q_1\) and \(\Delta U_1= \Delta U_2= \Delta U_3\)
2.	\(Q_1=Q_2=Q_3\) and \(\Delta U_1> \Delta U_2> \Delta U_3\)
3.	\(Q_3>Q_2>Q_1\) and \(\Delta U_1> \Delta U_2> \Delta U_3\)
4.	\(Q_1>Q_2>Q_3\) and \(\Delta U_1= \Delta U_2= \Delta U_3\)

1.	\(1000~\text{J}\)	2.	zero
3.	\(-2000~\text{J}\)	4.	\(2000~\text{J}\)

1.	\(1\)	2.	\(\dfrac{3}{5}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{5}{3}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{3}{2}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{2}{5}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{2}{3}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{1}{3}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{2}{7}\)

1.	The temperature of the system is kept constant.
2.	In an isothermal process, \(PV=\text{constant},\) where \(P\) is the pressure and \(V\) the volume of the gas.
3.	There is no change in the internal energy of an ideal gas.
4.	The internal energy of an ideal gas changes in an isothermal process.

Assertion (A):	If the efficiency of the engine is \(\frac1n,\) then the coefficient of performance of the reversed cycle working as a refrigerator is \(n-1\).
Reason (R):	The efficiency of Carnot's cycle is \(1-\frac{T_{\text{low}}}{T_{\text{high}}},\) while the coefficient of performance of the reversed cycle is \(\frac{T_{\text{low}}}{T_{\text{high}~-~T_{\text{low}}}}\).

1.	\(W_1=W_2\)	2.	\(W_1=3W_2\)
3.	\(W_1=6W_2\)	4.	\(W_2=2W_1\)

1.	\(2 {PV}\)	2.	\(4{PV}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}{PV}\)	4.	\(PV\)

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}\)	2.	\(\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{\gamma}}}\right)\)
3.	\({\gamma}{-}{1}\)	4.	\(\left({{1}{-}\dfrac{1}{{{\gamma}}^{2}}}\right)\)

(A)	\(\Large\frac{nR(T_1-T_2)}{\gamma-1}\)	(B)	\(\Large\frac{P_1V_1-P_2V_2}{\gamma-1}\)
(C)	\(\Large\frac{P_1V_1+P_2V_2}{\gamma+1}\)	(D)	\(n\gamma R(T_1-T_2)\)

I.	\(A\rightarrow B:\) Isothermal expansion at temperature \(T\) so that the volume is doubled from \(V_1\) to \(V_2=2V_1\) and pressure changes from \(P_1\) to \(P_2\).
II.	\(B\rightarrow C:\) Isobaric compression at pressure \(P_2\) to initial volume \(V_1\).
III.	\(C\rightarrow A:\) Isochoric change leading to the change of pressure from \(P_2\) to \(P_1.\)

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}\left ( \dfrac{3}{2}R+\dfrac{5}{2}R \right )\)	2.	\(\left(\dfrac23+\dfrac25\right)^{-1}R\)
3.	\(3R\)	4.	\(\dfrac{8}{15}R\)

1.	\({10}^{3}\mathit{\pi}\) J	2.	\({10}^{2}\mathit{\pi}\) J
3.	\({10}^{4}\mathit{\pi}\) J	4.	\({10}^{7}\mathit{\pi}\) J

Column-I		Column-II
\(\mathrm{(P)}\)	Process I	\(\mathrm{(a)}\)	Adiabatic
\(\mathrm{(Q)}\)	Process II	\(\mathrm{(b)}\)	Isobaric
\(\mathrm{(R)}\)	Process III	\(\mathrm{(c)}\)	Isochoric
\(\mathrm{(S)}\)	Process IV	\(\mathrm{(d)}\)	Isothermal

1.	\(\mathrm{P → c, Q → a, R → d, S→ b}\)
2.	\(\mathrm{P→ c, Q → d, R → b, S → a}\)
3.	\(\mathrm{P → d, Q → b, R → b, S → c}\)
4.	\(\mathrm{P → a, Q → c, R → d, S → b}\)

1.	\(a\)–isothermal, \(b\)–monatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–diatomic adiabatic
2.	\(a\)–monatomic adiabatic, \(b\)–diatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–isothermal
3.	\(a\)–diatomic adiabatic, \(b\)–monatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–isothermal
4.	\(a\)–isothermal, \(b\)–diatomic adiabatic, \(c\)–monatomic adiabatic

1.	\(\dfrac{C_{P_{\large1}}+C_{P_{\large2}}}{2}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{C^2_{P_{\large1}}+C^2_{P_{\large2}}}{C_{P_{\large1}}+C_{P_{\large2}}}\)
3.	\(\sqrt{C_{P_{\large1}}\ C_{P_{\large2}}}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{2C_{P_{\large1}} C_{P_{\large2}}}{C_{P_{\large1}}+C_{P_{\large2}}}\)

1.	\(U_0\mathrm{ln}(2)\)	2.	\(\dfrac12U_0~\mathrm{ln}(2)\)
3.	\(\dfrac13U_0~\mathrm{ln}(2)\)	4.	\(\dfrac23U_0~\mathrm{ln}(2)\)

1.	\(\Delta Q_1= \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2\)
2.	\(\Delta Q_1> \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 > \Delta U_2\)
3.	\(\Delta Q_1< \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 < \Delta U_2\)
4.	\(\Delta Q_1> \Delta Q_2 ;~ \Delta U_1 = \Delta U_2\)

1.	\(\mathrm{CaX}\)	2.	\(\mathrm{CaX}_2 \)
3.	\(\mathrm{Ca}_4 X_2\)	4.	\(\mathrm{Ca}_2 \mathrm{X}_2\)

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