High Yielding Test Series

Biology

1.

Mast cells secrete-
1. Hippurin
2. Myoglobin
3. Histamine
4. Hemoglobin

2.

The type of epithelial cells which line the inner
surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as :-
1. Squamous epithelium
2. Columnar epithelium
3. Ciliated epithelium
4. Cubical epithelium

3.

In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

4.

The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
walls of blood vessels is:
1. Squamous epithelium
2. Cuboidal epithelium
3. Columnar epithelium
4. Ciliated columnar epithelium

5.

What is the similarity between bronchi and
fallopian tube?
1. Pseudostratified epithelium
2. Ciliated epithelium
3. Cuboidal epithelium
4. Columnar epithelium

6.

Tendon and ligaments are example of-
1. Dense regular connective tissue.
2. Dense irregular connective tissue.
3. Loose connective tissue
4. Specialised connective tissue

7.

Which among these is the correct combination
of aquatic mammals?
1. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
2. Whales, Dolphins, seals
3. Trygon, Whales, Seals
4. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

8.

In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined
with flagellated cells called:
1. Oscula
2. choanocytes
3. mesenchymal cells
4. ostia

9.

Which of the following is correct option?

1.	Frog	- External fertilisation
2.	Scoliodon	- External fertilisation
3.	Exocoetus	- Internal fertilisation
4.	Ophiura	- Internal fertilisation

10.

The structure shown in the given diagram is characteristically seen in the Phylum:

(1) Porifera
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Cnidaria
(4) Molluska

11.

Find out the correct match

1.	Chelone, Chameleon, Calotes	- epidermal scale
2.	Ornithorhynchus, Panthera leo, Macropus	- Oviparous
3.	Exocoetus, Pavo, Psittacula, Columba	- Forelimbs are modified into wings
4.	Scoliodon, Pristis, Pterophyllum	- Placoid scales

12.

Which of the following have internal fertilisation
1. Sea urchin
2. Platypus
3. Frog
4. Labeo

13.

Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Sea - fan (Gorgonia)
3. Saccharomyces
4. Blue - green algae

14.

Planaria possess high capacity of :-
1. Metamorphosis
2. Regeneration
3. Alternation of Regeneration
4. Bioluminescence

15.

A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
electric current is :-
1. Pristis
2. Torpedo
3. Trygon
4. Scoliodon

16.

Which of the following is the correct match?
1. Human and frog - Nucleated RBC
2. Ascaris and Liver fluke - Internal fertilization
3. Earthworm and cockroach - sexual dimorphism
4. Nereis and Hydra - Segmented body

17.

The active form of Entamoeba histolytical feeds
upon:
1. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
2. Food in intestine
3. Blood only
4. erythrocytes: mucosa and submucosa of colon

18.

Which one of the following characteristic
features always hold true for the corresponding
group of animals?

1.	Cartilaginous endoskeleton	- Chondrichthyes
2.	Viviparous	- Mammalia
3.	Posses a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw	- Chordata
4.	3 - chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle	- Reptilia

19.

An important characteristic that
Hemichordates share with Chordates is :
1. Ventral tubular nerve cord
2. Pharynx with gill slits
3. Pharynx without gill slits
4. Absence of notochord

20.

The peculiar pungent smell of cockroach is
produced by the secretions of :
1. Pheromones
2. Flame cells
3. Abdominal glands
4. Cervical glands

21.

The cockroach of genus Blatta also called
1. German cockroach
2. Australian cockroach
3. Oriental cockroach
4. American cockroach

22.

Male cockroach and female cockroach can be differentiated by :
1. Ocelli
2. Anal cerci
3. Anal styles
4. Antennae

23.

The diploid sporophyte is represented by a dominant, independent, photosynthetic, vascular plant body. It alternates with multicellular, saprophytic/autotrophic, independent but short-lived haploid gametophyte. This type of pattern is exhibited by
1. Bryophytes (Sphagnum, Polytrichum).
2. Pteridophytes (Selaginella, Lycopodium).
3. Most of the algal genera (Fucus, Chara, Polysiphonia).
4. Seed plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms).

24.

The type of life-cycle in which there is no free-living
sporophytes and the dominant, photosynthetic phase
in such plants is the free-living gametophyte. We are
talking about
1. Haplontic life cycle shown in Volvox and some
species of Chlamydomonas.
2. Diplontic life cycle as shown in seed-bearing
plants.
3. Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in bryophytes
and pteridophytes.
4. Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in Kelps

25.

Read the following statements :
A. The male or female cones or strobili may be
borne on same tree in Pinus.
B. In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are
borne on different trees.
C. Stem of Cycas is branched and of Pinus and
Cedrus is unbranched.
D. In gymnosperms generally tap roots are found.
Select the correct statements.
1. A, B
2. A, B, D
3. A, B, C
4. C, D

26.

Prothallus is
1. A structure in pteridophytes formed before the
thallus develops.
2. A sporophytic inconspicuous free living structure
formed in pteridophytes.
3. A gametophytic inconspicuous free living structure
formed in pteridophytes.
4. A gametophytic conspicuous structure formed
after fertilization in pteridophytes.

27.

Leafy stage develops from the secondary protonema as a
1. Apical bud
2. Axillary bud
3. Lateral bud
4. Meristem

28.

Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending
flower and live plants to distant places because
1. It is easily available.
2. It reduces transpiration.
3. It is hygroscopic.
4. All of the above.

29.

In Phaeophyceae, the spores (zoospores) are
1. Pyriform and bear 2 flagella (one longitudinal and
other transverse).
2. Pear-shaped and bear 2 flagella that are laterally
attached.
3. Pyriform and bear 2-8, equal and apial flagella.
4. Pear-shaped and bear 2-8, equal and apical
flagella

30.

The given diagram shows:

(1) An alga that lacks flagellated cells
(2) A liverwort
(3) A heterosporous pteridophyte
(4) A gymnosperm with non motile sperms

31.

What is true for both (a) and (b)?

(1) RNA is the genetic material
(2) Capability to infect bacteria
(3) Being obligate endoparasites
(4) Can be killed by antibiotics

32.

Carlous Linnaeus system is an artificial system
because it is
1. Phylogenetic.
2. Based on evolutionary trends.
3. Based on number of characters.
4. Based on a few characters of superficial
similarities and dissimilarities on morphology.

33.

Domain Eukarya includes how many kingdoms (with
respect to six kingdom system)?
1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four

34.

Select the incorrect statement.
1. Nostoc and Anabaena have heterocysts for
nigrogen fixation.
2. Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water
bodies.
3. Heterotrophic bacteria are more abundant in
nature.
4. The cell walls of mycoplasma are made up of
chitin.

35.

Statement I : Bacterial structure and behaviour is
very complex
Statement 2 : They show the most extensive
metabolic diversity as a group
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

36.

The smallest living cells have all known
characteristics except
1. Survive in presence of oxygen.
2. Infect animals and plant.
3. Complete lack of cell membrane.
4. Contain dsDNA as genetic material

37.

Which of the following is a difference between
eubacteria and archaebacteria?
1. They look very different from each other under
microscope.
2. Eubacteria are autotrophic and archaebacteria
are heterotrophic.
3. Archaebacteria are unicellular and eubacteria are
colonial.
4. They have different chemicals in their cell
membranes and cell walls.

38.

Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Protista include chrysophytes, dinoflagellates,
euglenoids and slime moulds.
(ii) Protista are link between monera and fungi.
(iii) Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up two thin
overlapping shells which fit together like a soap
box.
(iv) Diatoms are chief producer in the ocean.
(v) The pigments of euglenoids are different from
those of higher plants.
1. (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (i), (iii) and (v)
4. (i), (iv) and (v)

39.

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(i) Slime moulds in vegetative phase are surrounded
by cell wall.
(ii) Slime moulds are obligate autotrophs.
(iii) Euglena behaves like heterotroph in absence of
light predating smaller organism.
(iv) The fishes are killed by toxins released by slime
moulds.
(v) Protists reproduce sexually by zygote formation.
(vi) Euglena has resemblance with plant and animal
both.
1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (iii) and (vi)
4. (i), (ii) and (iv)

40.

Following features belong to
(i) Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red
depending on pigment in cell.
(ii) Stiff cellulosic plates forms the cell wall.
(iii) One longitudinal and one transverse flagella
present.
(iv) Photosynthetic
1. Diatoms
2. Desmids
3. Dinoflagellates
4. Euglenoids

41.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement
regarding fungi?
1. Wheat rust causing agent is Puccinia.
2. Penicillium is a source of antibiotic.
3. The cell walls of fungi are composed of
peptidoglycans.
4. Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places.

42.

Dikaryotic stage is a characteristic of
1. Phycomycetes and ascomycetes.
2. Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
3. Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes.
4. Basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes.

43.

Consider the following statements :
(i) Increase in mass and increase in number of
individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
(ii) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
(iii) In plants, the growth is seen up to a certain age.
(iv) In majority of higher animals and plants growth
and reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
Choose the correct option :
1. (i) and (iii)
2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (i) and (ii)

44.

From the following statements, select those that are
true for reproduction.
(i) It is not an all-exclsuive defining characteristic of
living organisms.
(ii) It is not an all-inclusive defining characteristic of
living organisms.
(iii) It is not an all-exclusive defining characteristic of
plants and fungi only.
(iv) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
plant breeders only.
(v) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal
plants and animals breeders.
(vi) Photoperiod has no role in reproduction.
1. (ii) and (v)
2. (iii) and (iv)
3. (iv) and (vi)
4. All of these

45.

Select the incorrect statement for consiciousness as
one of the characteristic of living organisms.
1. It is the most technically complicated process.
2. It is present in all organisms whether unicellular
or multicellular.
3. It is an obvious feature not found in prokaryotes.
4. It is regarded as a defining feature of living
organisms.

46.

Mayer’s biological concept of species is mainly
based on
1. Morphological traits.
2. Reproductive isolation.
3. Modes of reproduction.
4. Morphology and reproduction.

47.

Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry ?
1. Adult Echinoderms
2. Aschelminthes
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Annelids

48.

The contrasting characteristics generally in a pair used for identification of animals in Taxonomic Key are referred to as:
1. Lead
2. Couplet
3. Doublet
4. Alternate

49.

Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Tight junctions	(i)	Cement neighboring cells together to form a sheet
(b)	Adhering junctions	(ii)	Transmit information through chemicals to another cell
(c)	Gap junctions	(iii)	Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells
(d)	Synaptic junctions	(iv)	Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent cells

Select the correct option from the following:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
4.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)

50.

Which of the following statements is correct?
1. Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
2. Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont.
3. Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont.
4. Lichens are not good pollution indicators.

51.

Match the organisms in Column-I with habitats in Column-II.

Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Halophiles	(i)	Hot springs
(b)	Thermoacidophiles	(ii)	Aquatic environment
(c)	Methanogens	(iii)	Guts of ruminants
(d)	Cyanobacteria	(iv)	Salty areas

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
2.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)

52.

Species are considered as
1. artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
2. real units of classification devised by taxonomists
3. real basic units of classification
4. the lowest units of classification

53.

The institute which encourages publication of local flora in India is
1. NBRI
2. FRI
3. BSI
4.IARI

54.

"Ordines Anomali" of Bentham and Hooker includes
1. plants described only in fossil state
2. seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development
3. plants described in the literature but which Bentham and Hooker did not see in original
4. a few orders which could not be placed satisfactorily in the classification

55.

What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish ?
1. They all possess dorsal heart
2. None of them is aquatic
3. They all belong to the same phylum
4. They all have jointed paired appendages

56.

Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?

1.	Echinodermata - pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
2.	Mollusca - normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or velliger larva
3.	Arthropoda - body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration only by mouth
4.	Chordata - notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside

57.

Excretory pore of Ascaris is present –
1. Behind the mouth
2. On the posterior end
3. On the dorsal side
4. In the middle of body

58.

Which of the following match is correct?

1.	Cockroach	– Crustacea
2.	Pila	– Pelecypoda
3.	Spider	– Arachnida
4.	Unio	– Gastropoda

59.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Cockroach?
1. Compound eye is also called as ocellus
2. Spiracle helps in excretion
3. Phallomere is present in female Cockroach
4. Ventral nerve cord

60.

Which of the following is correct regarding cockroach?

1.	Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
2.	Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
3.	Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
4.	The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard

61.

Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and freshwater species–
1. Echinoderms
2. Ctenophora
3. Cephalocoradata
4. Cnidaria

62.

Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?
1. Enterobiusvermicularis
2. Trichinellaspiralis
3. Ascarislumbricoides
4. Ancylostomaduodenale

63.

The active form of Entamaeba-histolytica feeds upon –
1. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only
2. Food in intestine
3. Blood only
4. Erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon

64.

Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
1. Influenza
2. Babesiosis
3. Blastomycosis
4. Syphilis

65.

Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the cells are
1. hardened and provide support to the organ
2. cemented directly to one another to form a single layer
3. continuously dividing to provide form to an organ
4. loosely connected to one another to form an irregular organ

66.

During an injury, nasal septum gets damaged. For its restoration which cartilage is preferred?
1. Hyaline cartilage
2. Elastic cartilage
3. Calcified cartilage
4. Fibro cartilage

67.

Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?
1. Calcified cartilage
2. Hyaline cartilage
3. Elastic cartilage
4. Fibrous cartilage

68.

Areolar connective tissue joins
1. integument to the muscles
2. bones to the muscles
3. bones to the bones
4. fat body to the muscles

69.

Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolizing (aerobically) glucose to carbon dioxide?
1. White blood cells
2. Unstriated muscle cells
3. Liver cells
4. Red blood cells

70.

In which one of the following preparations, you are likely to come across cell junctions frequently?
1. Ciliated epithelium
2. Thrombocytes
3. Tendon
4. Hyaline cartilage

71.

Which of the following features is not present in Periplanetaamericana?
1. Metamerically segmented body
2. Schizocoelom as body cavity
3. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
4. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine

72.

Barophilic prokaryotes
1. Occur in water containing high concentration of barium hydroxide
2. Grow slowly in alkaline frozen lakes at high altitude
3. Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
4. Readily grow and divide in sea water enriched with soluble salt of barium

73.

Auxospores and hormocysts are formed respectively by
1. Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
2. Some cyanobacteria and several diatoms
3. Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
4. Serveral diatoms and few cyanobacteria.

74.

Which pair belongs to basidiomycetes?
1. Puffball and Claviceps
2. Peziza and Stink Horn
3. Morchella and Mushroom
4. Bird Nest Fungus and Puffball

75.

A filamentous nitrogen fixing bacterium is present in root nodules of non-leguminous plant
1. Cicer arietinum
2. Casurina equisetifolia
3. Cycasrevolute
4. Crotalaria juncea

76.

Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify
1. Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
2. Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
3. Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
4. Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled.

77.

The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is
1. Azospirillum
2. Oscillatoria
3. Frankia
4. Rhizobium

78.

A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in :
1. Alnus
2. Cycas
3. Cicer
4. Pisum

79.

Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group.
1. Fungi
2. Animalia
3. Monera
4. Plantae

80.

Which statement is wrong for viruses?
1. All are parasites
2. All of them have helical symmetry
3. They have ability ot synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
4. Antibiotics have no effect on them

81.

Which one is wrong statement ?
1. Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
2. Haploid endosperm is typical feature of gymnosperms
3. Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin
4. Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms

82.

Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacterial?
1. 5-8s rRNA
2. 5S rRNA
3. 18 S rRNA
4. 23S rRNA

83.

Wood of Pinus is
1. Manoxylic and homoxylous
2. Manoxylic and heteroxylous
3. Pycnoxylic and homoxylous
4. Pycnoxylic and heteroxylous.

84.

Moss sporophyte does not possess
1. Elaters
2. Seta
3. Foot
4. Columella.

85.

Chlorenchyma is known to develop in
1. Cytoplasm of Chlorella
2. Mycelium of a green mould like Aspergillus
3. Spore capsule of a moss
4. Pollen tube of Pinus.

86.

Sexual reproduction of Spirogyra is an advanced feature as it shows
1. Different sizes of motile sex organs
2. Same size of motile sex organs
3. Morphologically different sex organs
4. Physiologically different sex organs.

87.

Top-shaped multiciliate male gamete and seeds with two cotyledons occur in
1. Cycads
2. Conifers
3. Poypetalous angiosperms
4. Gamopetalous angiosperms.

88.

Pollen chamber present in gymnosperms represents
1. Microsporangium
2. Pollen grain cell where sperms are formed
3. Opening of megagametophyte for passage of pollen tube to egg
4. Cavity in nucellus for resting pollen grains after pollination

89.

Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack :
1. Cambium
2. Phloem fibres
3. Thick-walled tracheids
4. Xylem fibres

90.

Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:
1. Pteris
2. Funaria
3. Lilium
4. Pinus

Chemistry

91.

The energy needed to convert helium atom to He ⁺²is -79eV. The first ionization energy of this atom is about
1. 65.4eV
2. 51.8eV
3. 24.6eV
4. 27.2eV

92.

The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminium metal from bauxite by the Hall process is (at. mass of Al = 27)
1. 180 kg
2. 270 kg
3. 540 kg
4. 90 kg

93.

The molality of a 15% (w/vol.) solution of H₂SO₄ of density 1.1g/cm³ is:
1. 1.2 mol/kg
2. 1.4 mol/kg
3. 1.8 mol/kg
4. 1.6 mol/kg

94.

A partially dried clay mineral contains 8% water. The original sample contained 12% water and 45% silica. The percentage of silica in the partially dried sample is nearly:

1.	50%	2.	49%
3.	55%	4.	47%

95.

A sample of pure Cu (3.18g ) heated in a stream of oxygen for some time gains in mass with the formation of black oxide of copper (CuO). The final mass is 3.92 g. The percent of copper remains unoxidised is-
1. $\approx$ 6.5
2. $\approx$ 6.9
3. $\approx$ 7.6
4. $\approx$ 7.9

96.

Which is the least polarizable gas among the following?

1.	He	2.	Ne
3.	Kr	4.	Xe

97.

A sample of CaCO₃ is 50% pure. On heating 1.12 litres of CO₂ (at STP) is obtained. The weight of residues left (assuming non-volatile impurity) is:
(Ca = 40, C= 12, O=16)

1.	7.8 g	2.	5 g
3.	3.8 g	4.	2.8 g

98.

Element/Ion that has the highest electron affinity is :

1.	F^-	2.	O^-
3.	O	4.	Na

99.

The correct order of second ionisation energies of B, C, N, & O is
1. O > N > C > B
2. O > C > N > B
3. O > B > C > N
4. O > N >B > C

100.

Mark the incorrect order of the bond angle:
1. NH₃ > NF₃
2. NF₃ < PF₃
3. NH₃ > PH₃
4. NH₃ > H₂O

101.

Which has highest bond energy ?
1. CO
2. CO⁺
3. N₂
4. $N_{2}^{+}$

102.

The element having very high electron affinity but zero ionisation enthalpy is:
1. He (due to inert gas configuration)
2. Be (due to fully filled subshell)
3. H (due to presence of allotropes)
4. None of the above

103.

Which of the following has largest bond angle.
1. H₂O
2. F₂O
3. Cl₂O
4. H₂S

104.

The radius of which ion is closest to that of $L i^{+}$ ion ?
1. $N a^{+}$
2. $B e^{2 +}$
3. $M g^{2 +}$
4. $A l^{3 +}$

105.

Molecule that has $μ$ (observed) greater than $μ$ (theoretical) is :

1.	CHCl₃	2.
3.		4.

106.

Which of the following species contains maximum number of atoms in 'XY' plane?
$1 . X e F_{2}$
$2 . S F_{6}$
$3 . I F_{3}$
$4 . A l l$

107.

On the left are given decreasing orders of elements for a certain property and on the right side is given the property. The incorrect order for the given properties is:
1. ${AlF}_{3} > MgO > {MgF}_{2}$ : Lattice energy
2. $Li > Na > Al > Mg$ : Electron affinity
3. ${PF}_{5} >$ ${SF}_{6}$ $>$ ${SiF}_{4}$ : Lewis acidic character
4. ${SiCl}_{4} > {SiBr}_{4}$ $> {SiI}_{4}$ : Decreasing ionic character

108.

Which of the following interaction lies in the range of 8 - 42 kJ/mol?
1. $H_{2} . . . H_{2} O$
2. HCl...HCI
3. $H_{2} O$ ...HF
4. all

109.

A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of 1.2 D. If its bond length is equal to 10 ^-10 m , then the fraction of an electronic charge on each atom will be:
1. 42%
2. 52%
3. 37%
4. 25%

110.

Incorrect statement among the following is:

1.	The uncertainty principle is$\Delta x \cdot \Delta p \geq \dfrac{h}{4 \pi} $
2.	Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry, and a more balanced arrangement.
3.	The energy of the 2s orbital is less than the energy of the 2p orbital in the case of hydrogen-like atoms.
4.	De-Broglie's wavelength is given by$\lambda=\dfrac{h}{m v} $, where m= mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle.

111. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY₂ and X₃Y₂. If 0.1 mole of XY₂weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X₃Y₂ weighs 9 g, the atomic weight of X and Y respectively, will be:
1. 40, 30
2. 60, 40
3. 20, 30
4. 30, 20

112.

The incorrect statement among the following is:

1.	Total orbital angular momentum of an electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.
2.	An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers, while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.
3.	The electronic configuration of N atom is
4.	The value of m for d_z² is zero.

113.

The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64), and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are, respectively:

1.	[Xe] 4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s², and [Xe] 4f⁹6s²
2.	[Xe] 4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe] 4f⁷5d¹ 6s², and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²
3.	[Xe] 4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s², and [Xe] 4f⁹ 6s²
4.	[Xe] 4f⁷6s², (Xe]4f⁸6s², and [Xe]4f⁸ 5d¹6s²

114.

The decreasing order of stability of $O_{2}, O_{2}^{-}, O_{2}^{+}$ $and$ $O_{2}^{2 -}$ is:
1. $O_{2}^{+} > O_{2} > O_{2}^{-} > O_{2}^{2 -}$
2. $O_{2}^{2 -} > O_{2}^{-} > O_{2} > O_{2}^{+}$
3. $O_{2} > O_{2}^{+} > O_{2}^{2 -} > O_{2}^{-}$
4. $O_{2}^{-} > O_{2}^{2 -} > O_{2}^{+} > O_{2}$

115.

The formation of the oxide ion O^2– (g), from the oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below,
$O (g) + e^{-} \to O^{-};$ $∆_{f} H^{0} = - 141$ $kJ$ ${mol}^{- 1}$
$O^{-} (g) + e^{-} \to O^{2 -} (g);$ $∆_{f} H^{0} = + 780$ $kJ$ ${mol}^{- 1}$
Thus, the process of formation of O^2– in the gas phase is unfavorable even though O^2– is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that:

1.	Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration.
2.	O^– ion has a comparatively smaller size than the oxygen atom.
3.	Oxygen is more electronegative.
4.	Addition of electrons in oxygen results in a large size of the ion.

116. The number of water molecules are maximum in:
1. 18 molecules of water
2. 1.8 g of water
3. 18 g of water
4. 18 moles of water

117.

Choose the compound which has a maximum bond angle at nitrogen among the following:
1. ${NO}_{2}$
2. ${NO}_{2}^{-}$
3. ${NO}_{2}^{+}$
4. ${NO}_{3}^{-}$

118.

The angular momentum of electrons in d orbital is equal to:
1. $\sqrt{6}$ $h$
2. $\sqrt{2}$ $h$
3. $2 \sqrt{3}$ $h$
4. 0 $h$

119.

Equal masses of H₂, O₂ and CH₄ have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27 ºC in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H₂:O₂ : CH₄ would be:
1. 8:16:1
2. 16:8:1
3. 16:1:2
4. 8:1:2

120.

1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O₂ in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and by how much? (At. wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)

1.	Mg, 0.16 g	2.	$O_{2}$ , 0.16 g
3.	Mg, 0.44 g	4.	$O_{2}$ , 0.28 g

121.

A molecule among the following that has the maximum dipole moment is:

1.	$\mathrm{CO_2}$	2.	$\mathrm{CH_4}$
3.	$\mathrm{NH_3}$	4.	$\mathrm{NF_3}$

122. The weight of 70 % HNO₃concentrated nitric acid solution that should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO₃ is:
1. 90.0 g conc. HNO₃
2. 70.0 g conc. HNO₃
3. 54.0 g conc. HNO₃
4. 45.0 g conc. HNO₃

123.

An electron-deficient compound among the following is:

1.	(SiH₃)₂	2.	(BH₃)₂
3.	PH₃	4.	(CH₃)₂

124.

The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of a rubidium atom (Z =37) is:

1.	$5,1,1,+ {1 \over2}$	2.	$6,0,0,+ {1 \over2}$
3.	$5,0,0,+ {1 \over2}$	4.	$5,1,0,+ {1 \over2}$

125.

Isostructural pair among the following is:
1. ${BCl}_{3}$ $and$ ${BrCl}_{3}$
2. ${NH}_{3}$ $and$ ${NO}_{3}^{-}$
3. ${NF}_{3}$ $and$ ${BF}_{3}$
4. ${BF}_{4}^{-}$ $and$ ${NH}_{4}^{+}$

126.

Mole fraction of solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is:
1. 0.0177
2. 0.0344
3. 1.770
4. 0.1770

127.

In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?

1.	ClF₃	2.	BF₃
3.	AlF₃	4.	NF₃

128.

Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
1. $A l_{2} O_{3}$
2. $S b_{2} O_{3}$
3. $B i_{2} O_{3}$
4. $S e O_{2}$

129.

For the second-period elements, the correct increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:

1.	Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne
2.	Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
3.	Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
4.	Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne

130.

What is the number of moles of O-atom in 126 amu of ${HNO}_{3}$ ?
1. 2
2. $\frac{2}{N_{A}}$
3. 6
4. $\frac{6}{N_{A}}$

131.

Orbitals having two spherical nodes are:

1.	2s	2.	4s
3.	3d	4.	6f

132.

The ratio of slopes of $K_{\max} vs . v and V_{0} vs . v$ curves in photoelectric effect gives -
(v=frequency, $K_{\max}$ =maximum kinetic energy, $V_{0}$ stopping potential):
1. Charge of electron
2. Planck's constant
3. Work function
4. The ratio of Planck's constant of electronic charge

133.

The number of hydrogen bonded water molecules(s) associated with $\mathrm{C u S O_{4} . 5 H_{2} O}$ is:

1.	3	2.	1
3.	2	4.	5

134.

Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of lowest frequency is
1. n=1 to n=2
2. n=3 to n=8
3. n=2 to n=1
4. n=8 to n=3

135.

Which of the following atomic orbitals would have the greatest overlap to form the strongest covalent bond?

1.	2s-2s (σ)	2.	2s-2p (σ)
3.	2p-2p (π)	4.	2p-2p (σ)

Physics

136.

The position of a body with acceleration $a$ is given by $x= Ka^{m}t^{n}$ (assume $t$ to be time). The values of $m$ and $n$ will be:
1. $m=1,~n=1$
2. $m=1,~n=2$
3. $m=2,~n=1$
4. $m=2,~n=2$

137.

In the context of the accuracy of measurement and significant figures in expressing the results of the experiment, which of the following is/are correct?
(1) Out of the two measurements 50.14 cm and 0.00025 Amperes, the first one has greater accuracy.
(2) If one travels 478 km by rail and 397 m by road, the total distance traveled is 478 km.
1. Only (1) is correct
2. Only (2) is correct
3. Both are correct
4. None of them is correct.

138.

How many significant figures are present in the following numbers?

$(\mathrm{I})$	25.12
$(\mathrm{II})$	2009
$(\mathrm{III})$	4.156
$(\mathrm{IV})$	1.217 × 10⁻⁴

Select the correct answer set from the following:

1.	(i) 4, (ii) 3, (iii) 4, (iv) 4
2.	(i) 4, (ii) 4, (iii) 4, (iv) 4
3.	(i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 3, (iv) 3
4.	(i) 4, (ii) 4, (iii) 3, (iv) 3

139.

The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graphs given below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement ?

1.
2.
3.
4.

140.

From the following displacement-time graph , find out the velocity of a moving body.

1. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ m/s
2. 3 m/s
3. $\sqrt{3}$ m/s
4. $\frac{1}{3}$ m/s

141.

A bullet moving with a velocity of 200 cm/s penetrates a wooden block and comes to rest after traversing 4 cm inside it. What velocity is needed for travelling distance of 9 cm in same block?
1. 100 cm/s
2. 136.2 cm/s
3. 300 cm/s
4. 250 cm/s

142.

A bird flies for 4 s with a velocity of $| t - 2 | m / s$ in a straight line, where t is time in seconds. It covers a distance of
1. 2 m
2. 4 m
3. 6 m
4. 8 m

143.

A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v₀ at an angle of projection θ. From the same point and at the same instant a person starts running with a constant speed v₀/2 to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what should be the angle of projection?
1. Yes, 60°
2. Yes, 30°
3. No
4. Yes, 45°

144.

A particle is moving eastwards with velocity of 5 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 m/s northwards. The average acceleration in this time is-
1. Zero
2. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} m / s^{2}$ toward north-west
3. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} m / s^{2}$ toward north-east
4. $\frac{1}{2} m / s^{2}$ toward north-west

145.

The path of a projectile in the absence of air drag is shown in the figure by dotted line. If the air resistance is not ignored , then which one of the paths shown in the figure is appropriate for the projectile ?

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C

146.

A person, aiming to reach the exact opposite point on the other bank of a stream, is swimming with a speed of 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120⁰ with the direction of flow of water. The speed of water in the stream is:
1. 1 m/s
2. 0.5 m/s
3. 0.25 m/s
4. 0.433 m/s

147.

A vector $\vec{a}$ is turned without a change in its length through a small angle $d\theta$. The values of $\left | \Delta \vec{a} \right |$ and $\Delta a$ are respectively:
1. $0,$ $ad\theta$
2. $ad\theta,$ $0$
3. $0,$ $0$
4. none of these

148.

A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired with a speed of 100 m/sec, the mass of gun is 50 kg. The velocity of recoil is
1. 0.2 m/sec
2. 0.1 m/sec
3. 0.5 m/sec
4. 0.05 m/sec

149.

Consider the following statement: When jumping from some height, you should bend your knees as you come to rest, instead of keeping your legs stiff. Which of the following relations can be useful in explaining the statement?
1. $Δ \vec{p_{1}} = - Δ \vec{p_{2}}$
2. $Δ E = - Δ (P E + K E) = 0$
3. $\vec{F} Δ t = m Δ \vec{v}$
4. $Δ \vec{x} \propto Δ \vec{F}$

150.

In the arrangement shown in the figure, the ends P and Q of an unstretchable string move downwards with uniform speed U. Pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M moves upwards with a speed

1. $2 U \cos θ$
2. $U \cos θ$
3. $\frac{2 U}{\cos θ}$
4. $\frac{U}{\cos θ}$

151.

A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is resting inside a cube as shown in the figure. The cube is moving with a velocity $v = (5 t \hat{i} + 2 t \hat{j}) m / s$ . Here t is the time in second. All surface are smooth. The sphere is at rest with respect to the cube. What is the total force exerted by the sphere on the cube? (Take g = 10 m/s²)

1. $\sqrt{29} N$
2. 29 N
3. 26 N
4. $\sqrt{89} N$

152.

A force-time graph for a linear motion is shown in figure where the segments are circular. The linear momentum gained between zero and 8 second is

1. $- 2 π n e w t o n \times s e c o n d$
2. $Z e r o n e w t o n \times s e c o n d$
3. $+ 4 π n e w t o n \times s e c o n d$
4. $- 6 π n e w t o n \times s e c o n d$

153.

The position vector of a particle as a function of time is given by r = 4sin(2 $π$ t) $\hat{i}$ + 4cos(2 $π$ t) $\hat{j}$ where r is in metre, t is in seconds, $\hat{i}$ and $\hat{j}$ denote unit vectors along x and y-directions, respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?
1. Acceleration is along $- \vec{R}$
2. Magnitude of the acceleration vector is v²/R where v is the velocity of the particle
3. Magnitude of the velocity of the particle is 8 m/s
4. Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 m

154.

A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is $μ = 0.5 .$ The distance that the box will move relative to the belt before coming to rest on it taking $g = 10 {ms}^{- 2}$ , is
1. $1.2 m$ 2. $0.6 m$
3. zero 4. $0.4 m$

155.

A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience "weightlessness" as they go round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between:
1. 14m/s and 15m/s
2. 15m/s and 16m/s
3. 16m/s and 17m/s
4. 13m/s and 14m/s

156.

A spring of force constant $k$ is cut into lengths of ratio $1:2:3$. They are connected in series and the new force constant is $k'$. Then they are connected in parallel and the force constant is $k''$. Then $k':k''$ is:
1. $1:9$
2. $1:11$
3. $1:14$
4. $1:6$

157.

A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of $c, G,~\text{and}~\dfrac{e^2}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}$is [$c$ is the velocity of light, $G$ is the universal constant of gravitation and $e$ is charge]:
1. $c^2\left[G \dfrac{e^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}\right]^{\dfrac{1}{2}}$
2. $\dfrac{1}{c^2}\left[\dfrac{e^2}{4 G \pi \varepsilon_0}\right]^{\dfrac{1}{2}}$
3. $\dfrac{1}{c} G \dfrac{e^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}$
4. $\dfrac{1}{c^2}\left[G \dfrac{e^2}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0}\right]^{\dfrac{1}{2}}$

158.

Two cars $P$ and $Q$ start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by; $x_p(t)= at+bt^2$ and $x_Q(t) = ft-t^2. $ At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

1.	$\frac{a-f}{1+b}$	2.	$\frac{a+f}{2(b-1)}$
3.	$\frac{a+f}{2(b+1)}$	4.	$\frac{f-a}{2(1+b)}$

159.

In the given figure, $a=15$ m/s² represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius $R=2.5$ m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is:

1. $4.5$ m/s
2. $5.0$ m/s
3. $5.7$ m/s
4. $6.2$ m/s

160.

A rigid ball of mass $M$ strikes a rigid wall at $60^{\circ}$ and gets reflected without loss of speed, as shown in the figure. The value of the impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be:

1.	$Mv$	2.	$2Mv$
3.	$\dfrac{Mv}{2}$	4.	$\dfrac{Mv}{3}$

161.

Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time $t_1.$ On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time $t_2.$ The time taken by her to walk upon the moving escalator will be:

1.	$\dfrac{t_1t_2}{t_2-t_1}$	2.	$\dfrac{t_1t_2}{t_2+t_1}$
3.	$t_1-t_2$	4.	$\dfrac{t_1+t_2}{2}$

162.

The $x$ and $y$ coordinates of the particle at any time are $x=5 t-2 t^2$ and ${y}=10{t}$ respectively, where $x$ and $y$ are in meters and $\mathrm{t}$ in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at $\mathrm{t}=2$ s is:

1.	$5\hat{i}~\text{m/s}^2$	2.	$-4\hat{i}~\text{m/s}^2$
3.	$-8\hat{j}~\text{m/s}^2$	4.	$0$

163.

One end of the string of length $l$ is connected to a particle of mass $m$ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed $v$, the net force on the particle (directed towards the center) will be: ($T$ represents the tension in the string)
1. $T+\frac{m v^2}{l}$
2. $T-\frac{m v^2}{l}$
3. zero
4. $T$

164.

A block of mass $m$ is placed on a smooth inclined wedge $ABC$ of inclination $\theta$ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration '$a$' towards the right. The relation between $a$ and $\theta$ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is:

1. $a = \dfrac{g}{\mathrm{cosec }~ \theta}$
2. $a = \dfrac{g}{\sin\theta}$
3. $a = g\cos\theta$
4. $a = g\tan\theta$

165. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count $0.001$ cm. The main scale reading is $5$ mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with $25$ divisions above the reference level. If the screw gauge has a zero error of $-0.004$ cm, the correct diameter of the ball is:

1.	$0.521$ cm	2.	$0.525$ cm
3.	$0.053$ cm	4.	$0.529$ cm

166.

A ship $A$ is moving westward with a speed of $10~\text{kmph}$ and a ship $B,$ $100 ~\text{km}$ south of $A,$ is moving northward with a speed of $10~\text{kmph}.$ The time after which the distance between them becomes the shortest is:
1. $0~\text{h}$
2. $5~\text{h}$
3. $5\sqrt{2}~\text{h}$
4. $10\sqrt{2}~\text{h}$

167.

The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination $\theta$ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction between the block and the lower half of the plane is given by:
1. $\mu=2/\tan \theta$
2. $\mu=2\tan \theta$
3. $\mu=\tan \theta$
4. $\mu=1/\tan \theta$

168.

Three blocks with masses $m$, $2m$, and $3m$ are connected by strings as shown in the figure. After an upward force $F$ is applied on block $m$, the masses move upward at constant speed $v$. What is the net force on the block of mass $2m$? ($g$ is the acceleration due to gravity)

1.	$2~mg$	2.	$3~mg$
3.	$6~mg$	4.	zero

169.

A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances $h_1,~h_2$ and $h_3$ in the first $5$ seconds, the next $5$ seconds and the next $5$ seconds respectively. The relation between $h_1,~h_2$ and $h_3$ is:

1.	$h_1=\frac{h_2}{3}=\frac{h_3}{5}\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ $
2.	$h_2=3h_1$ and $h_3=3h_2$
3.	$h_1=h_2=h_3$
4.	$h_1=2h_2=3h_3$

170.

The velocity $v$ of a particle at time $t$ is given by $v=at+\dfrac{b}{t+c}$, where $a,$ $b$ and $c$ are constants. The dimensions of $a,$ $b$ and $c$ are respectively:
1. $\left[{LT}^{-2}\right],[{L}] \text { and }[{T}]$
2. $ {\left[{L}^2\right],[{T}] \text { and }\left[{LT}^2\right]} $
3. $ {\left[{LT}^2\right],[{LT}] \text { and }[{L}]} $
4. $ {[{L}],[{LT}] \text { and }\left[{T}^2\right]}$

171.

The speed of a swimmer in still water is $20~\text{m/s}.$ The speed of river water is $10~\text{m/s}$ and is flowing due east. If he is standing on the south bank and wishes to cross the river along the shortest path, the angle at which he should make his strokes with respect to the north is given by:

1.	$45^{\circ}$ west of north	2.	$30^{\circ}$ west of north
3.	$0^{\circ}$ west of north	4.	$60^{\circ}$ west of north

172.

In an experiment, the percentage errors that occurred in the measurement of physical quantities $A,$ $B,$ $C,$ and $D$ are $1\%$, $2\%$, $3\%$, and $4\%$ respectively. Then, the maximum percentage of error in the measurement of $X,$ where $X=\frac{A^2 B^{\frac{1}{2}}}{C^{\frac{1}{3}} D^3}$, will be:
1. $10\%$
2. $\frac{3}{13}\%$
3. $16\%$
4. $-10\%$

173.

A block of mass $10~\text{kg}$ is in contact with the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius $1~\text{m}.$ The coefficient of friction between the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is $0.1.$ The minimum angular velocity needed for the cylinder, which is vertical and rotating about its axis, will be:
$\left(g= 10~\text{m/s}^2\right )$
1. $10~\pi~\text{rad/s}$
2. $\sqrt{10}~\pi~\text{rad/s}$
3. $\frac{10}{2\pi}~\text{rad/s}$
4. $10~\text{rad/s}$

174.

Two particles $A$ and $B$ are moving in a uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii $r_A$ and $r_B$ with speeds $v_A$ and $v_B$ respectively. Their time periods of rotation are the same. The ratio of the angular speed of $A$ to that of $B$ will be:

1.	$ 1: 1 $	2.	$r_A: r_B $
3.	$v_A: v_B $	4.	$r_B: r_A$

175. A person standing on the floor of an elevator drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor in time $t_1,$ if the elevator is moving uniformly and time $t_2,$ if the elevator is stationary. Then:

1.	$t_1<t_2 $ or $t_1>t_2 $ depending upon whether the lift is going up or down.
2.	$t_1<t_2 $
3.	$t_1>t_2 $
4.	$t_1=t_2 $

176.

Two bullets are fired horizontally and simultaneously towards each other from the rooftops of two buildings (building being $100~\text{m}$ apart and being of the same height of $200~\text{m}$) with the same velocity of $25~\text{m/s}.$ When and where will the two bullets collide?
$(g = 10~\text{m/s}^2)$

1.	After $2~\text{s}$ at a height of $180~\text{m}$
2.	After $2~\text{s}$ at a height of $20~\text{m}$
3.	After $4~\text{s}$ at a height of $120~\text{m}$
4.	They will not collide.

177.

A body of mass $m$ is kept on a rough horizontal surface (coefficient of friction = $\mu).$ A horizontal force is applied to the body, but it does not move. The resultant of normal reaction and the frictional force acting on the object is given by $\vec {F}$ where:
1. $|{\vec {F}}| = mg+\mu mg$
2. $|\vec {F}| =\mu mg$
3. $|\vec {F}| \le mg\sqrt{1+\mu^2}$
4. $|\vec{F}| = mg$

178. A person travelling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity $v_1$ for a certain distance $x$ and with a constant velocity $v_2$ for the next equal distance. The average velocity $v$ is given by the relation:

1.	$\dfrac{1}{v} = \dfrac{1}{v_1}+\dfrac{1}{v_2}$	2.	$\dfrac{2}{v} = \dfrac{1}{v_1}+\dfrac{1}{v_2}$
3.	$\dfrac{v}{2} = \dfrac{v_1+v_2}{2}$	4.	$v = \sqrt{v_1v_2}$

179.

A man standing on a road holds his umbrella at $30^{\circ}$ with the vertical to keep the rain away. He throws the umbrella and starts running at $10$ km/hr. He finds that raindrops are hitting his head vertically. The speed of raindrops with respect to the road will be:
1. $10$ km/hr
2. $20$ km/hr
3. $30$ km/hr
4. $40$ km/hr

180.

Figure shows a body of mass m moving with a uniform speed v along a circle of radius r. The change in velocity in going from A to B is

1. $v \sqrt{2}$
2. $v / \sqrt{2}$
3. v
4. zero

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1.	The uncertainty principle is\(\Delta x \cdot \Delta p \geq \dfrac{h}{4 \pi} \)
2.	Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry, and a more balanced arrangement.
3.	The energy of the 2s orbital is less than the energy of the 2p orbital in the case of hydrogen-like atoms.
4.	De-Broglie's wavelength is given by\(\lambda=\dfrac{h}{m v} \), where m= mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle.

1.	\(\mathrm{CO_2}\)	2.	\(\mathrm{CH_4}\)
3.	\(\mathrm{NH_3}\)	4.	\(\mathrm{NF_3}\)

1.	\(5,1,1,+ {1 \over2}\)	2.	\(6,0,0,+ {1 \over2}\)
3.	\(5,0,0,+ {1 \over2}\)	4.	\(5,1,0,+ {1 \over2}\)

\((\mathrm{I})\)	25.12
\((\mathrm{II})\)	2009
\((\mathrm{III})\)	4.156
\((\mathrm{IV})\)	1.217 × 10⁻⁴

1.	\(\frac{a-f}{1+b}\)	2.	\(\frac{a+f}{2(b-1)}\)
3.	\(\frac{a+f}{2(b+1)}\)	4.	\(\frac{f-a}{2(1+b)}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{t_1t_2}{t_2-t_1}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{t_1t_2}{t_2+t_1}\)
3.	\(t_1-t_2\)	4.	\(\dfrac{t_1+t_2}{2}\)

1.	\(5\hat{i}~\text{m/s}^2\)	2.	\(-4\hat{i}~\text{m/s}^2\)
3.	\(-8\hat{j}~\text{m/s}^2\)	4.	\(0\)

1.	\(h_1=\frac{h_2}{3}=\frac{h_3}{5}\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \)
2.	\(h_2=3h_1\) and \(h_3=3h_2\)
3.	\(h_1=h_2=h_3\)
4.	\(h_1=2h_2=3h_3\)

1.	\(45^{\circ}\) west of north	2.	\(30^{\circ}\) west of north
3.	\(0^{\circ}\) west of north	4.	\(60^{\circ}\) west of north

1.	\(t_1<t_2 \) or \(t_1>t_2 \) depending upon whether the lift is going up or down.
2.	\(t_1<t_2 \)
3.	\(t_1>t_2 \)
4.	\(t_1=t_2 \)

1.	\(Mv\)	2.	\(2Mv\)
3.	\(\dfrac{Mv}{2}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{Mv}{3}\)

1.	\(0.521\) cm	2.	\(0.525\) cm
3.	\(0.053\) cm	4.	\(0.529\) cm

1.	\(2~mg\)	2.	\(3~mg\)
3.	\(6~mg\)	4.	zero

1.	After \(2~\text{s}\) at a height of \(180~\text{m}\)
2.	After \(2~\text{s}\) at a height of \(20~\text{m}\)
3.	After \(4~\text{s}\) at a height of \(120~\text{m}\)
4.	They will not collide.

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{v} = \dfrac{1}{v_1}+\dfrac{1}{v_2}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{2}{v} = \dfrac{1}{v_1}+\dfrac{1}{v_2}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{v}{2} = \dfrac{v_1+v_2}{2}\)	4.	\(v = \sqrt{v_1v_2}\)

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