Super Revision Live Session - Unit 8: Biology in Human Welfare

1.

Lactic Acid Bacillus, while used for converting milk to curd, increases the nutritional value of curd by adding vitamin:

1.	A	2.	B₁₂
3.	C	4.	D

2.

The ‘Roquefort’ cheese is ripened by a species of the genus:

1.	Penicillium	2.	Lactobacillus
3.	Propionibacterium	4.	Saccharomyces

3.

Which of the following fermented beverages is likely to have the least ethyl alcohol content?

1.	Whisky	2.	Brandy
3.	Rum	4.	Beer

4.

Alexander Fleming discovered Penicillin and named it after:

1.	Penicillium chrysogenum	2.	Penicillium roqueforti
3.	Penicillium notatum	4.	Penicillium camemberti

5.

Citric acid can be produced industrially with the help of:
1. Aspergillus oryzae
2. Aspergillus niger
3. Aspergillus fumigatus
4. Aspergillus flavus

6.

Fruit juices can be clarified with the use of:

1.	Lipases	2.	Papain
3.	Pectinase and protease	4.	Glucoamylase

7.

Match each item in column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Monascus purpureus	P	Thrombolytic
B	Trichoderma polysporum	Q	Immunosuppressant
C	Streptococcus pyogenes	R	Antibiotics
D	Streptomyces griseus	S	Statins

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1	S	Q	R	P
2	Q	S	P	R
3	Q	S	R	P
4	S	Q	P	R

8.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	BOD is an indirect measure of the organic matter present in the water.
II:	The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by microorganisms in a sample of water.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	Only II is correct.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

9.

In the anaerobic sludge digesters during sewage water treatment:

1.	The primary sludge is treated with aerobic microbes and activated sludge is created
2.	The primary sludge is treated with anaerobic microbes and activated sludge is created
3.	The activated sludge is digested by anaerobic microbes producing biogas during the process
4.	The activated sludge is digested by aerobic microbes producing biogas during the process

10.

Consider the given two statements:

I.	Cattle dung can be used for the generation of biogas, commonly called gobar gas.
II.	The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by microorganisms in a sample of water.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

11.

Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for:

1.	Species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticidal applications
2.	Species-specific, broad-spectrum insecticidal applications
3.	Biocontrol of fungal diseases
4.	Biocontrol of aphids and mosquitoes

12.

Which of the following serve as important biofertilizers in paddy fields?
1. Rhizobia
2. Frankia
3. Nitrobacter
4. Cynobacteria

13.

Given below are the results of three water samples subjected to BOD test:

I:	Sample A can be from secondary effluent discharged from an STP.
II:	Sample B can be from a river presumed to be mild to moderately polluted.
III:	Sample C can be from untreated sewage water.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

14.

The SARS CoV 2 is not transmitted by:

1.	Droplet from cough and sneeze
2.	Contact with a contaminated surface
3.	Mosquito bite
4.	Droplet from speaking

15.

The occurrence of chills and fever in malaria is associated with:

1.	Rupture of hepatocytes during exo-erythrocytic cycle of the parasite
2.	Inoculation of the sporozoite by the mosquito bite into humans
3.	Release of haemozoin due to rupture of RBCs by the parasite
4.	Development of the adult trophozoite in the RBC

16.

All the following diseases can be caused by a bacterial infection except:

1.	Dysentery	2.	Diphtheria
3.	Plague	4.	African sleeping sickness

17.

The name Mary Mallon is associated with:

1.	Tuberculosis	2.	Typhoid
3.	Leprosy	4.	Rabies

18.

Which of the following diseases in man is not transmitted by a mosquito bite?

1.	Dengue fever	2.	Filariasis
3.	Ascariasis	4.	Malaria

19.

Ringworm is not caused by:

1.	Trichoderma	2.	Microsporum
3.	Trichophyton	4.	Epidermophyton

20.

Which of the following cells can phagocytose microbes only in tissues?

1.	Neutrophil	2.	Natural killer cells
3.	Macrophages	4.	Monocytes

21.

Interferons are secreted by:

1.	Virus infected cells	2.	The viruses themselves
3.	Natural killer cells	4.	T helper cells

22.

What word correctly denotes an enhanced reaction of the body's immune system to an antigen which is related to one previously encountered?

1.	Booster	2.	Primary
3.	Anamnestic	4.	Magnified

23.

Consider the two statements:

I:	The arm of the acquired immunity due to B lymphocytes is called as the humoral response.
II:	B cells, upon differentiation into plasma cells, secrete antibodies that are present in the blood.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. Only II is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

24.

Allergic responses in our body are largely mediated by the antibodies belonging to the class:
1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

25.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the cell-mediated immune response:

1.	It is mediated through the T lymphocytes
2.	A large number of antibodies are secreted by activated T cytotoxic cells
3.	It responds against cancer cells and viral infections
4.	It is responsible for graft rejection

26.

What type of immunity is provided by the convalescent plasma therapy in Covid-19 patients that is in contemporary news?

1.	Naturally acquired active adaptive immunity
2.	Artificially acquired active adaptive immunity
3.	Naturally acquired passive adaptive immunity
4.	Artificially acquired passive adaptive immunity

27.

The Hepatitis B vaccine is produced in recombinant:

1.	E. coli	2.	Yeast
3.	Stem cells	4.	Fibroblasts

28.

Which of the following is not an auto-immune disorder in humans?

1.	Rheumatoid arthritis	2.	Myasthenia gravis
3.	Emphysema	4.	Graves’ disease

29.

Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue/organ in our body?

1.	Payer’s patches	2.	Tonsils
3.	Lymph nodes	4.	Thymus

30.

Opportunistic infections are seen in AIDS when HIV significantly destroys:
1. T helper cells
2. T cytotoxic cells
3. B cells
4. Macrophages and dendritic cells

31.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding HIV:

1.	It is a retrovirus with a single copy of RNA
2.	It can be transmitted through breastfeeding
3.	It initially uses macrophages as factories for replication
4.	Progression of the infection to AIDS can take up to 10 years

32.

Cancer cells:

1.	exhibit contact inhibition
2.	show metastasis
3.	undergo controlled and regulated cell division
4.	do not need any nutrients

33.

Diacetyl morphine is commonly known as:

1.	Hashish	2.	Marijuana
3.	Crack	4.	Heroin

34.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Nicotine adversely affects the vascular system as it causes the release of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.
2.	The antidote of methyl alcohol poisoning is ethyl alcohol.
3.	Alcohol suppresses ADH secretion and decreases urine output.
4.	Presence of ‘withdrawal symptoms’ shows drug dependence.

35.

Anabolic steroids are frequently abused. Their side effects include all of the following except:

1.	Masculinization in females
2.	Mood swings and depression in females
3.	Reduction in size of testicles in males
4.	Reduction in size of the prostate in males

36.

Milk yield in cattle is primarily dependent on:

1.	Quality of breeds	2.	Disease resistance
3.	Good care of cattle	4.	Hormonal treatments

37.

To evolve a pure line in any animal, inbreeding:

1.	is to be avoided as it exposes harmful alleles
2.	is bad as it causes inbreeding depression
3.	is necessary as inbreeding induces homozygosity
4.	Unlike plants, there is no need to evolve a pure line in animals

38.

The best method for animals that are below average in productivity in milk production is:
1. Inbreeding
2. Out-crossing
3. Cross-breeding
4. Interspecific hybridization

39.

Consider the two statements:

I:	In MOET procedures, the embryos are transferred into the uterus of surrogates.
II:	Surrogates are always superior in reproductive function than the chosen genetic mother.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

40.

The most important species of honeybee reared in India is:

1.	Apis indica	2.	Apis mellifera
3.	Apis dorsata	4.	Apis florea

41.

Which of the following is not an edible marine fish?

1.	Mackerel	2.	Catla
3.	Hilsa	4.	Sardines

42.

The root of any successful plant breeding program is:
1. Effective germplasm collection
2. Availability of facilities for rDNA technology
3. Availability of pure lines
4. Presence of different agro-climatic zones

43.

In plant breeding step which step actually improves the crop?
1. Evaluation and selection of parents
2. Cross hybridization among the selected parents
3. Selection of superior recombinants
4. Testing of new cultivars

44.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Column I	Column II
1.	Sonalika and Kalyan Sona	Improved varieties of wheat
2.	Jaya and Ratna	Improved varieties of maize
3	Saccharum Barberi	Poor sugar content and yield
4.	Saccharum officinarum	High sugar content and thick stems

45.

Resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew in mung bean:

1.	was transferred from a wild variety
2.	was the result of inter-specific hybridization
3.	was induced by mutation
4.	was the result of somaclonal variation

46.

Identify the incorrectly matched row:

	Crop	Variety	Resistant to
1.	Cauliflower	Pusa Snowball K1	Black rot and Curl blight black rot
2.	Chilli	Pusa Sadabahar	Mosaic virus and Leaf curl
3.	Flat bean	Pusa Gaurav	Jassids
4.	Okra	Pusa sawani	Shoot and fruit borer

47.

Which of the following is not an example of biofortification?
1. Iodized salt
2. Atlas 66
3. Golden rice
4. Maize hybrids with increased lysine and tryptophan

48.

Methylophilus methylotrophus is a source of:

1.	Bioinsecticide	2.	Single cell protein
3.	Thrombolytic	4.	Clotting factors

49.

The best explants for obtaining virus-free plants in micropropagation are:

1.	Meristems
2.	Embryos
3.	Anther
4.	Permanent tissue

50.

Protoplast fusion can be achieved with the use of:

1.	Colchicine	2.	Polyethylene Glycol
3.	Polyacryl amide	4.	Ethidium bromide

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