Target Test

Botany - Section A

1.

Consider the following features:

I.	Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll c
II.	Fucoxanthin
III.	Floridean starch
IV.	Flagella 2 in number, unequal and lateral

Which of these are seen in Phaeophyceae?
1. I, II, III
2. I, II, IV
3. II, III, IV
4. I, II, III, IV

2.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Chlamydomonas:	Microscopic unicellular algae
2.	Volvox:	Colonial algae
3.	Ulothrix:	Filamentous algae
4.	Fucus:	Isogamous algae

3.

Viroids differ from viruses in having
1. DNA molecules with protein coat
2. DNA molecules without protein coat
3. RNA molecules with protein coat
4. RNA molecules without protein coat

4.

Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
(1) Haplontic, Diplontic
(2) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(3) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(4) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

5.

Read the following statements (IV) and answer the question which follows them

I.	In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living.
II.	Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterospores.
III.	Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.
IV.	The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

6.

If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
1. Types of pigments present in the cell
2. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
3. Structural organisation of thallus
4. Chemical composition of the cell wall

7.

The fruiting bodies of Agaricus are also known as
1. cleistothecium
2. fairy rings
3. basidiocarp
4. ascocarp

8.

SER and RER can be distinguished with its presence in

1.	protein synthesising cells
2.	protein and fat synthesising cells
3.	carbohydrates and fat synthesising cells
4.	lipid and protein synthesising cells

9.

The total DNA content of each daughter cell is reduced during meiosis because:

1.	Chromosomes do not replicate during the interphase preceding meiosis I
2.	Chromosomes do not replicate between meiosis I and II
3.	Half of the chromosomes from each gamete are lost during fertilization
4.	Chromosome arms are lost during crossing over

10.

In membranes, the lipids are arranged within the membrane with the ______heads towards the outer sides and the _________ tails towards the inner part.
(1)polar, charged
(2)polar, hydrophobic
(3)polar, nonpolar
(4)Both B and C

11.

If meiosis in zygote results in haploid spores, then ploidy of adult cells should be-
a. Haploid
b. Diploid
c. Dikaryon
d. None of the above

12.

Dikaryophase of fungus is-

1.	Two nuclei per cell
2.	Diploid nucleus
3.	Two nuclei per mycelium
4.	More than one options are correct.

13.

Read the following statements :

A.	The male or female cones or strobili may be borne on same tree in Pinus.
B.	In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
C.	Stem of Cycas is branched and of Pinus and Cedrus is unbranched.
D.	In gymnosperms generally tap roots are found.

Select the correct statements.
1. A, B
2. A, B, D
3. A, B, C
4. C, D

14.

Read the following statements.
(a) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(b) Bryophytes have well developed vessels and sieve tubes.
(c) Strobilus is found in the main plant body of Equisetum.
(d) Antheridia are absent but archegonia are present in female storobil of gymnosperms.
Choose the correct option.
1. All of these 2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. Only (a) 4. (b) and (c)

15.

The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is

1.	Prophase	2.	M phase
3.	S phase	4.	G1 phase

16.

Algae is not

1.	Chlorophyll-bearing
2.	Simple Thalloid
3.	Mainly Fresh water
4.	Largely Aquatic

17.

Asexual reproduction is by the production of different types of spores. Out of that most common is

1.	Carpospore	2.	Zoospores
3.	Basidiospores	4.	Akinetes

18.

The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is:

1.	Pachytene	2.	Diplotene
3.	Diakinesis	4.	Zygotene

19.

State True (T) or False (F) to the given statements and select the correct option

(A)	Abundance of lichens in any area indicates that the area is highly polluted with SO₂.
(B)	Mycobiont partner of lichens is always heterotrophic.
(C)	Body of lichens is made up of phycobionts only.

(A) (B) (C)
1. T T F
2. F T F
3. F F F
4. T F F

20.

Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Sea- fan (Gorgonia)
3. Saccharomyces
4. Green algae

21. Bryophytes are attached to the substratum by rhizoids that are:
1. Unicellular
2. Multicellular
3. Acellular
4. Unicellular or multicellular

22.

Which of the following is the correct sequence / route of the secretory product?

1.	ER $\to$ Vesicles $\to$ Cis region of GB $\to$ Trans region of GB $\to$ Vesicle $\to$ Plasma membrane.
2.	RER $\to$ GB $\to$ Lysosome $\to$ Nuclear membrane $\to$ Plasma membrane.
3.	ER $\to$ Vesicles $\to$ Trans region of GB $\to$ Cis region of GB $\to$ Vesicles $\to$ Plasma membrane.
4.	Lysosome $\to$ ER $\to$ GB $\to$ Vesicles $\to$ Cell membrane.

23.

Consider the following statements:

I:	G₀ phase is viewed as either an extended G₁ phase where the cell is neither dividing nor preparing to divide or as a distinct quiescent stage which occurs outside of the cell cycle.
II:	In gamete production interphase is succeeded by meiosis.
III:	In programmed cell death interphase is followed or preempted by apoptosis.

The correct statements include:

1.	II and III	2.	I and III
3.	I, II, and III	4.	I only

24.

Each pole receives half the chromosome number of the
parent cell, is true for which stage?
1. Anaphase - II
2. Anaphase - I
3. Telophase-I
4. Telophase-II

25.

According to the five-kingdom classification system, which of the following kingdom has multicellular/loose tissue level body organization?
1. Protista
2. Plantae
3. Animalia
4. Fungi

26.

Which of the following is not associated with chloroplast of higher plants?
1. Thylakoid
2. Grana
3. Quantasome
4. Pyrenoids

27.

Chromatin condensation and movement of duplicated centriole towards opposite pole can be observed during -

1.	Prophase	2.	Metaphase
3.	Anaphase	4.	Telophase

28.

The synthesis of spindle proteins occurs during
1. $G_{1}$ -phase
2. S-phase
3. $G_{2}$ -phase
4. M-phase

29.

Movement of ions or molecules against the prevailing direction of the electrochemical gradient is

1.	Diffusion
2.	Passive transport
3.	Active transport
4.	Pinocytosis

30.

X-ray crystallography is useful in the study of

1.	Lipid structure
2.	Three-dimensional structure of proteins
3.	Arrangement of proteins
4.	Composition of nucleic acids and proteins

31.

The characteristic pigment found in brown algae is

1.	Phycocyanin
2.	Fucoxanthin
3.	Phycoerytherin
4.	Haematochrome

32.

The primary cell wall is the part of a eukaryotic cell wall which is

1.	closest to the inside of the cell
2.	in the middle of the cell wall
3.	the farthest outside of the cell
4.	the strongest of the three layers

33.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The centromere is termed as the primary constriction of a chromosome
II:	The secondary constrictions are always constant in their positions
III:	The chromosomes having a satellite are marker chromosomes
IV:	The chromosomes bend at the secondary constrictions when they are pulled at anaphase

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I, II and III
2. I and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I, II, III and IV

34.

Which stage of the mitotic division in a cell shown in the options depicts a ‘transition’ to metaphase?

1.		2.
3.		4.

35.

Choose the incorrectly matched pair:
1. Ulothrix – Zygote is single celled diploid generation
2. Spirogyra – Zygote is a resistant structure
3. Cycas – Coralloid roots
4. Fucus – Isogametes

Botany - Section B

36.

Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the option accordingly

(A)	Members of Rhodophyceae asexually reproduce by motile spores
(B)	Members of Phaeophyceae do not show isogamous type of sexual reproduction
(C)	In some green algae, food is stored in the form of oil droplets

	(A)	(B)	(C)
1.	T	F	T
2.	F	F	F
3.	F	F	T
4.	T	T	F

37.

Which disease of man is similar to cattle's, bovine spongiform encephalopathy:

1.	Encephalitis	2.	Jacob-Creutzfeldt disease
3.	Spongiocitis of cerebrum	4.	Spondylitis

38.

The cell organelle capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins & lipids

(a)	is lysosomes
(b)	contains enzymes which are optimally active at acidic pH
(c)	is a type of microbody

Choose the correct option:

1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b) and (c)

39. Identify the stage of meiotic cell division, which is followed by cytokinesis, leading to the formation of a dyad of cells:

1.	Anaphase I	2.	Telophase I
3.	Anaphase II	4.	Telophase II

40.

Identify the fungi which do not belong to the group of other fungi among the following:

1.	Sac-fungi	2.	Puffballs
3.	Mushrooms	4.	Bracket Fungi

41. A eukaryotic cell undergoes division. At one point it has pairs of chromosomes being separated by spindle fibres and moving towards the poles of the cell.
What stage of division is this?

1.	anaphase in Meiosis I
2.	anaphase in Mitosis
3.	metaphase in Mitosis
4.	metaphase in Meiosis II

42. The diagrams show five different microscopic structures. The structures are not drawn to the same scale. Which of these structures is the smallest?

1.	4	2.	5
3.	1	4.	2

43. Functions related to Golgi complex is/are

a.	Polymerisation of amino acids
b.	Formation of glycoproteins
c.	Modification of proteins

1. a only
2. b and c only
3. All a, b and c
4. b only

44.

Assertion (A):	Plant and animal kingdoms have been constant under all different classification systems.
Reason (R):	The understanding of what groups/organisms are included under these kingdoms have been changing over the time.

Choices for Assertions and reasons:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

45. All the following given differences between fungi belonging to Phycomycetes and Basidiomycetes are correct except:

		Phycomycetes	Basidiomycetes
1.	Mycelium	Branched and septate	Aseptate and coenocytic
2.	Asexual spores	Zoospores or aplanospores	Generally not found
3.	Notable examples	Bread mould and Albugo	Rust and Smut fungi
4.	Dikaryon stage	Not seen	Present

46. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	In anaphase stage chromatids move to opposite poles.
Reason (R):	Anaphase is the shortest phase.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

47. Chromatophores and mesosomes are both membranous extensions into the cytoplasm but still they differ from each other as former helps in __A_ and latter helps in B .
Fill the above blanks choosing the correct option.

	A	B
1.	Respiration	Photosynthesis
2.	Cell wall formation	DNA replication
3.	Photosynthesis	Respiration
4.	DNA replication	Secretion process

48. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced endogenously in the basidium
Reason (R):	In ascomycetes, ascospores are produced exogenously in ascus

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

49. Onion root tip cell has 16 chromosomes. This cell will have 16 chromosomes:
I: at G₁ phase
II: after S phase
III: after M phase
1. I is correct; II & III are incorrect
2. I & II are correct; III is incorrect
3. I, II & III are correct
4. I, II & III are not correct

50. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	At Metaphase I the chromosomes align at the equator and the microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of sister chromatids.
Statement II:	At metaphase II the bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate and microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the kinetochore of homologous chromosomes.

1.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
2.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is incorrect.
3.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is correct.
4.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Zoology - Section A

51.

What keeps the lungs inflated even during expiration?
1. The smooth muscles of the lung
2. The diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone
3. The visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs
4. Surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

52.

A person passes a lot of dilute urine and drinks a lot of water but does not have glycosuria. He is most likely suffering from :
1. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
2. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
3. Pituitary diabetes
4. Diabetes insipidus

53.

Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in the male frogs.
(1) Testis → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(2) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
(3) Test → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca
(4) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

54.

Which of the following does not favor the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
1. Alcohol
2. Caffeine
3. Renin
4. Atrial-natriuretic factor

55.

In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct ?
1. Floating ribs-2 pairs
2. Collar bones-3 pairs
3. Salivary glands-1 pair
4. Cranial nerves-10 pairs

56.

Which of the following process of urine formation takes place all along the renal tubule and collecting duct?
1. Ultrafiltration and tubular reabsorption
2. Ultrafiltration and tubular secretion
3. Tubular reabsorption and secretion
4. Anti-current mechanism and reabsorption

57.

Which tissue in the tubular parts of nephrons provide the function of secretion and absorption ?
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium

58.

A, B, C, D and E in the following diagram are :

(1) Small tubules, seminal vesicle, right phallomere, titillator, left phallomere
(2) Small tubules, seminal vesicle, left phallomere, titillator, right phallomere
(3) Small tubules, phallic gland, right phallomere, pseudopenis, left phallomere
(4) Small tubules, seminal vesicle, ventral phallomere, titillator, left phallomere

59.

What is the main tissue type comprising tendons and ligaments?
1. loose connective
2. fibrous connective
3. cartilage
4. reticular connective

60.

Which of the following layers comes first when one goes from outside to the inside of Bowman's capsule?

1.Endothelium

2.Epithelium of Bowman's Capsule

3.Basement Membrane

4.Macula Densa layer

61.

Which of the following substances are not reabsorbed by passive means of transport in tubules?

1.Water

2.Nitrogenous waste

3.Glutamate

4.Urea

62.

The release of urine does not take place by

(1) Contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder
(2) Simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter
(3) Relaxation of smooth muscels of the bladder
(4) Both B and C

63.

The tentacles of Hydra do not help in

1. Capturing prey
2. Locomotion
3. Movement of water out of the body
4. Both A and C

64.

The partial pressure of CO₂ is minimum in the
1. atmospheric air
2. Alveoli
3. Deoxygenated blood
4. Oxygenated blood

65.

Sliding filament theory can be best explained as
1. when myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filament do not shorten
2. actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
3. actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
4. when myofilament slide pass each other myosin filament shorten while actin filaments do not shorten

66.

Normal activities of the human heart are regulated:
1. Intrinsically
2. By the autonomic nervous system
3. By the brain stem
4. By the diencephalon

67.

Lymph has the following
(i) Same mineral distribution as that of plasma
(ii) Intestine also has lymph
(iii) Also known as tissue fluid because it helps in exchange
(iv) Lymph plays role in defence as well
How many statements are correct?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1

68.

The greater the number of blood vessels dilated, the ________.
1. higher the blood pressure
2. lower the blood pressure
3. faster the heartbeat
4. slower the heartbeat

69.

Assertion (A): Hibernation during winter and aestivation during summer is seen in frogs.
Reason (R): Frogs are poikilotherms.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are true both R is not the correct explanation for A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true.

70.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding anatomy of human kidney:

1.	Adrenal gland is located at the inferior pole of each kidney
2.	Columns of Bertini are extensions of cortex into medulla
3.	Right kidney is slightly lower in location than the left kidney
4.	The renal pelvis continues into the ureter

71.

Which is not correctly matched?
1. Malpighian tubules - Cockroaches, Mosquito
2. Antennal glands - Planaria, Crab
3. Nephridia - Earthworm
4. Protonephridia - Amphioxus

72.

The thickness of the respiratory membrane is approximately
(1) 1 micron
(2) 2 micron
(3) 0.2 mm
(4) 2 mm

73.

Identify the disease characterized by an abnormal, permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, coupled with the destruction of walls, but without obvious fibrosis.
(1) asthma
(2) emphysema
(3) pulmonary fibrosis
(4) pneumothorax

74.

Cilia in the trachea and bronchi:
(1) move air into and out of the lungs
(2) increase the surface area for gas exchange
(3) filter the air that rushes through them
(4) sweep mucus with its trapped particles up and out of the respiratory tract

75.

During muscle contraction the heads of the cross-bridges bind with the ATP:
(1) before contraction begins
(2) just after the contraction begins
(3) midway during the contraction
(4) towards the end of the contraction

76.

The only unpaired bone in the facial skeleton is the:
(1) Palatine
(2) Inferior nasal concha
(3) Lacrimal
(4) Vomer

77.

In a contracted skeletal muscle fiber
1. M line disappears
2. H-zone elongates
3. l-band remains constant
4. A-band disappears

78.

Cardiac muscle fibres are
1. Striated and involuntary
2. Striated and voluntary
3. Non-striated and involuntary
4. Non-striated and voluntary

79.

Match the following columns.

	Column I		Column II
A.	Proximal convoluted tubule.	1.	Formation of concentrated urine
B.	Distal convoluted tubule	2.	Filtration of blood
C.	Henle’s loop	3.	Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes
D.	Counter current mechanisms	4.	lonic balance
E.	Renal corpuscle	5.	Maintenance of concentration gradient in medulla.

Codes

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	3	5	4	2	1
2.	3	4	1	5	2
3.	1	3	2	5	4
4.	3	1	4	5	2

80.

Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin will shift to right of normal curve if
1. Temperature decreases
2. CO $_{2}$ decreases
3. pH decreases
4. BPG is low

81. During the mechanism of muscle contraction, following events occur
(I) Myosin head activated by ATP hydrolysis binds to exposed active sites to form cross bridge
(II) Pulling of actin filaments towards A-band leads to contraction
(III) Acetylcholine is released at neuromuscular junction which generate action potential
(IV) Release of Ca⁺² ions from SR , binds to subunit troponin of actin filaments
Which of the following sequence of above events is correct ?
1. (I) , (II) ,(III) , (IV )
2. (III) , (IV) , (II) , (I)
3. (III) , (IV) , (I) , (II)
4. (III) , (II) , (IV) , (I)

82. At 40 mm Hg partial pressure of oxygen, the percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen is expected to be about:
1. 50 %
2. 75 %
3. 95 %
4. 99 %

83. Under normal physiological conditions, what percent of haemoglobin is saturated with oxygen when the partial pressure of oxygen is 40 mm Hg?
1. 50
2. 75
3. 90
4. 98

84. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:

1.	Pavo	2.	Ornithorhynchus
3.	Salamandra	4.	Hippocampus

85. Consider the statements given below and choose the option that correctly states them as true (T) or false (F)

(a)	Locomotion, changes of body postures and heat production are some of the functions of skeletal muscle tissue
(b)	Actin filaments are firmly attached to the Z-line
(c)	The portion of myofibril between non-consecutive 'Z' lines is called sacromere
(d)	Muscles constitute more than 50% of the body weight in an adult human

	a	b	c	d
1.	T	T	T	T
2.	T	F	F	T
3.	T	T	F	F
4.	F	T	T	T

Zoology - Section B

86. Identify the incorrect statement regarding Rana tigrina:
1. Forebrain includes olfactory lobes.
2. Midbrain includes optic lobes.
3. Hindbrain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
4. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves.

87.

Assertion (A):	Human heart is myogenic.
Reason (R):	Entire human heart is made up of a cardiac muscles.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

88. Assertion (A): The 'T-wave' represents return to the ventricle from excited to normal state.
Reason (R): The end of 'T-wave' marks the end of diastole.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

89. Read the following statements:
i. Scapula is situated in the dorsal part of thorax between the second and the seventh ribs
ii. The striated appearance of a myofibril is due to the distribution pattern of sarcoplasmic reticulum
iii. Myosin possess oxygen storing capacity
iv. The central hollow portion of vertebra is called neural canal
v. I-band shortens during muscle contraction
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
One

90. Which of the following is incorrect about the portal venous system?
1. Hepatic portal vein exists between liver and intestine
2. Hepatic vein exists between both the lobes of liver
3. Renal portal occurs between the kidney and lower parts of body
4. All

91. The frog's blood:

1.	Is composed of corpuscles but lack plasma
2.	Contains RBCs, WBCs and platelets or thrombocytes and plasma
3.	Contains RBCs which are oval, biconvex and nucleated
4.	Is related to more than one option mentioned above

92.
Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Role of oxygen in regulation of respiratory rhythm centre is quite insignificant.
Reason (R):	Chemosensitive area situated adjacent to respiratory rhythm centre is highly sensitive to CO₂ and H⁺ ion concentration and not to O₂.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

93. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Morphology refers to the form and structure of animals and plants, studied as a science.
Statement II:	Anatomy is concerned with the identification and description of the body structures of living things.

1. Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

94. During ventricular diastole:

I:	closure of semilunar valves occurs.
II:	the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are pushed open.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

95. Read following sentences carefully and select the incorrect one
1. During expiration $pO_2$ of expired air is more than alveolar air but less than atmospheric air
2. During expiration $pCO_2$ of expired air is less than $pCO_2$ of alveolar air and more than $pCO_2$ of atmospheric air
3. Sum of partial pressure of all gases at sea level is 760 mm Hg
4. The partial pressure of $O_2$ and $CO_2$ in the systemic veins is same as that in pulmonary vein

96. Myocardial ischaemia leads to a symptom of acute chest pain which is called
1. Coronary artery disease
2. Fibrillation of heart
3. Angina pectoris
4. Heart block

97. Consider the following statements regarding double blood circulation:

(A)	Pulmonary circulation starts by the pumping of deoxygenated blood from right ventricle into lungs and its retun in oxygenated form to right atrium
(B)	Systemic circulation starts with pumping of oxygenated blood from left ventricle through aorta to all body systems and return of the blood in deoxygenated form into left atrium through veins

Select the correct answer from the given options:
1. Only statement (A) is correct
2. Only statement (B) is correct
3. Both (A) and (B) are correct
4. Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

98. Select the correct match between items listed in column I with those in column II.

	Column I		Column II
a.	Bicephalic ribs	(i)	Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contractions
b.	Hyaline cartilage	(ii)	12 in number in an adult man
c.	Tetanus	(iii)	Chondroitin salts and lacunae
d.	Thoracic vertebrae	(iv)	Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca⁺⁺ in the body fluid
		(v)	12 pairs in number in adult human

1. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(v)
2. a(v), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
3. a(v), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
4. a(v), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

99. Identify the WBC:

1. Neutrophil
2. Basophil
3. Lymphocyte
4. Monocyte

100. The sino-atrial node is the normal pacemaker of the human heart primarily because:

1.	it is made up of special cardiac muscle.
2.	it is richly innervated by autonomic nerve fibres.
3.	it is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium.
4.	it depolarizes at the fastest rate out of the whole nodal tissue.

Chemistry - Section A

101.

For the energy levels in an atom, which one of the following statements is correct?
1. There are seven principal electron energy levels
2. The second principal energy level can have two 'sub energy levels and contains a maximum of eight electrons
3. The energy level can have a maximum of 32 electrons
4. The 4s sub-energy level is at higher energy than the 3d sub-energy level

102.

The oxidation number of carbon in C₃O₂ and Mg₂C₃ are respectively:
1. -4/3, +4/3
2. +4/3, -4/3
3. -2/3, +2/3
4. -2/3, +4/3

103.

The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV. If radiations of 2000 $A^{0}$ fall on the metal then the kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectron is
1. 1.6 x 10^-19J
2. 16 x 10¹⁰J
3. 3.2 x 10^-19J
4. 6.4 x 10^-10J

104.

The mass of CO₂ that shall be obtained by heating 10 kg of 80 % pure limestone (CaCO₃) is:
1. 4.4 kg
2. 6.6 kg
3. 3.52 kg
4. 8.8 kg

105.

The element having very high electron affinity but zero ionisation enthalpy is:
1. He (due to inert gas configuration)
2. Be (due to fully filled subshell)
3. H (due to presence of allotropes)
4. None of the above

106.

An ideal gas expands at a constant external pressure of 2.0 atmosphere by 20 litre and absorbs 10kJ of heat from surrounding. What is the change in internal energy of the system:-
(1) 4052 J
(2) 5948 J
(3) 14052 J
(4) 9940 J

107.

One mole of methanol when burnt in O₂ gives out 723 kJ mol^-1 of heat. If one mole of O₂ is used, what will be the amount of heat evolved?
1. 482 kJ
2. 241 kJ
3. 723 kJ
4. 924 kJ

108.

The total number of electrons present in 1.6 gm. of methane is [IIT 1976; Roorkee 1985; CPMT 1987, 92]
(1) 6.02 × 10²³
(2) 6.02 × 10²²
(3) 6.02 × 10²¹
(4) 4.02 × 10²⁰

109.

10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. The amount of water produced in this reaction will be:
1. 2 mol
2. 3 mol
3. 4 mol
4. 1 mol

110.

The number of mole of KMnO₄ that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is:
(1) $\frac{3}{5}$
(2) $\frac{4}{5}$
(3) $\frac{2}{5}$
(4) 1

111.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the expansion of one mole of an ideal gas that expands freely and adiabatically into a vacuum until its volume doubles?
1. ΔH = 0
2. ΔS = 0
3. ΔE = 0
4. W = 0

112.

Which of the following represents correct order of electron affinity?
(1) Cl>F>S>O
(2) F>O>S>Cl
(3) F>Cl>S>O
(4) Cl>S>O>F

113.

Consider the following conversions:

(i)	$O_{(g)} + e^{-} \to O_{(g)}^{-} ∆ H_{1}$	(ii)	$F_{(g)} + e^{-} \to F_{(g)}^{-}, ∆ H_{2}$
(iii)	$C l_{(g)} + e^{-} \to C {l^{-}}_{(g)}, ∆ H_{3}$	(iv)	$O_{(g)}^{-} + e^{-} \to O_{(g)}^{2 -}, ∆ H_{4}$

That according to given information the incorrect statement is:

1.	$∆ H_{3}$ is more negative than $∆ H_{1}$ and $∆ H_{2}$
2.	$∆ H_{1}$ is less negative than $∆ H_{2}$
3.	$∆ H_{1}$ , $∆ H_{2}$ and $∆ H_{3}$ are negative whereas $∆ H_{4}$ is positive
4.	$∆ H_{1}$ and $∆ H_{3}$ are negative whereas $∆ H_{2}$ and $∆ H_{4}$ are positive

114.

The molecular geometry that is least likely to result from a trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry is:

1.	Trigonal planar	2.	See-saw
3.	Linear	4.	T-shaped

115.

Out of the two compounds shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular temperature is expected to be:

(A)
(B)

1. Higher than that of A
2. Lower than that of A
3. Same as that of A
4. Can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel

116.

The number of antibonding electrons pairs in ${O_{2}}^{2 -}$ on the basis of MO theory are:
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

117.

The bond energies of $C \equiv C$ , C-H, H-H, and C=C are 198, 98, 103, and 145 kcal respectively.
The enthalpy change of the reaction $HC \equiv CH + H_{2} \to C_{2} H_{4}$ would be:
1. 48 kcal
2. 96 kcal
3. -40 kcal
4. -152 kcal

118.

Which one of the following ions is the most stable in an aqueous solution?
(At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
1. $\text{Cr}^{3 +}$
2. $\text V^{3 +}$
3. $\text{Ti}^{3 +}$
4. $\text{Mn}^{3 +}$

119.

Assuming each reaction is carried out in an open container,
Reaction that shows ΔH=ΔE is :
1. $H_{2} (g) + B r_{2} (g) \to 2 H B r (g)$
2. $C (s) + 2 H_{2} O (g) \to 2 H_{2} (g) + C O_{2} (g)$
3. $P C l_{5} (g) \to P C l_{3} (g) + C l_{2} (g)$
4. $2 C O (g) + O_{2} (g) \to 2 C O_{2} (g)$

120.

Cisplatin, an anticancer drug, has the molecular formula $Pt {({NH}_{3})}_{2} {Cl}_{2}$ . What is the mass (in gram) of one molecule? (Atomic weights : Pt=195, H=1.0, N=14, Cl=35.5)
1.   $4.98 \times 10^{- 21}$
2.   $4.98 \times 10^{- 22}$
3.   $6.55 \times 10^{- 21}$
4.   $3.85 \times 10^{- 22}$

121.

The energy of an electron moving in n^th Bohr's orbit of an element is given by $E_{n} = \frac{- 13.6}{n^{2}} Z^{2}$ eV/atom (Z=atomic number). The graph of $E~ vs . Z^ 2$ (keeping "n" constant) will be:

1.		2.
3.		4.

122.

The largest de Broglie wavelength among the following (all have equal velocity) is:
1. ${CO}_{2}$ molecule
2. ${NH}_{3}$ molecule
3. Electron
4. Proton

123.

Oxidation state of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is :
1. -1
2. +1
3. 0
4. -2

124.

The oxidation number of phosphorus in $Ba \left(H_{2} PO_{2}\right)_{2}$ is-
1. -1
2. +1
3. +2
4. +3

125.

Which of the following reactions does not involve disproportionation process?
1. ${Cl}_{2} + {OH}^{-} \to {Cl}^{-} + {ClO}_{3}^{-} + H_{2} O$
2. $2 H_{2} O_{2} \to H_{2} O + O_{2}$
3. $2 {Cu}^{+} \to {Cu}^{2 +} + Cu$
4. ${({NH}_{4})}_{2} C r_{2} O_{7} \to N_{2} + {Cr}_{2} O_{3} + 4 H_{2} O$

126.

For the redox reaction,
${MnO}_{4}^{-} + C_{2} O_{4}^{2 -} + H^{+} \to {Mn}^{2 +} + {CO}_{2} + H_{2} O$ , the correct coefficients of the reactants ${MnO}_{4}^{-}, C_{2} O_{4}^{-}, H^{+}$ for the balanced reaction are, respectively:
1. 2, 5, 16
2. 16, 3, 12
3. 15, 16, 12
4. 2, 16, 5

127.

Oxidation states of C in Toluene is/are
1. -3
2. -1
3. 0
4. All of these

128.

Given,

$\begin{aligned} & \mathrm{NO}(\mathrm{g})+\mathrm{O}_3(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow \mathrm{NO}_2(\mathrm{~g})+\mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \\ & \Delta \mathrm{H}=-198.9 \mathrm{~kJ} / \mathrm{mol} \\ & \mathrm{O}_3(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 3 / 2 \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) ; \Delta \mathrm{H}=-142.3 \mathrm{~kJ} / \mathrm{mol} \\ & \mathrm{O}_2(\mathrm{~g}) \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{g}) ; \Delta \mathrm{H}=+495.0 \mathrm{~kJ} / \mathrm{mol} \end{aligned}$
The enthalpy change (∆H) for the following reaction NO(g) + O(g) → NO₂(g) is:
1. -304.1 kJ/mol
2. +304.1 kJ/mol
3. -403.1 kJ/mol
4. +403.1 kJ/mol

129.

The enthalpy changes for the following reactions are
$C_{diamond} + O_{2 (g)} \to {CO}_{2 (g)} ∆ H = - 395.3 kJ {mol}^{- 1}$
$C_{graphite} + O_{2 (g)} \to {CO}_{2 (g)} ∆ H = - 393.4 kJ {mol}^{- 1}$
The enthalpy change for the transition
$C_{diamond} \to C_{graphite}$ will be
1. $- 3.8 kJ {mol}^{- 1}$
2. $+ 3.8 kJ {mol}^{- 1}$
3. $- 1.9 kJ {mol}^{- 1}$
4. $+ 1.9 kJ {mol}^{- 1}$

130.

Which electronic configuration illustrates the ground state of a carbon atom following Hund's rule?

1.		2.
3.		4.

131.

The first ionisation energy of Na, B, N and O atoms follows the order
1. B < Na < O < N
2. Na < B < O < N
3. Na < O < B < N
4. O < Na < N < B

132.

What happens to a gas when it expands at constant temperature and pressure?
1. Internal energy decreases
2. Entropy increases and then decreases
3. Internal energy increases
4. Internal energy remains constant

133.

An ion with mass number 37 possesses one unit of negative charge,the ion contains 11.1% more neutrons than the electrons. The symbol of the ion is-
$1 . {}_{18}^{37}{Cl} 2 . {}_{17}^{37}{Cl} 3 . {}_{19}^{38}{Cl} 4 . {}_{19}^{37}{Cl}$

134. Select the correct option based on statements below:

Assertion (A):	C_diamond → C_graphite ∆H and ∆U are the same for this reaction.
Reason (R):	Entropy increases during the conversion of diamond to graphite.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

135.

An electronic configuration that has maximum difference between II and III ionization potential is:
1. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹
2. 1s² 2s²2p⁶ 3s²
3. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶
4. 1s² 2s² 2p⁵

Chemistry - Section B

136.

The number of significant figures present in the answer of the following calculations [(i), (ii), (iii)] are respectively -

1.	0 . 02856 × 298 . 15 × 0 . 112 / 5785
2.	5 × 5.364
3.	0.0125 + 0.7864 + 0.0215

1.	4, 4, 3	2.	3, 3, 4
3.	4, 3, 4	4.	3, 4, 4

137. Which electron in a bromine (Br) atom experiences the lowest effective nuclear charge?
1. 2p and 3p
2. 4p
3. 2p

4. 3p

138.

Consider the following molecules and statements related to them:

(I)	(B) is more likely to be crystalline than (A)
(II)	(B) has a higher boiling point than (A)
(III)	(B) dissolves more readily than (A) in water

Identify the correct option from below :
1. (I) and (II) are false
2. Only (III) are true
3. Only (I) is true
4. (I), (II) and (III) are true

139.

Which of the following graphs correctly represents the potential energy curve for the $\text{H}_2$ molecule as a function of internuclear distance?

1.		2.
3.		4.

140.

Which of the ions among the following is the largest in size?
1. Li⁺ (aqueous)
2. Cs⁺ (aqueous)
3. Li⁺ (g)
4. Cs⁺ (g)

141. $\psi_{3,2,0}$ is the representation of the orbital:
1. 3p_x
2. 3d_xy
3. 3d_z^₂
4. 3d_x²-y²

142.

Assertion (A):	H₂SO₄ cannot act as a reducing agent.
Reason (R):	Sulphur cannot increase its oxidation number beyond +6.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

143. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	$O^{2-}$ and $Mg^{2+} $ have equal radii.
Statement II:	They are isoelectronic species.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

144. If 0.02 moles of H₂SO₄ are present in 1 litre of solution from which 50% solution is taken out and again diluted up to 1 litre by adding water. Further, if 0.01 moles of H₂SO₄are added, then the total millimoles of H₂SO₄ in the resulting solution will be:
1. 10
2. 5
3. 20
4. 15

145. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Beryllium has more first ionization potential than Boron.
Reason (R):	Boron has a lower electron affinity than beryllium.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

146. The number of sigma $(\sigma) $ and pi ($\pi$) bonds present in the given compound will be:

1. $26 \sigma, 3 \pi$
2. $24 \sigma, 4 \pi$
3. $24 \sigma, 3 \pi$
4. $26 \sigma, 4 \pi$

147. If 50 ml of water is added to 100 ml of 1 M NaCl (aq) solution, then the final molarity of the solution will be:

1.	0.5 M	2.	0.25 M
3.	0.67 M	4.	1.5 M

148. Which group best illustrates the transition from non-metallic to metallic behaviour with increasing atomic number?
1. Be, Mg, Ca, Sr
2. N, P, As, Sb
3. F, Cl, Br, I
4. Fe, Ru, Os, Hs

149. 20 ml of nitric oxide combines with 10 ml of oxygen at STP to give NO₂. The final volume will be:
1. 30 ml
2. 20 ml
3. 10 ml
4. 40 ml

150. In the electronic structure of $H_2SO_4 $ , the total number of unshared electrons are:
1. 20
2. 16
3. 12
4. 10

Physics - Section A

151.

One projectile moving with velocity v in space, gets burst into 2 parts of masses in the ratio 1:3. The smaller part becomes stationary. What is the velocity of the other part?
1. 4v
2. v
3. $\frac{4 v}{3}$
4. $\frac{3 v}{4}$

152.

Which of the following statements is correct?
1. Kinetic energy and momentum both are conserved in all types of collisions
2. Total kinetic energy is not conserved but momentum is conserved in inelastic COI-
lisions
3. Momentum is conserved In elastic collisions but .not in inelastic collisions
4. Total kinetic energy is conserved in inelastic collisions but momentum is not conserved in elastic collisions

153.

A projectile of mass $m$ is fired with velocity $v$ from a point $P$, as shown. Neglecting air resistance, the magnitude of the change in momentum between the points $P$ and arriving at $Q$ is:

1. zero
2. $\frac{mv}{\sqrt{2}}$
3. $mv\sqrt{2} $
4. $2mv$

154.

A steel wire can withstand a load up to 2940 N. A load of 150 kg is suspended from a rigid support. The maximum angle through which the wire can be displaced from the mean position, so that the wire does not break when the load passes through the position of equilibrium, is (2008 E)
1. 30 $°$
2. 60 $°$
3. 80 $°$
4. 85 $°$

155.

Which of the following is not represented in correct unit
1. $\frac{Stress}{Strain} = N / m^{2}$
2. Surface tension = $N / m$
3. Energy $= k g - m / \sec$
4. Pressure $= N / m^{2}$

156.

The density of wood is $0 .5 g m / c c$ in the CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS units is :
1. 500
2. 5
3. 0.5
4. 5000

157.

Which does not has the same unit as others
1. Watt-sec
2. Kilowatt-hour
3. eV
4. J-sec

158.

Which of the following system of units is not based on units of mass, length and time alone
1. SI
2. MKS
3. FPS
4. CGS

159.

Dimensions of kinetic energy are
1. $M L^{2} T^{- 2}$
2. $M^{2} L T^{- 1}$
3. $M L^{2} T^{- 1}$
4. $M L^{3} T^{- 1}$

160.

Consider the acceleration, velocity and displacement of a tennis ball as it falls to the ground and bounces back. Directions of which of these changes in the process ?
1. Velocity only
2. Displacement and velocity
3. Acceleration, velocity and displacement
4. Displacement and acceleration

161.

Speed of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distances in which the two cars are stopped from that instant is:
1. 1 : 1
2. 1 : 4
3. 1 : 8
4. 1 : 16

162.

A body is slipping from an inclined plane of height $h$ and length $l$. If the angle of inclination is $\theta$, the time taken by the body to come from the top to the bottom of this inclined plane is:
1. $\sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}$
2. $\sqrt{\frac{2 l}{g}}$
3. $\frac{1}{\sin \theta} \sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}$
4. $\sin \theta \sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}$

163.

From the following displacement-time graph , find out the velocity of a moving body.

1. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}$ m/s
2. 3 m/s
3. $\sqrt{3}$ m/s
4. $\frac{1}{3}$ m/s

164.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	A Rocket in flight is not an illustration of a projectile.
Reason (R):	The Rocket takes flight due to the combustion of fuel and does not move under the gravitational effect alone.

Choose the correct option:

1.	If both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2.	If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3.	If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4.	If the assertion and reason both are false.

165.

If the velocity of a particle is (10 + 2t²) m/s, then the average acceleration of the particle between 2 sec and 5 sec is:
1. 2 m/s²
2. 4 m/s²
3. 12 m/s²
4. 14 m/s²

166.

A particle (A) is dropped from a height and another particle (B) is thrown in the horizontal direction with a speed of 5 m/sec from the same height. The correct statement is:
(1) Both particles will reach at ground simultaneously
(2) Both particles will reach at ground with same speed
(3) Particle (A) will reach at ground first with respect to particle (B)
(4) Particle (B) will reach at ground first with respect to particle (A)

167.

If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the surface of lift (a = acceleration of lift)
1. mg
2. m(g + a)
3. m(g – a)
4. 0

168.

A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5ms^–1. A force acts on it for some time in the direction of motion. The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body.

1. 9.25 ms^–1
2. 5 ms^–1
3. 14.25 ms^–1
4. 4.25 ms^–1

169.

A body of mass m₁ is moving with a velocity V. It collides with another stationary body of mass m₂. They get embedded. At the point of collision, the velocity of the system
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases but does not become zero
(3) Remains same
(4) Become zero

170.

The bob of a pendulum of length l is pulled aside from its equilibrium position through an angle $θ$ and then released. The bob will then pass through its equilibrium position with a speed v, where v equals
1. $\sqrt{2 gl (1 - sinθ)}$
2. $\sqrt{2 gl (1 + cosθ)}$
3. $\sqrt{2 gl (1 - cosθ)}$
4. $\sqrt{2 gl (1 + sinθ)}$

171.

Two particles $A$ and $B$ are moving in a uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii $r_A$ and $r_B$ with speeds $v_A$ and $v_B$ respectively. Their time periods of rotation are the same. The ratio of the angular speed of $A$ to that of $B$ will be:

1.	$ 1: 1 $	2.	$r_A: r_B $
3.	$v_A: v_B $	4.	$r_B: r_A$

172.

Two particles $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B}$, move with constant velocities $\overrightarrow{{v}_1}$ and $\overrightarrow{{v}_2}$respectively. At the initial moment, their position vectors are $\overrightarrow{{r}_1}$ and $\overrightarrow{{r}_2}$ respectively. The condition for particles $\mathrm{A}$ and $\mathrm{B}$ for their collision will be:
1. $\vec{r_1} \cdot \vec{v_1}=\vec{r_2} \cdot \vec{v_2}$
2. $\dfrac{\vec{r_1}-\vec{r_2}}{\left|\vec{r_1}-\vec{r_2}\right|}=\dfrac{\vec{v_2}-\vec{v_1}}{\left|\vec{v_2}-\vec{v_1}\right|}$
3. $\vec{r_1} \times \vec{v_1}=\vec{r_2} \times \vec{v_2}$
4. $\vec{r_1}-\vec{r_2}=\vec{v_1}-\vec{v_2}$

173.

The trajectories of two projectiles are shown in the figure. Let $T_{1}$and$T_{2}$ be the time periods and $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ their speeds of projection, then:

1. $T_{2}> T_{1}$
2. $T_{1}> T_{2}$
3. $u_{1}= u_{2}$
4. $u_{1}< u_{2}$

174.

A stone is thrown with a speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 60 $°$ with the ground. Speed of stone when it makes an angle of 30 $°$ with the horizontal is
1. 10 m/s
2. 10 $\sqrt{3}$ m/s
3. $\frac{20}{\sqrt{3}}$ m/s
4. None of these

175.

The speed of a particle moving in a circular path decreases with time. The instantaneous power due to the force acting on it will be:
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Zero
4. Maybe positive or negative

176.

The principle of conservation of energy and conservation of mechanical energy applicable respectively for
(1) Conservative and non-conservative forces
(2) Conservative and conservative force
(3) Non-conservative and conservative forces
(4) All forces and conservative forces

177.

A body is released from the top of an inclined smooth plane of inclination $θ$ . It reaches the bottom with speed u. If the angle of inclination is doubled keeping the height unchanged, then the speed of the object on reaching on the ground is
(1) u
(2) 2u
(3) $u \sqrt{2 \cos θ}$
(4) $\frac{u}{\sqrt{2 \sin θ}}$

178.

Which of the following is not a unit of energy?
1. watt-hour
2. joule
3. eV
4. N/m

179.

A particle of mass $m$ is projected with a velocity at an angle with the horizontal into a uniform gravitational field. The slope of the trajectory varies with horizontal distance $x$ as:

1.		2.
3.		4.

180.

A particle is thrown with velocity u making an angle $θ$ with the horizontal. It just crosses the top of two poles each of height h after 1 s and 3 s respectively. The time of flight of the particle is:
(1) 4 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 8 s
(4) 6 s

181.

The tension in the string connecting blocks, $B$ and $C$, placed on a smooth horizontal surface in the following diagram is:

1.	$25$ N	2.	$30$ N
3.	$32.5$ N	4.	$37.5$ N

182.

A block of mass $M$ is pulled by a force $F$, making an angle $\theta$ with the horizontal on a smooth horizontal surface as shown. If $a$ is the acceleration of block on the surface, then the contact force between the block and the surface will be:

1. $Mg+ Ma\cos\theta$
2. $Mg- Ma\cos\theta$
3. $Mg+ Ma\tan\theta$
4. $Mg- Ma\tan\theta$

183.

A block $B$ of mass $3$ kg is kept on block $A$ of mass $5$ kg in a lift accelerating upward with an acceleration of $g.$ The reaction by $A$ on $B$ is:

1.	$10g$	2.	$16g$
3.	$4g$	4.	$6g$

184.

The figure shows the graph of the x-coordinate of a particle moving along the x-axis as a function of time. Average velocity during t=0 to 6 s and instantaneous velocity at t=3 s respectively, will be:

1. 10 m/s, 0
2. 60 m/s, 0
3. 0, 0
4. 0, 10 m/s

185.

If force $F=500-100t,$ then the function of impulse with time will be:
1. $ 500 t-50 t^2 $
2. $ 50 t-10 $
3. $ 50-t^2 $
4. $ 100 t^2$

Physics - Section B

186.

An object of mass $3$ kg is at rest. Now if a force of $\overrightarrow{F} = 6 t^{2} \hat{i} + 4 t \hat{j}$ is applied to the object, then the velocity of the object at $t =3$ second will be:
1. $18 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j}$
2. $18 \hat{i} + 6 \hat{j}$
3. $3 \hat{i} + 18 \hat{j}$
4. $18 \hat{i} + 4 \hat{j}$

187.

Each side of a cube is measured to be $7.203~\text{m}$. What are the total surface area and the volume respectively of the cube to appropriate significant figures?

1.	$373.7~\text{m}^2$ and $311.3~\text{m}^3$
2.	$311.3~\text{m}^2$ and $373.7~\text{m}^3$
3.	$311.2992~\text{m}^2$ and $373.7147~\text{m}^3$
4.	$373.7147~\mathrm{m^2}$ and $311.2992~\text{m}^3$

188.

The position of an object moving along $x$-axis is given by $x=a+bt^2$, where $a=8.5$ m, $b=2.5 \text{ ms}^{-2}$ and $t$ is measured in seconds. Its average velocity between $t=2.0$ s and $t=4.0$ s is:
1. $10~\text{m/s}$
2. $15~\text{m/s}$
3. $20~\text{m/s}$
4. $25~\text{m/s}$

189.

A batsman hits back a ball straight in the direction of the bowler without changing its initial speed of $12$ m/s. If the mass of the ball is $0.15$ kg, then the impulse imparted to the ball is:
(Assume linear motion of the ball.)
1. $0.15$ N-s
2. $3.6$ N-s
3. $36$ N-s
4. $0.36$ N-s

190.

The radius of a circle is stated as $2.12$ cm. Its area should be written as:

1.	$14\mathrm{~cm^2}$	2.	$14.1\mathrm{~cm^2}$
3.	$14.11\mathrm{~cm^2}$	4.	$14.1124\mathrm{~cm^2}$

191.

A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ with the horizontal. The force exerted by the plane on the block has a magnitude
1. mg
2. mg/cosθ
3. mg cosθ
4. mg tanθ

192. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I		List-II
(a)	Gravitational constant ($G$)	(i)	$[{L}^2 {~T}^{-2}] $
(b)	Gravitational potential energy	(ii)	$[{M}^{-1} {~L}^3 {~T}^{-2}] $
(c)	Gravitational potential	(iii)	$[{LT}^{-2}] $
(d)	Gravitational intensity	(iv)	$[{ML}^2 {~T}^{-2}]$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)

193.

The determination of the value of acceleration due to gravity $(g)$ by simple pendulum method employs the formula,
$g=4\pi^2\frac{L}{T^2}$
The expression for the relative error in the value of $g$ is:

1.	$\frac{\Delta g}{g}=\frac{\Delta L}{L}+2\Big(\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big)$
2.	$\frac{\Delta g}{g}=4\pi^2\Big[\frac{\Delta L}{L}-2\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big]$
3.	$\frac{\Delta g}{g}=4\pi^2\Big[\frac{\Delta L}{L}+2\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big]$
4.	$\frac{\Delta g}{g}=\frac{\Delta L}{L}-2\Big(\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big)$

194. Two buses $P$ and $Q$ start from a point at the same time and move in a straight line. Their positions are represented by $X_p(t)=\alpha t+\beta t^2 $ and $X_{Q}(t)=ft-t^2 $. At what time do both the buses have the same velocity?

1.	$\dfrac{\alpha-f}{1+\beta} $	2.	$\dfrac{\alpha+f}{2(\beta-1)} $
3.	$\dfrac{\alpha+f}{2(1+\beta)} $	4.	$\dfrac{f-\alpha}{2(1+\beta)}$

195. The position-time $(x\text-t)$ graph for positive acceleration is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

196. The pair of quantities having the same dimensions are:

1.	impulse and surface tension
2.	angular momentum and work
3.	work and torque
4.	Young's modulus and energy

197. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	We can get displacement from the acceleration-time graph.
Statement II:	We can get acceleration from the velocity-time graph.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

198. A cyclist comes to a skidding stop over a distance of $10~\text{m}$. During the process, the force on the cycle due to the road is $200~\text{N}$ and directly opposed to the motion. How much work does the road do on the cycle?
1. zero
2. $2000~\text{J}$
3. $-2000~\text{J}$
4. $-200~\text{J}$

199. If two trains are moving in opposite directions and they have a relative velocity of $100~\text{km/h},$ their individual velocities cannot be:

1.	less than $50~\text{km/h}$
2.	greater than $50~\text{km/h}$
3.	less than $100~\text{km/h}$
4.	greater than $100~\text{km/h}$

200. A ball is thrown at an angle of $60^\circ$ above the horizontal, as shown in the adjacent diagram. The fraction of kinetic energy lost by the ball when it reaches its highest point is:

1.	$\dfrac{1}{2}$	2.	$\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2}$
3.	$\dfrac{1}{4}$	4.	$\dfrac{3}{4}$

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Statement I:	\(O^{2-}\) and \(Mg^{2+} \) have equal radii.
Statement II:	They are isoelectronic species.

1.	\(373.7~\text{m}^2\) and \(311.3~\text{m}^3\)
2.	\(311.3~\text{m}^2\) and \(373.7~\text{m}^3\)
3.	\(311.2992~\text{m}^2\) and \(373.7147~\text{m}^3\)
4.	\(373.7147~\mathrm{m^2}\) and \(311.2992~\text{m}^3\)

1.	\(14\mathrm{~cm^2}\)	2.	\(14.1\mathrm{~cm^2}\)
3.	\(14.11\mathrm{~cm^2}\)	4.	\(14.1124\mathrm{~cm^2}\)

1.	\(\frac{\Delta g}{g}=\frac{\Delta L}{L}+2\Big(\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big)\)
2.	\(\frac{\Delta g}{g}=4\pi^2\Big[\frac{\Delta L}{L}-2\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big]\)
3.	\(\frac{\Delta g}{g}=4\pi^2\Big[\frac{\Delta L}{L}+2\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big]\)
4.	\(\frac{\Delta g}{g}=\frac{\Delta L}{L}-2\Big(\frac{\Delta T}{T}\Big)\)

1.	\(\dfrac{\alpha-f}{1+\beta} \)	2.	\(\dfrac{\alpha+f}{2(\beta-1)} \)
3.	\(\dfrac{\alpha+f}{2(1+\beta)} \)	4.	\(\dfrac{f-\alpha}{2(1+\beta)}\)

1.	less than \(50~\text{km/h}\)
2.	greater than \(50~\text{km/h}\)
3.	less than \(100~\text{km/h}\)
4.	greater than \(100~\text{km/h}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{1}{4}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{3}{4}\)

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