Match each item in COLUMN I with one in COLUMN II and select your answer from the codes given:
COLUMN I | COLUMN II |
SCIENTIST | CONTRIBUTION |
Francis Crick | a. Breaking the genetic code |
Nirenberg | b. Eastablished Coenorthabditis elegans as as a model genetics study organism |
Benzer | c. Central dogma of molecular biology |
Brenner | d. Bacteriophase genetics |
A | B | C | D | |
1. | c | a | d | b |
2. | c | a | b | d |
3. | a | b | c | d |
4. | a | c | d | b |
Identify the incorrect statement regarding experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor Mendel?
1. | He conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms. |
2. | It was for the first time that statical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology. |
3. | Unfortunately his experiments had a small sampling size, which gave less credibility to the data that he collected. |
4. | He investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits. |
Which of the following is a recessive trait for a character choosen by Mendel in garden pea?
1. Violet flower color
2. Yellow pod color
3. Axial flower position
4. Tall stem height
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits or slightly different forms of the same gene are known as
1. Alleles
2. Loci
3. Cistrons
4. Introns
Indentify the incorrect statement:
1. Tall plant produce gametes by meiosis and the dwarf plants by mitosis.
2. Only one allele is transmitted to a gamete.
3. The segregation of alleles is a random process.
4. Gametes will always be pure for the trait.
A test cross is done to find out:
(1) Fitness of an organism
(2) Genotype of a plant expressing dominant phenotype
(3) The suitable parents for a Mendelian Cross
(4) The hidden genotypic ratio of F2 phenotypes
The law of Segregation is based on the fact that
(1) The Alleles do not show any blending
(2) There is random fertilization
(3) Gametes are pure for the trait
(4) The zygotes are diploid
In the case of co-dominance, the F1 generation resembles:
(1) Dominant parent
(2) Recessive parent
(3) Both the parents
(4) None of the parents
What can be the possible blood groups of progeny whose father and mother are of A and B group respectively?
(1) A and B only
(2) AB only
(3) All except O
(4) A, B, AB and O
Suppose a gene has seven alleles. What would be the number of alleles in an individual at any instant?
(1) 1
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 3
In case of starch synthesis in pea seeds [controlled by B gene], BB homozygotes produce large and round starch grains; bb homozygotes produce smaller and wrinkled starch grains and Heterozygotes produce round seeds of intermediate size. What can be inferred from this observation?
(1) The gene B mutates at a faster rate.
(2) The gene B is easily influenced by the environment
(3) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for
(4) Some genes do not follow the law of segregation.
"When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters". This is the statement of:
(1) Law of Dominance
(2) law of segregation
(3) Law of Independent Assortment
(4) Law of Linkage
When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and intercrossed their F1 progeny, the F2 ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio. this can be attributed to the fact that:
(1) The genes are located on X and Y chromosomes
(2) Fruit fly has abnormal chromosomes
(3) The genes are located on the X chromosome
(4) The genes exhibit incomplete dominance
When the two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome:
(1) The proportion of parental gene combinations was much higher than the non-parental type
(2) The proportion of parental gene combinations was much lesser than the non-parental type.
(3) The propagation of parental gene combinations was equal to the non-parental type
(4) Only recombinants are formed
A couple has a daughter. What is the probaility that their next child will be a daughter?
(1) 0 %
(2) 25 %
(3) 50 %
(4) 100 %
It is unfortunate that in our society women are blamed for producing female children and have been obstracised and ill-trated because:
(1) The sex is determined by the type of sperm fertilizing the egg.
(2) The sex is determined by the type of egg fertilizing the sperm.
(3) the sex is determined by the hormones produced by the fetus
(4) the sex is determined by the God's Will
Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by
1. Alteration or mutation in a single gene.
2. Chromosomal gross structural changes.
3. Recombination between linked genes.
4. Jumping genes
What is incorrect for Hemophilia?
1. In this disease, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of blood is affected.
2. In an affected indlvidual a simple cut will result in non-stop bleeding.
3. The heterozygous female (carrier) for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.
4. The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to be hemophilic and the father should be a carrier.
Sickle cell anaemia results from.
1. A chromosomal aberration
2. Non disjunction of autosome
3. A point mutation
4. Blood transfusion reaction
The point mutation leading to sickle cell anaemia occurs:
1. At sixth position in the beta chain of haemoglobin
2. At sixth position in the alpha chain of haemogiobin
3. At sixth position in the beta chain of myoglobin
4. At sixth position in the alpha chain of myoglobin
What is the mode of inheritance of phenylketonuria?
1. Autosomal recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Sex linked recessive
4. Sex linked dominant
In cases of Phenylketonuria:
1. The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid tyrosine into phenylalanine
2. The affected individual makes an enzyme that converts the amino acid tyrosine into phenylalanine
3. The affected individual makes an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine
4. The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine
Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell divislon results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism and, this phenomenon is known as:
1. Aneuploidy
2. Translocation
3. Polyploidy.
4. Inversion
Which of the following is not a feature of Down's Syndrome?
1. It is caused by a non-disjunction in an autosome
2. The affected individual has trisomy of chromosome 21
3. The aflected individual has a characteristic simian palmar crease
4. The mental development of affected individual is normal
Which enzyme polymerizes RNA with defined sequences in a template independent manner?
(1) Peptidyl transferase
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
The process of RNA splicing shows the dominance of :
(1) DNA world
(2) RNA world
(3) Protein world
(4) Microbial world
In RNA splicing :
(1) Exons are removed and introns are joined together
(2) Introns are removed and exons are joined together
(3) Cistrons are removed and introns are joined together
(4) Introns are removed and Cistrons are joined together
In eukaryotes RNA polymerase II transcribes :
(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) hnRNA
The core RNA polymerase is capable of catalyzing which steps of transcription ?
(1) Initiation only
(2) Elongation only
(3) Termination only
(4) All of these
In most prokaryotes the transcription unit is :
(1) Mono-cistronic
(2) Poly-cistronic
(3) Multi-cistronic
(4) Uni-cistronic
What defines the position and presence of coding and a template strand in the transcription unit ?
(1) Structural gene
(2) Ori
(3) Terminator
(4) Promoter
Which of the following is true for both transcription and DNA replication?
1. Principle of complementarity governs the processes
2. Only of the two strands act as template
3. Only a segment of both strands is involved
4. Adenine base pairs with thymine
The DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyze:
1. Only in 3'-5' direction
2. Only in 5'-3' direction
3. In both directions
4. In neither directions
Which of the following acts as the substrate and provide energy for DNA replication?
(1) Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(2) Ribonucleoside triphosphates
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(4) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
Reverse transcriptase is a:
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
Which non-radioactive isotope was used by Meselson and Stahl to label DNA in their experiment?
\(1.\ {}^{35}S\)
\(2.\ {}^{15} N\)
\(3.{}^{32} P\)
\(4.\ N o n e\)
A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill all the following criteria except :
(1) It should be able to generate its replica
(2) It should chemically and structurally be stable
(3) It should provide scope for rapid mutations
(4) It should be able to express itself in the form of "Mendelian Characters"
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was provided by :
(1) Avery, Macleod and McCarty
(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Meselson and Stahl
(4) Watson and Crick
Histones are :
(1) Positively charged and basic proteins
(2) Negatively charged and basic proteins
(3) Positively charged and acidic proteins
(4) Found in bacteria
Which of the following is not a feature of the double helix model of DNA ?
(1) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
(2) A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
(3) The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm
(4) The two chains are coiled in a left handed fashion
According to Erwin Chargaff, for a double stranded DNA
(1) The ratios between Adenine and Thymine, and, Guanine and Cytosine are constant and equals one.
(2) The ratios between Adenine and Thymine, and, Guanine and Cytosine are constant but is not equal to one.
(3) The ratios between Adenine and Guanine, and,Thymine, and Cytosine are constant and equals one.
(4) The ratios between Adenine and Guanine, and, Thymine and, Cytosine are constant but is not equal to one.
To form a nucleoside, a nitrogenous base is linked to a pentose sugar:
(1) Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 1
(2) Through a P-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 5
(3) Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 1
(4) Through a N-Glycosidic linkage at carbon atom number 5
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
|
Organism |
Length of DNA |
(1) |
Bacteriophage ϕ 174 |
5386 nucleotides |
(2) |
Bacteriophage Lambda |
48502 base pairs |
(3) |
Eschrechia coli |
4×106 base pairs |
(4) |
Human beings |
3.3×109 base pairs |
Most often the factor that initiates the speciation of two populations is :
1. geographic separation
2. inability of gametes to fuse
3. different courtship behaviors
4. different copulatory organs
People who carry an allele for normal haemoglobin and an allele for sickle cell are resistant to malaria. They are examples of:
1. heteozygote advantage
2. extreme diploidy
3. outbreeding
4. recessive superiority
If a new allele suddenly becomes very abundant in a population, most likely it is:
1. mutating rapidly
2. flowing with emigrants
3. strongly selected for
4. a product of assortative mating
Genetic drift occurs when a few individuals of a species colonize an island. This phenomenon is :
(1) the bottleneck effect
(2) the founder effect
(3) assortative mating
(4) random mating
The unit of evolution is now known to be the:
1. individual
2. family
3. population
4. species
After pollution destroyed lichens on the trees. the survival of the dark-colored peppered moths increased, because they were.
(1) protected from carcinogens
(2) protected from lichen poisons
(3) more robust
(4) protected from predation
The best test of relatedness of two species is in the similarity of their
(1) anatomy
(2) DNA and Proteing
(3) development
(4) courtship behavior
The struggle for existence is a consequence of:
(1) Each organism leaving more organisms than needed to replace itself
(2) Innate competitive tendencies
(3) The inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions
(4) Territories and dominance hierarchies
Darwin believed that a giraffe has a long neck because:
1. a creator designed it that way
2. catastrophes eliminated short neck forms
3. its ancestors stretched their necks to get food
4. ancestral giraffes with longer necks got more food and left more surviving off-springs.
In a population of red (dominant) and white flowers, the flowers of red flowers is 91%. What is the frequency of the red allele?
1. 9%
2. 30%
3. 91%
4. 70%
Which of the following pairs of organs do not represent analogous organs?
1. Eye of an octopus and the eye of a mammal
2. Flippers of penguins and flippers of dolphin
3. Wings of bats and forelimbs of humans
4. Wings of birds and wings of butterfly
In a sympatric speciation, there is:
1. | geographical isolation between groups of population |
2. | no geographical isolation between groups of population |
3. | reproductive isolation of a subpopulation in the midst of the parent population |
4. | geographical isolation bout no reproductive isolation |
Which of the following types of natural selection reduces variation but does not change the mean value?
(1) Directional
(2) Stabilizing
(3) Disruptive
(4) All of these
In modern terms, selection refers to :
1. Inheritance of dominant characters
2. differential reproduction
3. a decrease in allele frequency in a population
4. differences in the contribution of various genotypes to the next generation
In genetic drift, the term "genetic bottleneck" means:
1. reduction in allele frequencies or richness
2. random change in allele frequency by chance alone
3. sudden increase in the number of individuals
4. reproductive isolation of the population
What is genetic equilibrium?
(1) When all the alleles of a gene are present in a population in equal frequencies
(2) When the number of heterozygotes in a population are equal to the number of either of the homozygote
(3) When the number of heterozygotes in a population are equal to the number of either of the homozygote
(4) When the frequency of particular genes or alleles remain constant in a population through generations
The "Replica Plating Experiment' proved that
(1) most mutations are harmful or neutral
(2) mutations are recurring in nature
(3) all mutations are pre-adaptive in nature
(4) mutations occur in a non-directional mannes
Which of the following is not a precondition for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
1. The population should be large
2. The mating should be assortative
3. There is no gene flow into or out of the population
4. All offspring should be equally fertile.
De Vries based his "Mutation Theory" on his observation on:
(1) Pisum sativum
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Oenothera lamarckiana
(4) Caenorhabditis elegans
Which of the following is not a major evolutionary trend seen in the evolution of horse?
(1) Progressive increase in the number of toes
(2) Increase in the complexity of the molar teeth
(3) Lengthening of the limbs in general
(4) Enlargement of the brain
Aquatic mammals do not contain gill slits because:
(1) they are fishes and not mammals
(2) they only float on the water
(3) their adaptation to aquatic life is secondary
(4) they respire through their molst skins and lungs
The first genetic code of life was based on :
1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Proteins
4. Lipids
Identify the correct statement:
1. As the coacervates do not have lipid outer membranes and cannot reproduce, they alone could not have been the precursors of life.
2. The microspheres could not be induced to constrict but had no large amount of diversity
3. The earliest life was probably not driven by the solar energy as is seen today
4. Protobionts cannot separate combination of molecules from the surroundings or maintain an internal environment but are able to reproduce.
For origin of life, which of the following is not a precondition, needed to be fullfilled by the protobionts under consideration ?
1. They should have been able to totally isolate themselve from the general environment
2. They should have been able to replicate
3. They should have acquired a perpetual source of energy
4. Their replication should have been subject to error via mutation
Adenine was synthesized by Orgel, using the Miller apparatus, when he used the gas:
1. carbon dioxide
2. hydrogen cyanide
3. hydrogen sulfide
4. nitrogen
The control apparatus of the Urey and Miller experiment was devoid of:
1. a provision for evaporation
2. an arrangement for circulation
3. a source of energy
4. an arrangement for condensation
The enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction is a :
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
An important limitation to the use of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is that it can not:
1. infect dicots
2. be genetically modified
3. be cultured on a nutrient medium
4. infect crop plants such as wheat and corn
Identify a character that is not desirable in a cloning vector:
1. an inactive promoter
2. an origin of replication site
3. selectable markers such as genes for antibiotic resistance
4. one or more unique restriction endonuclease sites
Restriction enzymes are synthesized by:
(1) bacteria only
(2) yeast and bacteria
(3) eukaryotic cells only
(4) all kinds of cells
A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance genes- for tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-recombinants would survive on the medium containing :
1. ampicillin but not tetracycline
2. tetracycline but not ampicillin
3. both tetracycline and ampicillin
4. neither tetracycline nor ampicillin
Elution is:
1. Separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel.
2. Staining the separate DNA fragments with ethidium bromide
3. cutting out of the separated band of DNA from the agarose gel and extracting them from the gel piece.
4. constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA fragments to the cloning vector.
When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial cell, the cell should not be treated with:
1. lysozyme
2. proteases
3. ribonuclease
4. deoxyribonuclease
A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made competent to do so. This is because:
1. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
2. DNA is a very large molecule
3. there are no receptors for DNA on the cell membrane
4. DNA is an inert molecule
Taq polymerase is used in the polymerase chain reaction because:
1. It replicates DNA faster than other enzymes
2. It is the only enzyme that can replicate DNA invitro
3. It does not require an RNA primer to function
4. It is thermostable
Which of the following is not a mineral of aluminium?
1. Bauxite
2. Cryolite
3. Gibsite
4. Malachite
Serpek's method involves the heating of bauxite with
1. NaOH
2. Na2CO3
3. N2 + C
4. CaCO3
In the metallurgy of copper, the slag is -
1. FeSiO3
2. CaCO3
3. CaSiO3
4. CaO
Galena contains ZnS with PbS. Which of the following is used as depressant to stop ZnS to come with foam?
1. NaCN
2. Aniline
3. Pine Oil
4. H2O
Which of the following is leached with NaCN?
1. Ore of Al
2. Ore of Cu
3. Ore of Ag
4. Ore of Zn
Vapour phase refining can be carried out in case of
1. Ni
2. Zr
3. Ti
4. All of these
In the metallurgy of copper, matte contains
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following metal is purified by distillation process?
1. Zn
2. Fe
3. Al
4. Cu
The purest form of iron is
1. Cast iron
2. Steel
3. Wrought iron
4. Grey cast iron
Out of the following which metal can be purified by the Van Arkel method?
1. Ti
2. Zr
3. Hf
4. All of these
NO2 is the anhydride of
1. HNO3
2. HNO2
3. HNO3 + HNO2
4. None of the above
\(\mathrm{PCl}_3\) upon hydrolysis gives an oxyacid of phosphorous.
The basicity of that oxyacid is:
1. | One | 2. | Two |
3. | Three | 4. | Four |
Which set of oxide of nitrogen is paramagnetic in nature?
(1) NO, N2O
(2) NO2, NO, N2O
(3) NO,NO2
(4) N2O,NO2
Correct order of boiling point of group 16 hydrides
(1) H2O<H2S<H2Se<H2Te
(2) H2Te<H2Se<H2S<H2O
(3) H2S<H2Se<H2Te<H2O
(4) H2O<H2Te<H2Se<H2S
Compound among the following with an S-S bond is :
1. H2S2O7
2. H2SO5
3. H2S2O8
4. H2S2O6
Which is incorrectly given according to the order indicated?
(1)F2>Cl2>Br2>I (Oxidizing power)
(2)HI>HBr>HCl>HF (Acidic Strength)
(3)F2>Cl2>Br2>I2 (Bond Energy)
(4) HF>HI>HBr>HCl (Boiling point)
Which has highest bond angle ?
(1) NH3
(2) H2O
(3) H2S
(4) PH3
Which is mismatched regarding the shape ?
(1) XeF4 = Square planar
(2) XeOF4 = Square Pyramidal
(3) XeF6 = Distorted Octahedral
(4)XeO3 = Bent Shape
The colour of KMnO4 is due to :
1. d-d transition
2. Charge transfer spectra
3. Polarisation of ion
4. p-d transition
Which of the following element does not show the variable oxidation state?
1. Fe
2. Mn
3. Cu
4. Zn
With F highest stable oxidation state of Mn is
1. +6
2. +4
3. +7
4. +3
Cr2O72-+XCr3++H2O + oxidized product of X. X in the above reaction cannot be
1. C2O42-
2. Fe2+
3. SO42-
4. S2-
The correct statement regarding the dichromate dianion among the following is:
1. 4Cr-O bonds are equivalent
2. 6Cr-O bonds are equivalent
3. All Cr-O bonds are equivalent
4. All Cr-O bonds are non equivalent
Basic oxide amongst the following is:
1. CrO
2. Cr2O3
3. CrO3
4. Cr2O4
A pair of ions having similar magnetic moments is:
1. Ti3+,V3+
2. Cr3+,Mn2+
3. Mn2+,Fe3+
4. Fe2+,Mn2+
If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100ml of 0.024M Solution of dichlorobis(ethylene diamine) cobalt(III) Choloride, how many moles of AgCl will be precipitated?
1. 0.0012
2. 0.0016
3. 0.0024
4. 0.0048
The shape of [NiCl4]2- and [PtCl4]2- respectively are
1. Square planar, Square planar
2. Tetrahedral, Tetrahedral
3. Tetrahedral, Square planar
4. Square planar, Tetrahedral
Which of the following compounds exhibit geometrical isomerism?
1. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
2. [Zn(NH3)2Cl2]
3. [Pt(NH3)3Cl
4. All of these
bonding is not involved in
1. Ferrocene
2. Dibenzene Chromium
3. Zeise's Salt
4. Grignard Reagent
The co-ordination number of Fe in Ferrocene is :
1. 2
2. 5
3. 6
4. 10
[Fe(H2O)6]3+ and [Fe(CN)6]3- differ in
(1) Magnetic nature
(2) Oxidation number
(3) Co-ordination number
(4) Structure
The number of geometrical isomers possible for a square planar complex are
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
If excess of AgNO3 solution is added to 100ml of 0.024M Solution of dichlorobis(ethylene diamine) cobalt(III) Choloride, how many moles of AgCl will be precipitated?
1. 0.0012
2. 0.0016
3. 0.0024
4. 0.0048
The species that cannot act as an ambidentate ligand is:
1. | \(\mathrm{CN}^-\) | 2. | \(\mathrm{NO}^-_2\) |
3. | \(\mathrm{SCN}^-\) | 4. | \(\mathrm{NH_3}\) |
[Cr(en)2Br2]+ can show
(1) Optical isomerism
(2) Geometrical isomerism
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Cyanide process is used in the extraction of
(1) Au
(2) Cu
(3) Ag
(4) both 1 and 3
The bleaching action of SO2 is due to its
1. Acidic property
2. Basic property
3. Reducing property
4. Oxidising property
Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flowing in them are 3I and 4I respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the center is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A current-carrying closed Loop in the form of a right isosceles triangle ABC is placed in xy plane in a uniform magnetic field acting along the y-axis as shown in the figure. If the magnetic force on the arm AC is , then force on the arm BC and AB are respectively
(1) zero, zero
(2)
(3)
(4)
A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting in the same direction in a certain region. If a proton is projected in this region such that its velocity is pointed along the direction of fields, then the proton :
1. will turn towards the left of the direction of motion
2. will turn towards the right of the direction of motion
3. will speed up
4. will slow down
When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration towards the east. When it is projected towards the north with a speed , it moves with initial acceleration towards east. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are -
1.
2.
3.
4.
A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M is bent to form an arc which subtends an angle of at centre. The new magnetic dipole moment will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. In a circle
2. In y-z plane
3. With constant speed
4. All of these are correct
A small bar magnet is placed with its north pole facing the magnetic north pole. The neutral points are located at a distance r from its centre. If the magnet is rotated by 180o, the neutral point shall be obtained at a distance of:
1. \(2r\)
2. \(\sqrt{2}r\)
3. \(2^{\frac{1}{3}}r\)
4. \(\frac{r}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
The unit of pole strength is:
1.
2. Am
3.
4.
Lines joining places of same dip are called
(1) Aclinic lines
(2) Isogonic lines
(3) Isoclinic lines
(4) Isodynamic lines
A voltmeter has a resistance G and it can measure a maximum voltage of V. To convert it in a voltmeter of range nV, the value of resistance required is :
1. (n - 1)G in series
2. (n - 1)G in parallel
3. in parallel
4. in series
A current wire is hidden in a wall. Its position can be located with the help of a
1. Moving coil galvanometer
2. Voltmeter
3. Hotwire ammeter
4. Magnetic needle
Which of the following graphs correctly represents the variation of magnetic field induction with distance due to a thin wire carrying current?
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
When an electron enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field with velocity v, time period of its revolution is T. If it enters in the same magnetic field with a velocity 2v, then its time period will be:
1. 2T
2. 4T
3.
4. T
1. R
2. 2R
3. 3R
4.
A positively charged particle descends vertically. In which direction will the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field deflect?
1. east
2. west
3. north
4. south
If L,Q,R represent inductance, charge and resistance respectively, the units of
[This question includes concepts from 12th syllabus]
1. will be those of current
2. will be those of energy
3. will be those of current
4. will be those of power
A magnet is suspended in such a way that it oscillates in the horizontal plane and makes 20 oscillations per minute at a place where dip angle is . It makes 15 oscillations per minute at a place where dip angle is . The ratio of total earth's magnetic field at the two places is
(1)
(2)
(3) 4:9
(4)
Susceptibility is positive and small for
(1) Paramagnetic materials
(2) Ferromagnetic materials
(3) Diamagnetic materials
(4) Non magnetic materials
What is the magnetic dipole moment of the given loop?
1. | \({ 5 \over 2} \pi R^2I\) | 2. | \(3 \pi R^2I\) |
3. | \({ 3 \over 2} \pi R^2I\) | 4. | \(5 \pi R^2I\) |
If a magnet is suspended at angle to the magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle of with the horizontal. The value of real dip angle at the place is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Soft iron is used to manufacture electromagnets because their
(1) Magnetic saturation limit is high and coercivity is small.
(2) Retentivity is high
(3) Coercivity is high
(4) Area of the hystresis loop is large
Two small bar magnets are placed in the air at a distance r apart. The magnetic force between them is proportional to:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The vertical component of the earths magnetic field is zero at
(1) Magnetic poles
(2) Magnetic equator
(3) Geographic poles
(4) Geographic equator
A short magnetic dipole is placed at the origin with its dipole movement directed along the +x-axis. If magnetic field induction at a point P (r, 0) is \(B\hat{i}\), the magnetic field induction at point Q (0, 2r) will be:
1. \(-\frac{B}{16}\hat{i}\)
2. \(-\frac{B}{8}\hat{j}\)
3. \(\frac{B}{16}\hat{j}\)
4. \(-\frac{B}{16}\hat{j}\)
Magnetic field lines
1. Cannot intersect
2. Are always closed curves
3. Can pass through vacuum
4. All of these
If the current in an AC circuit is given as when an emf is applied across the circuit. The circuit has components-
1. L and C
2. L and R
3. C and R
4. None of these
A step-down transformer is employed to reduce the main supply of AC from 220V to 11V. If the primary coil draws a current of 5A and the secondary supplies a current of 90A, then the efficiency of the transformer is -
1. 10%
2. 95%
3. 90%
4. 80%
At resonance, the value of the power factor of the circuit is -
1. 1
2. Zero
3. Between zero and 1
4. More than 1
In a LCR circuit having L = 8.0 henry, C = 0.5 and R = 100 in series, the resonance frequency (in Hz) is
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a LCR series network, . The supply voltage is
1. 25V
2. 75V
3. 35V
4. Zero
The ratio of the number of turns in secondary to primary in an ideal transformer varies from 50 to 550. If the power input is P, then its output power is -
1. 11P
2.
3.
4. P
The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured using a :
1. Potentiometer
2. Hotwire voltmeter
3. Moving coil galvanometer
4. Moving magnet galvanometer
A rod of length l rotates with uniform angular velocity about an axis passing through its one end and perpendicular to its length. If a uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to the axis of rotation, then induced emf across the two ends of the rod is :
1.
2.
3.
4. zero
Electromagnetic waves are produced by
1. A static charge
2. A moving charge
3. An accelerated charge
4. Charged particles
The idea of displacement current was introduced by
1. Maxwell
2. Hertz
3. Marconi
4. Bose
Energy stored in an inductor can be made four times when
1. inductance is doubled
2. Current is made times
3. current is doubled
4. can never to be made
Loss in energy in the transformer is due to
1. Hysteresis
2. Eddy current loss
3. Leakage of flux
4. All of these
A coil wire of a certain radius has 600 turns and a self-inductance of 36 mH. The self-inductance of a second similar coil of 500 turns will be
1. 25 mH
2. 50mH
3. 108mH
4. 75mH
The current passing through a choke coil of 5 H is decreasing at the rate of 3 As-1. The emf induced in the coil is
1. 15 V
2. -15 V
3.
4.