AIPMT 2006

Biology

1.

What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids?
1. 16
2. 24
3. 32
4. 8

2.

Pineapple (annanas) fruit develops from:

1.	a unilocular polycarpillary flower
2.	a multipistillate syncarpous flower
3.	a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a common axis
4.	a multilocular monocarpillary flower

3.

Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in:
1. alleviation of vitamin-A deficiency
2. pest resistance
3. herbicide tolerance
4. producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

4.

Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by:

1.	removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released
2.	treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins
3.	raising the plants from vernalised seeds
4.	treating the plants with phenylmercuric acetate

5.

How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?

1.	It includes the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
2.	It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
3.	The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
4.	It releases wound hormones

6.

The 'blue baby' syndrome results from:
1. excess of chloride
2. methaemoglobin
3. excess of dissolved oxygen
4. excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)

7.

Praying mantis is a good example of:
1. Mullerian mimicry
2. Warning colouration
3. Social insects
4. Camouflage

8.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1.	Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
2.	Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and the nervous system regulates endocrine glands
3.	Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity
4.	Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa

9.

Examination of the blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms?
1. Thiamine
2. Folic acid and cobalamine
3. Riboflavin
4. Iron compounds

10.

Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?

1.	Frequent irrigation of the crop
2.	Treatment of the paints with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
3.	Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
4.	Application of iron and magnesium to promote the synthesis of chlorophyll

11.

In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril?
1. Custard apple
2. Pomegranate
3. Orange
4. Litchi

12.

Which one of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?

1.	Glycine	2.	Aspartic acid
3.	Glutamic acid	4.	Alanine

13.

Crop plants grown in monoculture are:
1. low in yield
2. free from intraspecific competition
3. characterized by a poor root system
4. highly prone to pests

14.

Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year:
1. 1986
2. 1987
3. 1988
3. 1985

15.

The formula for exponential population growth is:
1. dt/dN= rN
2. dN/rN= dt
3. rN/dN= dt
4. dN/dt= rN

16.

Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids?

1.	Dry weight	2.	Number of individuals
3.	Rate of energy	4.	Fresh weight

17.

Niche overlap indicates:

1.	active cooperation between two species
2.	two different parasites on the same host
3.	sharing of one or more resources between the two species
4.	mutualism between two species

18.

In photosystem-I, the first electron acceptor is:
1. ferredoxin
2. cytochrome
3. plastocyanin
4. an iron-sulphur protein

19.

Treatment of seed at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called:
1. sacrification
2. vernalization
3. chelation
4. stratification

20.

Which one of the following is the most suitable, medium for culture of Drosophila melanogaster?
1. Moist bread
2. Agar agar
3. Ripe banana
4. Cow dung

21.

Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation?
1. Sanctuary
2. Botanical garden
3. Biosphere reserve
4. National park

22.

Which antibiotic inhibits the interaction between t-RNA and m-RNA using bacterial protein synthesis?
1. Erythromycin
2. Neomycin
3. Streptomycin
4. Tetracycline

23.

Phenotype of an organism is the result of:
1. mutations and linkages
2. cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
3. environmental changes and sexual dimorpgism
4. genotype and environment interactions

24.

Photochemical smog pollution does not contain:
1. ozone
2. nitrogen dioxide
3. carbon dioxide
4. PAN (Peroxy Acyl Nitrate)

25.

Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because:
1. it is easily available
2. it is hygroscopic
3. it reduces transpiration
4. it serves as a disinfectant

26.

A common structural feature of vessel elements and sieve tube elements is:
1. thick secondary walls
2. pores on lateral walls
3. presence of P-protein
4. enucleate condition

27.

The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as:
1. protonema
2. Plasmodium
3. fruiting body
4. mycelium

28.

In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offspring?
1. Autosomal
2. Cytoplasmic
3. Y-linked
4. X-linked

29.

What type of placentation is seen in sweet pea?
1. Basal
2. Axile
3. Free-central
4. Marginal

30.

Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are:

1.	anthers	2.	styles
3.	ovaries	4.	hairs

31.

Conifers differ from grasses in the:
1. production of seeds from ovules
2. lack of xylem tracheids
3. absence of pollen tubes
4. formation of endosperm before fertilization

32.

How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Nine
4. Two

33.

In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
1. bombarding the protoplast with DNA
2. crossing of two inbred parental lines
3. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
4. inducing mutations

34.

Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?

1.	The outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
2.	The enzymes of the electron transfer chain are embedded in the outer membrane
3.	The inner membrane is highly convoluted forming a series of infoldings
4.	The outer membrane resembles a sieve

35.

Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of:
1. t-RNA
2. m-RNA
3. c-DNA
4. r-RNA

36.

How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal?

1.	Two	2.	Thirty
3.	One	4.	Fifty-seven

37.

An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called:
1. coenzyme
2. holoenzyme
3. apoenzyme
4. isoemzyme

38.

Bowman’s glands are found in:
1. olfactory epithelium
2. external auditory canal
3. cortical nephrons only
4. juxtamedullary nephrons

39.

The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is:
1. a facultative anaerobe
2. an obligate anaerobe
3. a facultative aerobic
4. an obligate aerobic

40.

Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National Park?

1.	Lion- Corbett National Park
2.	Rhinoceros- Kaziranga National Park
3.	Wild ass- Dudhwa National Park
4.	Great Indian bustard- Keoladeo National Park

41.

A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from:
1. schizophrenia
2. borderline personality disorder (BPD)
3. mood disorders
4. addictive disorders

42.

Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in:
1. pulse crops
2. cereals
3. fibre crops
4. oilseed crops

43.

Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of:
1. Asteraceae
2. Brassicaceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Liliaceae

44.

In a moss the sporophyte:

1.	is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
2.	produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
3.	arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
4.	manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte

45.

Curing of tea leaves is brought by the activity of:
1. bacteria
2. mycorrhiza
3. viruses
4. fungi

46.

People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 meters have around 8 million. This is because at high altitudes:

1.	people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
2.	atmospheric O₂ level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O₂ to survive
3.	there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
4.	people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed

47.

An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of:
1. homologous and vestigial organs
2. analogous and vestigial organs
3. homologous organ only
4. analogous organ only

48.

Which one of the following is not a living fossil?
1. King crab
2. Sphenodon
3. Archaeopteryx
4. Peripatus

49.

Annual migration does not occur in the case of:
1. Salmons
2. Siberian crane
3. Salamander
4. Arctic tern

50.

A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of an electron microscope. This is because:

1.	the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope.
2.	the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200-350 nm compared to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope.
3.	electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections.
4.	the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons that has a wavelength much longer than that of photons.

51.

Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples?
1. Cnidaria- Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
2. Platyhelminthes- Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
3. Mollusca- Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
4. Porifera- Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula

52.

Metameric segmentation is characteristic of:

1.	Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
2.	Echinodermata and Annelisa
3.	Annelida and Arthropoda
4.	Mollusca and Chordata

53.

Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India?
1. Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
2. Tamarind and rhesus monkey
3. Cinchona and leopard
4. Banyan and black buck

54.

Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by:

1.	gymnosperms, adminant plants, and first birds appear
2.	radiation of reptiles and the origin of mammal-like reptiles
3.	Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
4.	flowering plants and the first dinosaurs appear

55.

What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis, and Giardia?
1. These are all unicellular protists
2. They have flagella
3. They produce spores
4. These are all parasites

56.

Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct?

1.	The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca²⁺ across the membrane
2.	Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
3.	Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
4.	Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules

57.

Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are:

1.	Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2.	Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
3.	Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
4.	Crown gall bacterium and caenorhabditis elegans

58.

Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for the optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread?

(A)	The temperature of about 25 °C
(B)	The temperature of about 5 °C
(C)	Relative humidity of about 5%
(D)	Relative humidity of about 95%
(E)	A shady place
(F)	A brightly illuminated place

Choose the answer from the following options:
1. A, C, and E only
2. A, D, and E only
3. B, D, and E only
4. B, C, and F only

59.

Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:
1. Phylogeny
2. Ancestry
3. Palaeontology
4. Ontogeny

60.

Which of the following is considered a hot spot of biodiversity in India?
1. Western Ghats
2. Indo-Gangetic plain
3. Eastern Ghats
4. Aravalli hills

61.

During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in:
1. stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria
2. stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
3. grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes
4. stroma of chloroplasts

62.

Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
1. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
2. Production of male honey bee
3. Pod shape in garden pea
4. Skin colour in humans

63.

Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?
1. Acetylcholine
2. Epinephrine
3. Nor epinephrine
4. Cortisone

64.

Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as:
1. FSH
2. GH
3. Prolactin
4. LH

65.

A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is:
1. cortisol
2. corticosterone
3. 11-deoxycorticosterone
4. cortisone

66.

The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is:

1.	tropomyosin	2.	myosin
3.	α-actinin	4.	troponin

67.

Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?
1. cGMP
2. Calcium
3. Sodium
4. cAMP

68.

In Mendel's experiments with garden peas, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), and yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F₂ generation of the cross RRYY x rryy?

1.	Only round seeds with green cotyledons
2.	Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
3.	Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
4.	Round seeds with yellow cotyledons and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

69.

One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by:
1. R. Franklin
2. Hershey and Chase
3. A. Garrod
4. Beadle and Tatum

70.

One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately:

1.	20 nm	2.	0.34 nm
3.	3.4 nm	4.	2 nm

71.

Test cross involves:

1.	crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
2.	crossing between two F1 hybrids
3.	crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
4.	crossing between two genotypes with the trait

72.

Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that:

1.	one strand turns anti-clockwise
2.	the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
3.	the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite positions (pole)
4.	one strand turns clockwise

73.

Areolar connective tissue joins the:
1. fat body with muscles
2. integument with muscles
3. bones with muscles
4. bones with bones

74.

Mast cells secrete:
1. hippurin
2. myoglobin
3. histamine
4. haemoglobin

75.

If a colourblind woman marries a normal-visioned man, their sons will be:
1. all normal visioned
2. one-half colourblind and one-half normal
3. three-fourths colourblind and one-fourth normal
4. all colourblind

76.

Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the:

1.	fertilization of an XX egg by a normal y-bearing sperm
2.	loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
3.	loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
4.	trisomy of 21st chromosome

77.

Restriction endonuclease:
1. cuts the DNA molecule randomly
2. cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
3. restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus
4. synthesis DNA

78.

Antibodies in our body are complex:
1. lipoproteins
2. steroids
3. prostaglandins
4. glycoproteins

79.

The limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal wastewater into natural surface water is:
1. < 3.0 ppm
2. < 10 ppm
3. < 100 ppm
4. < 30 ppm

80.

Earthworms are:
1. ureotelic when plenty of water is available
2. uricotelic when plenty of water is available
3. uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity
4. ammonotelic when plenty of water is available

81.

Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones?

1.	Posterior pituitary lobe
2.	Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
3.	Hypothalamus
4.	Anterior pituitary lobe

82.

Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation?
1. Estrogen
2. FSH
3. FSH-RH
4. Progesterone

83.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	The residual air in the lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
2.	The presence of non-respiratory air sacs increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
3.	In mammals, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
4.	The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in the gills of fishes

84.

Which one of the following has an open circulatory system?
1. Pheretima
2. Periplaneta
3. Hirudinaria
4. Octopus

85.

Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption, and glucogenesis?
1. ACTH
2. Insulin
3. Adrenalin
4. Glucagon

86.

The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a:
1. bacterium
2. prion
3. worm
4. virus

87.

The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by:
1. root pressure and transpiration pull
2. P-proteins
3. mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
4. cytoplasmic streaming

88.

Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of:
1. Starfish and sea anemone
2. Ctenoplana and Beroe
3. Aurelia and Paramecium
4. Hydra and starfish

89.

The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is:
1. 2+4+2
2. 3+2+3
3. 2+3+3
4. 3+3+2

90.

An enzyme that can stimulate the germination of barley seeds is:
1. $α$ -amylase
2. lipase
3. protease
4. invertase

91.

In a cereal grain, the single cotyledon of the embryo is represented by:

1.	coleorhiza	2.	scutellum
3.	prophyll	4.	coleoptiles

92.

The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs:
1. dissolved in the blood
2. as bicarbonates
3. as carbonates
4. attached to haemoglobin

93.

Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with:
1. rye
2. pearl millet
3. sugarcane
4. barley

94.

In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue culture the best method is:
1. protoplast culture
2. embryo rescue
3. anther culture
4. meristem culture

95.

HIV that causes AIDS first starts destroying:
1. B-lymphocytes
2. leucocytes
3. thrombocytes
4. helper T-lymphocytes

96.

In which one of the following sets of animals do all four give birth to young ones?
1. Lion, bat, whale, ostrich
2. Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
3. Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi
4. Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris

97.

Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because:
1. It is controlled by recessive genes
2. It is not a fatal disease
3. It provides immunity against malaria
4. It is controlled by dominant genes

98.

Two common characteristics found in centipedes, cockroaches, and crabs are:
1. compound eyes and anal cerci
2. joined legs and chitinous exoskeleton
3. green gland and tracheae
4. book lungs and antennae

99.

Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are:
1. bacteria-related diseases.
2. congenital disorders
3. pollutant-induced disorders
4. virus-related diseases

100.

Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by:
1. macula densa cells
2. endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
3. liver cells
4. juxtaglomerular (JG) cells

Chemistry

101.

Identify the correct statement for change of Gibbs energy for a system (ΔG_system) at constant temperature and pressure:

1.	If $\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}$ > 0 , the process is spontaneous
2.	If $\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}$ = 0 , the system has attained equilibrium
3.	If $\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}$ = 0 , the system is still moving in a particular direction.
4.	If $\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}$< 0 , the process is not spontaneous

102.

A solution containing 10 g/dm³ of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol^-1) is isotonic with a 5 % solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is:

1.	25 g mol^-1	2.	300 g mol^-1
3.	350 g mol^-1	4.	200 g mol^-1

103.

A plot of log x/m versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with a slope equal to:
1. log
2. n
3. $\frac{1}{n}$
4. log 1/k

104.

Assuming each reaction is carried out in an open container,
Reaction that shows ΔH=ΔE is :
1. $H_{2} (g) + B r_{2} (g) \to 2 H B r (g)$
2. $C (s) + 2 H_{2} O (g) \to 2 H_{2} (g) + C O_{2} (g)$
3. $P C l_{5} (g) \to P C l_{3} (g) + C l_{2} (g)$
4. $2 C O (g) + O_{2} (g) \to 2 C O_{2} (g)$

105.

Propanoic acid gives a series of reactions as given below.

${CH}_{3} {CH}_{2} COOH \overset{{SOCl}_{2}}{\to} B \overset{{NH}_{3}}{\to} C \to_{{Br}_{2}}^{KOH} D$
The structure of D would be:
1. $C H_{3} C H_{2} C H_{2} N H_{2}$
2. $C H_{3} C H_{2} C O N H_{2}$
3. $C H_{3} C H_{2} N H C H_{3}$
4. $C H_{3} C H_{2} N H_{2}$

106.

During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are
hydrolysed to amino acids as shown below.
Proteins $\xrightarrow[]{\textbf{Enzyme(A)}}\mathrm{}$ Polypeptides $\xrightarrow[]{\textbf{Enzyme(B)}}\mathrm{}$ Amino acids

Enzymes (A) and (B) are respectively:

1.	Amylase and maltase	2.	Diastase and lipase
3.	Pepsin and trypsin	4.	Invertase and zymase

107.

The human body does not produce:
1. DNA
2. Vitamins
3. Hormones
4. Enzymes

108.

CsBr crystallises in a body-centered cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 amu and that of Br = 80 amu and the Avogadro number being 6.02×10²³ mol^-1, the density of CsBr is:
1. 42.5 $g / c m^{3}$
2. 0.425 $g / c m^{3}$
3. 8.25 $g / c m^{3}$
4. 4.25 $g / c m^{3}$

109.

Actinoids exhibit more oxidation states than lanthanoids. The main reason for this is:

1.	More energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
2.	Greater metallic character of the lanthanoids than that of the corresponding actinoids
3.	The lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than that between 4f and 5d orbitals
4.	More active nature of the actinoids

110.

If the mass of electron is 9.11×10^-31 kg and the planck's constant is 6.626 ×10^-34 Js, then the uncertainty involved in the measurement of velocity within a distance of 0.1 Å is:
1. $5.79 \times 10^{6}$ $m s^{- 1}$
2. $5.79 \times 10^{7}$ $m s^{- 1}$
3. $5.79 \times 10^{8}$ $m s^{- 1}$
4. $5.79 \times 10^{5}$ $m s^{- 1}$

111.

Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give:
1. CuCN
2. $[C u (C N)_{4}]^{3 -}$
3. $[C u (C N)_{4}]^{2 -}$
4. $C u (C N)_{2}$

112.

A pair that contains both the ions coloured in an aqueous solution is:
(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29, Co = 27)

1.	$N i^{2+}, T i^{3+} $	2.	$S c^{3+}, T i^{3+} $
3.	$\mathrm{Sc}^{3+}, \mathrm{Co}^{2+} $	4.	$\mathrm{Ni}^{2+}, \mathrm{Cu}^{+}$

113.

Al₂O₃ can be converted to anhydrous AlCl₃ by heating:
1. $A l_{2} O_{3}$ $w i t h$ $H C l$ $g a s$
2. $A l_{2} O_{3}$ with NaCl in solid-state
3. a mixture of $A l_{2} O_{3}$ and carbon in dry $C l_{2}$ gas
4. $A l_{2} O_{3}$ with $C l_{2}$ gas

114.

The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction: Br₂ (l) + Cl₂ (g) →2BrCl(g), are 30kJ mol^-1 and 105 JK^-1 mol^-1 respectively. The temperature at which the reaction will be in equilibrium is:
1. 285.7 K
2. 273 K
3. 450 K
4. 300 K

115.

The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to:
1. F-centres.
2. Schottky defect.
3. Frenkel defect.
4. Interstitial positions.

116.

The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous serious of alkanols is:
1. $C_{n} H_{2 n} O_{2}$
2. $C_{n} H_{2 n} O$
3. $C_{n} H_{2 n + 1} O$
4. $C_{n} H_{2 n + 2} O$

117.

If $E_{{Fe}^{2 +} / Fe}^{o}$ = -0.441 V and $E_{{Fe}^{3 +} / {Fe}^{2 +}}^{o}$ = 0.771 V, the standard emf of the reaction:
Fe + 2Fe³⁺→ 3Fe²⁺ will be:

1.	0.330 V	2.	1.653 V
3.	1.212 V	4.	0.111 V

118.

For the reaction, $2 A+B \rightarrow 3 C+D$
Which of the following is an incorrect expression for the rate of reaction?

1.	$-\frac{d[C]}{{3} d t }$	2.	$-\frac{d[B]}{d t} $
3.	$\frac{d[D]}{d t} $	4.	$-\frac{d[A]}{2 d t}$

119.

For the reaction,
CH₄(g) + 2O₂(g) CO₂(g) + 2H₂O(l)
Δ_rH = -170.8 kJ mol^-1
Which of the following statements is not true?

1.	At equilibrium, the concentration of $\mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{~g}$ and water (l) are not equal.
2.	The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by $K_p=\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_2\right]}{\left[\mathrm{CH}_4\right]\left[\mathrm{O}_2\right]}$
3.	The addition of $\mathrm{CH}_4 \mathrm{~g} $ or $\mathrm{O}_2 \mathrm{~g}$ at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
4.	The reaction is exothermic

120.

[NH(CH₂)₆NHCO(CH₂)₄CO]_n is a:
1. Co-polymer
2. Addition polymer
3. Thermo-setting polymer
4. Homopolymer

121.

A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrins, which form a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid on hydrolysis. The carbonyl compound is:
1. Acetaldehyde
2. Acetone
3. Diethyl ketone
4. Formaldehyde

122.

Which one of the following is a peptide hormone?
1. Glucagon
2. Testosterone
3. Thyroxin
4. Adernaline

123.

CH₃ — O — CH(CH₃)₂ + HI → B (Product)
The product 'B' in the above mentioned reaction is-
1. CH₃OH + (CH₃)₂CHl
2. lCH₂OCH(CH₃)₂
3. CH₃OC(CH₃)₂
4. CH₃l + (CH₃)₂CHOH

124.

The nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favored among the given compounds is:
1. $C H_{3} C H_{2} C H_{2} C O C H_{3}$
2. $(C H_{3})_{2} C = O$
3. $C H_{3} C H_{2} C H O$
4. $C H_{3} C H O$

125.

The enthalpy of combustion of H₂, cyclohexene (C₆H₁₀) and cyclohexane (C₆H₁₂) are -241, -3800 and -3920 kJ per mol respectively. Heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is:
1. -121 kJ per mol
2. +121 kJ per mol
3. +242 kJ per mol
4. -242 kJ per mol

126.

The self-condensation product of two moles of ethyl acetate in the presence of sodium ethoxide yield is:
1. Ethyl butyrate
2. Acetoacetic ester
3. Methyl acetoacetate
4. Ethyl propionate

127.

Consider the reaction
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)
The equality relationship between $ \frac{{d}\left[{{NH}_{3}}\right]}{dt}$ and $ {-}\frac{{d}\left[{{H}_{2}}\right]}{dt}$ is :
1. $\frac{d [N H_{3}]}{d t} = - \frac{1}{3} \frac{d [H_{2}]}{d t}$
2. $+ \frac{d [N H_{3}]}{d t} = - \frac{2}{3} \frac{d [H_{2}]}{d t}$
3. $+ \frac{d [N H_{3}]}{d t} = - \frac{3}{2} \frac{d [H_{2}]}{d t}$
4. $+ \frac{d [N H_{3}]}{d t} = - \frac{d [H_{2}]}{d t}$

128.

Which of the following is not chiral?
1. 2-butanol
2. 2,3-dibromopentane
3. 3-bromopentane
4. 2-hydroxypropanoic acid

129.

[Co(NH₃)₄(NO₂)₂]Cl exhibits:

1.	linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism, and optical isomerism
2.	linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism, and geometrical isomerism
3.	ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism, and optical isomerism
4.	linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism, and optical isomerism

130.

[Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃ (At. No. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM.
The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex is:
1. $3 d_{x^{2} - y^{2}}^{1}, 3 d_{z^{2}}^{1}, 3 d_{x y}^{1}$
2. $3 d_{x y}^{1}, 3 d_{x^{2} - y^{2}}^{1}, 3 d_{y z}^{1}$
3. $3 d_{x y}^{1}, 3 d_{z y}^{1}, 3 d_{x z}^{1}$
4. $3 d_{x y}^{1}, 3 d_{y z}^{1}, 3 d_{z^{2}}^{1}$

131.

1.00 g of non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol^-1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, K_f of benzene is 5.12 mol^-1 kg K, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:
1. 0.4 K
2. 0.3 K
3. 0.5 K
4. 0.2 K

132.

The following pair constitutes a buffer is:
1. $H N O_{2}$ $a n d$ $N a N O_{2}$
2. $N a O H$ $a n d$ $N a C l$
3. $H N O_{3}$ $a n d$ $N H_{4} N O_{3}$
4. $H C l$ $a n d$ $K C l$

133.

The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10^-8 M HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (K_w = 10^-14) is:
1. $1 . 0 \times \left(10\right)^{- 6}$ $M$
2. $1 . 0525 \times \left(10\right)^{- 7}$ $M$
3. $9 . 525 \times \left(10\right)^{- 8}$ $M$
4. $1 . 0 \times \left(10\right)^{- 8}$ $M$

134.

A solution of acetone in ethanol:

1.	Shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law
2.	Shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law
3.	Behaves like a near-ideal solution
4.	Obeys Raoult's law

135.

A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below.
A|A⁺(x M) || B⁺(y M)|B
The Emf measured is +0.20 V. The cell reaction is:
1. A⁺ + B → A + B⁺
2. A⁺ + e^-→ A ; B⁺ + e^- → B
3. The cell reaction cannot be predicted.
4. A + B⁺ → A⁺ + B

136.

Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields:
1. secondary alcohol
2. tertiary alcohol
3. cyclopropyl alcohol
4. primary alcohol

137.

During osmosis, the flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is:

1.	From a solution having higher concentration only.
2.	From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates.
3.	From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates.
4.	From a solution having lower concentration only.

138.

Which of the following compounds has a higher basic character than aniline?
1. Diphenylamine
2. Triphenylamine
3. p-nitroaniline
4. Benzylamine

139.

In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?

1.	ClF₃	2.	BF₃
3.	AlF₃	4.	NF₃

140.

The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH₃ (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF₃ (0.2 D). This is because:

1.	In NH₃ as well as in NF₃the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
2.	In NH₃ the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF₃ these are in opposite directions
3.	In NH₃ as well as in NF₃the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
4.	In NH₃ the atomic dipole and the bond dipole is in opposite directions whereas in NF₃ these are in the same directions

141.

The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is:
1. $L i^{+} > N a^{+} > K^{+} > R b^{+}$
2. $N a^{+} > K^{+} > R b^{+} > L i^{+}$
3. $K^{+} > R b^{+} > N a^{+} > L i^{+}$
4. $R b^{+} > K^{+} > N a^{+} > L i^{+}$

142.

The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is:
1. $s p > s p^{2} < s p^{3}$
2. $s p > s p^{2} > s p^{3}$
3. $s p < s p^{2} > s p^{3}$
4. $s p < s p^{2} < s p^{3}$

143.

Which of the following species has a linear shape?
1. $N O_{2}^{-}$
2. $S O_{2}$
3. $N O_{2}^{+}$
4. $O_{3}$

144.

Which of the following is the most basic oxide?
1. $A l_{2} O_{3}$
2. $S b_{2} O_{3}$
3. $B i_{2} O_{3}$
4. $S e O_{2}$

145.

The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by:
1. azimuthal quantum number
2. spin quantum number
3. magnetic quantum number
4. principal quantum number

146.

Which of the following is not a correct statement?

1.	The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids.
2.	The canonical structures have no real existence.
3.	Every AB₅ molecule does in fact have a square pyramidal structure.
4.	Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds.

147.

The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic number 16 is:
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1

148.

Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against?
1. $F_{2} > C l_{2} > B r_{2} > I_{2}$ $:$ $O x i d i \sin g$ $p o w e r$
2. $H l > H B r > H C l > H F$ $:$ $A c i d i c$ $p r o p e r t y$ $i n$ $w a t e r$
3. $F_{2} > C l_{2} > B r_{2} > I_{2}$ $:$ $E l e c t r o n e g a t i v i t y$
4. $F_{2} > C l_{2} > B r_{2} > I_{2}$ $:$ $B o n d$ $d i s s o c i a t i o n$ $e n e r g y$

149.

Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl₄?
1. $S C l_{4}$
2. $S O_{4}^{2 -}$
3. $P O_{4}^{3 -}$
4. $N H_{4}^{+}$

150.

The IUPAC name of is :
1. 3, 4-Dimethylpentanpyl chloride
2. 1-Chloro-1-oxo-2,2-dimethylpentane
3. 2-Ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
4. 2, 3-Dimethylpentanoyl chloride

Physics

151.

In producing chlorine through electrolysis, 100 W power at 125 V is being consumed.
The liberation of chlorine per min is:
(ECE of chlorine is 0.367×10^-6 kg/C)

1.	17.6 mg	2.	21.3 mg
3.	24.3 mg	4.	13.6 mg

152.

In the circuit shown below, if a conducting wire is connected between points $A$ and $B$, the current in this wire will: (All resistances are given in ohms)

1.	flow from $A$ to $B$
2.	flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of $V$
3.	be zero
4.	flow from $B$ to $A$

153.

A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If it is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium, it undergoes oscillation with a time period T. Then:
1. $T \propto \sqrt{ρ}$
2. $T \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{A}}$
3. $T \propto \frac{1}{ρ}$
4. $T \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}$

154. A Carnot engine whose sink is at $300~\text{K}$ has an efficiency of $40\%.$ By how much should the temperature of the source be increased to increase its efficiency by $50\%$ of its original efficiency?

1.	$275~\text{K}$	2.	$325~\text{K}$
3.	$250~\text{K}$	4.	$380~\text{K}$

155. When a charged particle with velocity $\vec v$ is subjected to an induction magnetic field $\vec B,$ the force on it is non-zero. What does this imply?

1.	Angle between $\vec v$ and $\vec {B}$ is necessarily $90^{\circ}$.
2.	Angle between $\vec v$ and $\vec {B}$ can have any value other than $90^{\circ}$.
3.	Angle between $\vec v$ and $\vec {B}$ can have any value other than zero and $180^{\circ}$.
4.	Angle between $\vec v$ and $\vec {B}$ is either zero or $180^{\circ}$.

156.

Two cells having the same emf, are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistance r₁ and r₂ respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference across the first cell is zero. The value of R is:
1. $r_{1} - r_{2}$
2. $\frac{r_{1} + r_{2}}{2}$
3. $\frac{r_{1} - r_{2}}{2}$
4. $r_{1} + r_{2}$

157.

A black body at $1227^\circ\text{C}$ emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of $5000~\mathring {A}$. If the temperature of the body is increased by $1000^\circ\text{C},$ the maximum intensity will be observed at:
1. $4000~\mathring {A}$
2. $5000~\mathring {A}$
3. $6000~\mathring {A}$
4. $3000~\mathring {A}$

158.

Two circular coils $1$ and $2$ are made from the same wire but the radius of the $1$^st coil is twice that of the $2$^nd coil. What is the ratio of the potential difference applied across them so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same?
1. $3$
2. $4$
3. $6$
4. $2$

159.

A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductance $L$ (of negligible resistance) and a capacitance $C$ has a frequency $f.$ If $L$ is doubled and $C$ is changed to $4C,$ the frequency will be:
1. $f/4$
2. $8f$
3. $f/2\sqrt2$
4. $f/2$

160.

The binding energy of deuteron is $2.2~\text{MeV}$ and that of $_2\mathrm{He}^{4}$ is $28~\text{MeV}$. If two deuterons are fused to form one $_{2}\mathrm{He}^{4}$, then the energy released is:
1. $25.8~\text{MeV}$
2. $23.6~\text{MeV}$
3. $19.2~\text{MeV}$
4. $30.2~\text{MeV}$

161.

In a radioactive material, the activity at time t₁ is R₁ and at a later time t₂, it is R₂. If the decay constant of the material is λ, then:
1. $R_{1} = R_{2} e^{λ (t_{1} + t_{2})}$
2. $R_{1} = R_{2} e^{- λ (t_{1} - t_{2})}$
3. $R_{1} = R_{2} (t_{1} - t_{2})$
4. $R_{1} = R_{2}$

162.

The ionization potential of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be:
1. two
2. three
3. four
4. one

163.

The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by $2$ cm is $U$. If the spring is stretched by $8$ cm, the potential energy stored in it is:
1. $4U$
2. $8U$
3. $16U$
4. $U/4$

164.

For a projectile projected at angles $(45^{\circ}-\theta)$ and $(45^{\circ}+\theta)$, the horizontal ranges described by the projectile are in the ratio of:
1. $1:1$
2. $2:3$
3. $1:2$
4. $2:1$

165.

A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = $\frac{1}{3}$ t², where t is in sec. Work done by the force in 2 sec is:
1. $\frac{5}{19} J$
2. $\frac{3}{8} J$
3. $\frac{8}{3} J$
4. $\frac{19}{5} J$

166. A particle moves along a straight line $OX.$ At a time $t$ (in seconds), the displacement $x$ (in metres) of the particle from $O$ is given by $x= 40 +12t-t^3.$ How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?

1.	$24~\text m$	2.	$40~\text m$
3.	$56~\text m$	4.	$16~\text m$

167.

The velocity $v$ of a particle at time $t$ is given by $v=at+\dfrac{b}{t+c}$, where $a,$ $b$ and $c$ are constants. The dimensions of $a,$ $b$ and $c$ are respectively:
1. $\left[{LT}^{-2}\right],[{L}] \text { and }[{T}]$
2. $ {\left[{L}^2\right],[{T}] \text { and }\left[{LT}^2\right]} $
3. $ {\left[{LT}^2\right],[{LT}] \text { and }[{L}]} $
4. $ {[{L}],[{LT}] \text { and }\left[{T}^2\right]}$

168.

A microscope is focused on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and a refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the mark in focus again?
1. 1 cm upward
2. 4.5 cm downward
3. 1 cm downward
4. 2 cm upward

169.

$300 ~\text{J}$ of work is done in sliding a $2~\text{kg}$ block up an inclined plane of height $10~\text{m}$. Taking $g=$ $10$ m/s², work done against friction is:
1. $200 ~\text{J}$
2. $100 ~\text{J}$
3. $\text{zero}$
4. $1000 ~\text{J}$

170.

A transistor is operated in a common emitter configuration at constant collector voltage V_c = 1.5 V such that a change in the base current from 100 μA to 150 μA produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain (β) is:
1. 67
2. 75
3. 100
4. 50

171.

Which of the following is an example of forward biasing?

1.		2.
3.		4.

172.

A photocell employs a photo-electric effect to convert:

1.	change in the frequency of light into a change in electric voltage.
2.	change in the intensity of illumination into a change in photoelectric current.
3.	change in the intensity of illumination into a change in the work function of the photocathode.
4.	change in the frequency of light into a change in the electric current.

173.

The core of a transformer is laminated so that:

1.	energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimized
2.	the weight of the transformer may be reduced
3.	rusting of the core may be prevented
4.	the ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased

174.

Two coils of self-inductance $2~\text{mH}$ and $8~\text{mH}$ are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is:
1. $10~\text{mH}$
2. $6~\text{mH}$
3. $4~\text{mH}$
4. $16~\text{mH}$

175.

In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between:
1. positive ions and neutral atoms/molecules
2. negative electrons and neutral atoms/molecules
3. photons and neutral atoms/molecules
4. neutral gas atoms/molecules

176.

When photons of energy h $ν$ fall on an aluminium plate (of work function E₀), photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be:
1. $K + E_{0}$
2. 2K
3. K
4. K+h $ν$

177.

The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage waveforms of A, B, and C are as shown below:

The logic circuit gate is:
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOR gate
4. OR gate

178.

A coil of inductive reactance $31~\Omega$ has a resistance of
$8~\Omega$. It is placed in series with a condenser of capacitive reactance $25~\Omega$. The combination is connected to an a.c. source of
$110~\text{V}$. The power factor of the circuit is:
1. $0.56$
2. $0.64$
3. $0.80$
4. $0.33$

179.

A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of ${30°}^{}$ with the wall. It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the wall is:

1. 48 N
2. 24 N
3. 12 N
4. 96 N

180.

The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius $R$ and mass $M$ about an axis touching the disc at its diameter and normal to the disc is:
1. $M R^{2}$
2. $\frac{2}{5} M R^{2}$
3. $\frac{3}{2} M R^{2}$
4. $\frac{1}{2} M R^{2}$

181.

The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s, will be:
1. $0.33 \times 10^{6}$
2. $7 \times 10^{- 24}$
3. $10^{- 22}$
4. $5 \times 10^{- 22}$

182.

The radius of Germanium $(\mathrm{Ge})$ nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of ${}_{4}^{9}\mathrm{Be}.$ The number of nucleons in $\mathrm{Ge}$ is:
1. $73$
2. $74$
3. $75$
4. $72$

183.

The molar specific heat at a constant pressure of an ideal gas is $\dfrac{7}{2}R.$ The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is:

1.	$\dfrac{7}{5}$	2.	$\dfrac{8}{7}$
3.	$\dfrac{5}{7}$	4.	$\dfrac{9}{7}$

184.

The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius $R$. A platform is arranged at a height $R$ from the surface of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is $fv_e$, where $v_e$ is its escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of $f$ is:
1. $\sqrt{2}$
2. $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$
3. $\frac{1}{3}$
4. $\frac{1}{2}$

185.

Two sound waves with wavelengths $5.0~\text{m}$ and $5.5~\text{m}$, respectively, propagate in gas with a velocity of $330~\text{m/s}$. How many beats per second can we expect?
1. $12$
2. $0$
3. $1$
4. $6$

186.

The power dissipated across the $8~\Omega$ resistor in the circuit shown here is $2~\text{W}$. The power dissipated in watts across the $3~\Omega$ resistor is:

1.	$2.0$	2.	$1.0$
3.	$0.5$	4.	$3.0$

187.

Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical circuits are consequences of:

1.	conservation of energy.
2.	conservation of electric charge and energy respectively.
3.	conservation of electric charge.
4.	conservation of energy and electric charge respectively.

188.

A transverse wave propagating along the $x\text-$axis is represented by:
$y(x,t)=8.0\sin\left(0.5\pi x-4\pi t-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)$, where $x$ is in meters and $t$ in seconds. The speed of the wave is:
1. $4\pi$ m/s
2. $0.5$ m/s
3. $\frac{\pi}{4}$ m/s
4. $8$ m/s

189.

The time of reverberation of a room $A$ is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double those of room A?
1. 2
2. 4
3. $\frac{1}{2}$
4. 1

190.

Which one of the following statements is true?

1.	Both light and sound waves in the air are transverse.
2.	The sound waves in the air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse.
3.	Both light and sound waves in the air are longitudinal.
4.	Both light and sound waves can travel in a vacuum.

191.

Above Curie temperature:
1. a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic.
2. a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic.
3. a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic.
4. a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic.

192.

A convex lens and a concave lens, each having the same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power in dioptres of the combination is:
1. 25
2. 50
3. infinite
4. zero

193.

An electric dipole of moment $\vec {p} $ is lying along a uniform electric field $\vec{E}.$ The work done in rotating the dipole by $90^{\circ}$ is:
1. $\sqrt{2}pE$
2. $\dfrac{pE}{2}$
3. $2pE$
4. $pE$

194.

A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery, the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates:
1. decreases.
2. does not change.
3. becomes zero.
4. increases.

195.

A car turns at a constant speed on a circular track of radius $100~\text m,$ taking $62.8~\text s$ for every circular lap. The average velocity and average speed for each circular lap, respectively, is:

1.	$0,~0$	2.	$0,$ $10~\text{m/s},$
3.	$10~\text{m/s},$ $10~\text{m/s},$	4.	$10~\text{m/s},$ $0$

196.

A square surface of a side $L$ $\text{(m)}$ is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ $\text{(V/m)},$ also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the surface is:

1.	$EL^2/ ( 2ε_0 )$	2.	$EL^2 / 2$
3.	zero	4.	$EL^2$

197.

A tube of length $ L$ is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass $M$ and closed at both ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity $\omega$. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is:

1.	$ML \omega^2 \over 2$	2.	$ML^2 \omega \over 2$
3.	$ML \omega^2 $	4.	$ML^2 \omega^2 \over 2$

198.

A uniform rod of length $l$ and mass $M$ is free to rotate in a vertical plane about $A$. The rod, initially in the horizontal position, is released. The initial angular acceleration of the rod is: (Moment of inertia of the rod about $A$ is $\frac{Ml^2}{3}$)
1. $\frac{3g}{2l}$
2. $\frac{2l}{3g}$
3. $\frac{3g}{2l^2}$
4. $\frac{Mg}{2}$

199.

The vectors $\vec{A}$ $and$ $\vec{B}$ are such that: $|\vec{A} + \vec{B}| = |\vec{A} - \vec{B}|$ .
The angle between the two vectors is:
1. $90^\circ$
2. $60^\circ$
3. $75^\circ$
4. $45^\circ$

200.

Two bodies, $A$ (of mass $1~\text{kg}$) and $B$ (of mass $3~\text{kg}$) are dropped from heights of $16~\text{m}$ and $25~\text{m}$, respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is:
1. $\frac{5}{4}$
2. $\frac{12}{5}$
3. $\frac{5}{12}$
4. $\frac{4}{5}$

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1.	If \(\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}\) > 0 , the process is spontaneous
2.	If \(\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}\) = 0 , the system has attained equilibrium
3.	If \(\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}\) = 0 , the system is still moving in a particular direction.
4.	If \(\begin{equation} \Delta G_{\text {system }} \end{equation}\)< 0 , the process is not spontaneous

1.	\(N i^{2+}, T i^{3+} \)	2.	\(S c^{3+}, T i^{3+} \)
3.	\(\mathrm{Sc}^{3+}, \mathrm{Co}^{2+} \)	4.	\(\mathrm{Ni}^{2+}, \mathrm{Cu}^{+}\)

1.	\(-\frac{d[C]}{{3} d t }\)	2.	\(-\frac{d[B]}{d t} \)
3.	\(\frac{d[D]}{d t} \)	4.	\(-\frac{d[A]}{2 d t}\)

1.	At equilibrium, the concentration of \(\mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{~g}\) and water (l) are not equal.
2.	The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by \(K_p=\frac{\left[\mathrm{CO}_2\right]}{\left[\mathrm{CH}_4\right]\left[\mathrm{O}_2\right]}\)
3.	The addition of \(\mathrm{CH}_4 \mathrm{~g} \) or \(\mathrm{O}_2 \mathrm{~g}\) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
4.	The reaction is exothermic

1.	flow from \(A\) to \(B\)
2.	flow in the direction which will be decided by the value of \(V\)
3.	be zero
4.	flow from \(B\) to \(A\)

1.	\(275~\text{K}\)	2.	\(325~\text{K}\)
3.	\(250~\text{K}\)	4.	\(380~\text{K}\)

1.	Angle between \(\vec v\) and \(\vec {B}\) is necessarily \(90^{\circ}\).
2.	Angle between \(\vec v\) and \(\vec {B}\) can have any value other than \(90^{\circ}\).
3.	Angle between \(\vec v\) and \(\vec {B}\) can have any value other than zero and \(180^{\circ}\).
4.	Angle between \(\vec v\) and \(\vec {B}\) is either zero or \(180^{\circ}\).

1.	\(24~\text m\)	2.	\(40~\text m\)
3.	\(56~\text m\)	4.	\(16~\text m\)

1.	\(\dfrac{7}{5}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{8}{7}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{5}{7}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{9}{7}\)

1.	\(0,~0\)	2.	\(0,\) \(10~\text{m/s},\)
3.	\(10~\text{m/s},\) \(10~\text{m/s},\)	4.	\(10~\text{m/s},\) \(0\)

1.	\(ML \omega^2 \over 2\)	2.	\(ML^2 \omega \over 2\)
3.	\(ML \omega^2 \)	4.	\(ML^2 \omega^2 \over 2\)

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