Masterclass Quiz 36 (Revision)

1.

The most important reason for the fact that reptiles were the first animals to be successful on land is:
1. Internal fertilization
2. Skin covered with scales
3. Partially divided ventricles
4. Presence of amnion

2.

In a child of 15 years age, plasma calcium level is diagnosed below optimum level. Which organ is malfunctioning?

1.	Thyroid gland	2.	Liver
3.	Parathyroid	4.	Posterior lobe of pituitary

3.

Genetically engineered bovine (bST), sometimes called rbST (recombinant bovine somatotropin) or rbGH (recombinant bovine growth hormone) are used in
1. therapeutic drugs
2. agriculture
3. dairy industry
4. DNA fingerprinting

4.

The liquid portion of the blood with fibrinogen and some of the clotting proteins removed is

1.	plasma.	2.	platelets.
3.	plasma proteins.	4.	serum

5.

A combination of carbon dioxide and hemoglobin, CO2HHb, being one of the forms in which carbon dioxide exists in the blood is the
1. oxyhemoglobin.
2. deoxyhemoglobin.
3. carboxyhemoglobin.
4. carbaminohemoglobin

6.

The part of the nephron where both hydrogen and potassium ions are secreted into the tubular fluid is the

1.	Malpighian body	2.	proximal convoluted tubule
3.	loop of Henle	4.	distal convoluted tubule

7.

The pigment that gets oxidized/bleached/decomposed when exposed to light is:
1. retinol
2. retinoyl ester
3. rhodopsin
4. iodopsin

8.

Lipases can be activated by:
1. HCl
2. Secretions of Brunner’s glands
3. Bile
4. Cholecystokinin

9.

In an adult, erythropoeisis will be maximum in:
1. femur
2. sternum
3. humerus
4. tibia

10.

The cleavage divisions begin in:
1. ovary
2. oviduct
3. uterus
4. cervix

11.

The number of accessory reproductive glands that contribute to the seminal plasma is:
1. one
2. two
3. three
4. ten

12.

Which part of the ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?

1.	Graafian follicle	2.	Stroma
3.	Germinal epithelium	4.	Vitelline membrane

13.

Under normal physiological conditions, what amount of oxygen is delivered to the tissues?

1.	4 ml	2.	5 ml
3.	15 ml	4.	20 ml

14.

In mycorrhiza, the fungi help the plant in:
1. Synthesis of high energy carbohydrates
2. Absorption of essential nutrients from the soil
3. Nitrogen fixation
4. Biocontrol of pathogens

15.

The term ecosystem was coined by :
1. E. Warming
2. E.P.Odum
3. A.G. Tansley
4. E. Haeckel

16.

The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is :

1.	Phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
2.	Phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses, and trees.
3.	Free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
4.	Phytoplankton, rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow, and trees.

17.

Which one is a correct matching of plant, its habitat and the forest type where it normally occurs
1. Prosopis –Tree–shrub
2. Saccharum–grass–forest
3. Shorea robusta–Herb–tropical rain forest
4. Acacia catechu–tree–coniferous forest

18.

The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from:

1.	Datura	2.	Rauwolfia
3.	Atropa	4.	Papaver

19.

Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
1. 1990s
2. 1960s
3. 1970s
4. 1980s

20.

Which one of the following diseases is not caused due to contamination of water?

1.	Hepatitis-B	2.	Jaundice
3.	Cholera	4.	Typhoid

21.

Elution is:

1.	separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel
2.	staining the separated DNA fragments with ethidium bromide
3.	cutting out of the separated bands of DNA from the agarose gel and extracting them from the gel piece
4.	constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA fragments to the cloning vector

22.

When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial cell, the cell should not be treated with:

1.	lysozyme	2.	proteases
3.	ribonuclease	4.	deoxyribonuclease

23.

A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made competent to do so. This is because:

1.	DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
2.	DNA is a very large molecule
3.	there are no receptors for DNA on the cell membrane
4.	DNA is an inert molecule

24.

The genetically engineered vaccine for prevention of hepatitis B is made with the help of the microbe:
1. E.coli
2. Agrobacterium
3. Saccharomyces
4. Psuedomonas

25.

Which of the following are also called as “magical bullets”?
1. restriction enzymes
2. monoclonal antibodies
3. DNA ligases
4. plasmids

26.

Interferons have been produced by rDNA technology. Interferons help to prevent and treat:

1.	bacterial infections	2.	viral infections
3.	rickettsial infections	4.	protozoal infections

27.

Which of the following biomolecules does have phosphodiester bond ?
1. Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
2. Amino acids in a polypeptide
3. Nucleotides in a Nucleic acid
4. Fatty acids in a diglyceride

28.

Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?

1.	Nucleoid	2.	Ribosomes
3.	Cell wall	4.	Mesosomes

29.

Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
1. Guppies and hag fishes
2. Lampreys and eels
3. Mackerels and Rohu
4. Lampreys and hag fishes

30.

Match the followings and choose the correct answer:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Hermaphrodite	(i)	Produces blood cells and haemoglobin
(b)	Directed development	(ii)	Testis and ovary in the same animal
(c)	Chemoreceptor	(iii)	Larval form absent
(d)	Blood gland in earthworm	(iv)	Sense of chemical substances

Options:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
3.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)

31.

Tracheids differ from the tracheary elements in
1. Having casparian strips
2. Being imperforate
3. Lacking nucleus
4. Being lignified

32.

Among Bitter Gourd, Mustard, Brinjal, Pumpkin, China Rose, Lupin, Cucumber, Sunhemp, Gram, Guava, Bean, Chilli, Plum, Petunia, Tomato, Rose, Withania, Potato, Onion, Aloe and Tulip, how many plants have hypogynous flower?

1.	Ten	2.	Fifteen
3.	Eighteen	4.	Six

33.

Viruses have :
1. DNA enclosed in a protein coat
2. Prokaryotic nucleus
3. Single Chromosome
4. Both DNA and RNA

34.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?
1. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
2. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
3. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
4. Algin and carrageenan are products of algae

35.

The floral formula shown below belongs to the family:

1. Liliaceae
2. Fabaceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Brassicaceae

36.

A change in an amino acid located distantly from the active site of an enzyme can affect the specificity of the enzyme towards its substrate by:

1.	making the enzyme unstable
2.	cause a relocation of the enzyme within a cell
3.	changing the shape of the protein
4.	changing the optimum pH and temperature values for the enzyme

37.

Match the following and choose the correct option from below:

A. Meristem	i. Photosynthesis, storage
B. Parenchyma	ii. Mechanical support
C. Collenchyma	iii. Actively dividing cells
D. Sclerenchyma	iv. Stomata
E. Epidermal tissue	v. Sclereids

Options:

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	i	iii	v	ii	iv
2.	iii	i	ii	v	iv
3.	ii	iv	v	i	iii
4.	v	iv	iii	ii	i

38.

The G₀ stage of the cell cycle is irreversible in:

I:	Quiescent cells
II:	Senescent cells
III:	Terminally differentiated cells

1.	I and II only
2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only
4.	I, II and III

39.

Which of the following is not a character of members of Kingdom Fungi?
1. Thalloid body
2. Lacking chlorophyll
3. Store starch as reserve carbohydrates
4. Heterotrophic mode of life

40.

Red algae photosynthesize at ocean depths greater than any other group of algae and hence can be found in deepest waters because they

1.	contain a higher concentration of chlorophyll
2.	have an extremely large surface area to capture the little amount of light that reaches them
3.	contain the pigment phycoerythrin
4.	periodically float to the surface and intercept light, then move back to the ocean floor

41.

Grafting is not successful in monocots but is successful in dicots because they have:
1. Vascular bundles arranged in a ring
2. Cambium for secondary growth
3. Vessels with elements arranged end to end
4. Cork cambium

42.

Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
1. Mycorrhiza
2. Agrobacterium
3. Rhizobium
4. Nostoc

43.

Triticale, the first man-made cereal, has been obtained by crossing wheat with
1. Rye
2. Pearl millet
3. Sugarcane
4. Barley

44.

Which of the following is the most suitable medium for the culture of Drosophila melanogaster?

1.	Cow dung	2.	Moist bread
3.	Agar agar	4.	Ripe Banana

45.

Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas, the remaining three are?
1. They compete with the normal cells for vital nutrients.
2. They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
3. They divide in an uncontrolled manner.
4. They show contact inhibition.

46.

Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated withvitamin 'A' deficiency?
1. Flaver Savr' tomato
2. Canolla
3. Golden rice
4. Bt-Brinjal

47.

In which one of the following pollination is autogamous
1. Geitonogamy
2. Xenogamy
3. Chasmogamy
4. Cleistogamy

48.

In the DNA molecule

1.	The proportion of adenine in relation of thymine varies with the organism
2.	There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5’ → 3’ direction and other in 3’ → 5’
3.	The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not run always equal
4.	There are two strands which run paralled in the 5’ → 3’ direction.

49.

Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?

1.	Production of Dolly, the sheep by cloning.
2.	Development of organs from stem cells for organ transplantation.
3.	Development of transgenic animals.
4.	Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects.

50.

The ultimate source of allelic variation is:

1.	Recombination	2.	Natural selection
3.	Mutation	4.	Drift

51.

In complete dominance, the recessive allele with respect to the dominant allele:
1. Produces no product
2. Produces a different product
3. Produces half the product
4. Produces no product or a non-functional product

52.

In the case of co-dominance, the F₁ generation resembles:

1.	Dominant parent	2.	Recessive parent
3.	Both the parents	4.	None of the parents

53.

The distance between a base pair in the DNA double helix is approximately:

1.	2.0 nm	2.	0.34 nm
3.	20 nm	4.	3.4 nm

54.

In some viruses, the flow of genetic information is from RNA to DNA. These viruses are:

1.	Reverse transcriptases	2.	Reoviruses
3.	Ribozymes	4.	Retroviruses

55.

The central dogma of molecular biology was proposed by:

1.	Francis Crick	2.	James Watson
3.	Rosalind Franklin	4.	Erwin Chargaff

56.

Interferons are secreted by:

1.	Single stranded viruses	2.	Double stranded viruses
3.	Bacteria infected cells	4.	Virus infected cells

57.

Anamnestic response in acquired immunity is due to the fact that it is:

1.	characterized by memory	2.	pathogen specific
3.	huge in magnitude	4.	due to lymphocytes

58.

B cells:

1.	Do not produce antibodies but help T cells produce them
2.	Are pathogen specific but do not retain the memory of previous encounters
3.	Lack ability to distinguish between self and non-self
4.	Are involved in humoral immune response

59.

The correct sequence of layers in the wall of an anther from outside to inside is:

1.	Tapetum – Middle Layers – Endothecium – Epidermis
2.	Epidermis – Endothecium – Tapetum – Middle layers
3.	Epidermis – Endothecium – Middle layers – Tapetum
4.	Tapetum – Endothecium – Middle layers – Epidermis

60.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Parthenium hysterophorus:

1.	Its pollens are a very common cause of severe respiratory allergies.
2.	It was introduced in India accidentally as a contaminant in wheat.
3.	It is a native of tropical America
4.	It is non-invasive and limited to certain pockets in India only

61.

Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats is called:

1.	Bioremediation	2.	Biofortification
3.	Food adulteration	4.	Biomagnification

62.

Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube under sterile conditions in special nutrient media for generating new plants is called:

1.	Implant	2.	Explant
3.	Supplant	4.	Plantlet

63.

Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?

1.	Lipase	2.	Protease
3.	Exonuclease	4.	Endonuclease

64.

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding an evolutionary trend?

1.	It is the continuous change of a character within an evolving lineage.
2.	The number of trends in any lineage is the same as the number of characters evolving.
3.	A trend may be progressive or retrogressive.
4.	Direction and speed of evolutionary trends in a lineage are universal throughout the family and are not subject to variations.

65.

Around 200 mya, some land reptiles went back to the water to evolve into fish-like reptiles, for example:

1.	Pareiasaurus	2.	Pelycosaurus
3.	Ichthyosaurs	4.	Archosaurus

66.

What causes the ‘struggle for existence?

1.	overproduction and imbalance with available resources
2.	innate competitive tendencies
3.	the decrease in the environmental carrying capacity
4.	territories and dominance hierarchies

67.

Which of the given two statements regarding vegetative reproduction in plants is/are true?

I:	It is also a type of asexual reproduction
II:	The term clone is applicable to the offspring formed by vegetative reproduction in most cases.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

68.

The sobriquet ‘terror of Bengal’ has been given to:

1.	Pistia	2.	Lemna
3.	Eichhornia	4.	Zostera

69.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Organisms like algae and fungi shift to a sexual mode of reproduction just before the onset of adverse conditions.
II:	In sexual reproduction large number of progeny can be produced in a short span of time.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	I is correct and II is incorrect.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

70.

Match each item in Column I [Bio-control agent] with the pest/pathogen in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A.	Ladybird	a.	Aphids
B.	Dragonflies	b.	Mosquitoes
C.	Bacillus thuringiensis	c.	Butterfly caterpillars
D.	Trichoderma	d.	Fungi

Codes

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	b	a	c	d
3.	a	b	d	c
4.	b	a	d	c

71.

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?
1. The pH of stomach will fall abruptly.
2. Steapsin will be more effective.
3. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolyzed by pepsin into proteases and peptones.
4. The pancreatic enzymes, and especially trypsin and lipase, will not work efficiently.

72.

In human adult females, oxytocin:
1. causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.
2. is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
3. stimulates the growth of mammary glands.
4. stimulates the pituitary to secrete vasopressin.

73.

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into:

1.	Fallopian tube	2.	Fimbriae
3.	Cervix	4.	Uterus

74.

Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in

1.	Oesophagus	2.	Ileum
3.	Duodenum	4.	Pyloric stomach

75.

Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?

1.	Monocytes	2.	Neutrophils
3.	Basophils	4.	Eosinophils

76.

During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1.	First positive, then negative and again back to positive.
2.	First negative, then positive and again back to negative.
3.	First positive, then negative and continue to be negative.
4.	First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.

77.

Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
1. The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
2. One can breathe out air totally without oxygen.
3. One can breathe out air through Eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth
4. One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs at all.

78.

In the human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
1. Cranial nerve - 10 pairs
2. Floating ribs - 2 pairs
3. Collar bones - 3 pairs
4. Salivary glands - 1 pair

79.

The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
1. Proximal convoluted tubule
2. Descending limb of loop of Henle
3. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
4. Distal convoluted tubule

80.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Hyposecretion of growth hormone in childhood	Dwarfism
2.	Hyposecretion of growth hormone in adulthood	Cretinism
3.	Hypersecretion of growth hormone in childhood	Gigantism
4.	Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adulthood	Acromegaly

81.

ADH and oxytocin are synthesized by:

1. Anterior pituitary	2. Hypothalamus
3. Pars intermedia	4. Pars nervosa

82.

Consider the following two statements:
I. Caecum is a small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms.
II. A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the vermiform appendix which is a vestigial
organ, arises from the caecum.
The correct statements are:

1. Only I	2. Only II
3. Both I and II	4. None

83.

The longest part of the small intestine is:
1. Ilium
2. Duodenum
3. Jejunum
4. Ileum

84.

Seminal plasma is rich in:
1. Sucrose, calcium and certain enzymes
2. Glucose, sodium and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
4. Fructose, sodium and certain enzymes

85.

What purpose is served by the secretions of the bulbourethral glands?

1.	Nutrition to sperms
2.	They coagulate the seminal plasma
3.	Lubrication of penis
4.	They fluidize the seminal plasma

86.

Ovaries are the primary sex organs in human females because they:

I:	Produce the female gamete.
II:	Produce the hormone that regulates the development of secondary sexual characters.

1.	Both I and II	2.	Only I
3.	Only II	4.	None

87.

According to the 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was around ___ %, a rate at which our population could double in ____ years.

1.	1.7; 33	2.	2.1; 30
3.	1.4; 50	4.	2.0; 32

88.

The most important measure to check the population explosion in India is:

1.	Enforce one child norm by law with strict penalties for non-compliance
2.	Progressively increasing the statutory marriage age in males to 25 years
3.	Motivate smaller families by using contraceptive methods
4.	Allowing pre-natal sex determination to encourage selective feticide

89.

The ear ossicles transmit sound waves to:

1. Ear drum	2. Oval window
3. Round window	4. Cochlear duct

90.

Above the rows of hair cells of Organ of Corti, there is a thin elastic membrane called:

1. Reissner’s membrane	2. Basilar membrane
3. Tectorial membrane	4. Tympanic membrane

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