Test Questions

An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are, 1 kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms^-1 and 2 kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms-1 If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms^-1, its mass would be:

1. 5 kg
2. 7 kg
3. 17 kg
4. 3 kg

A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at rate of 2 mm/s .The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is:

1. 3.2

πμV

2. 4.8

πμV

3. 0.8

πμV

4. 1.6

πμV

If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by M^aL^bT^c, then the physical quantity will be:

1. Pressure if a = 1, b = -1, c = - 2
2. Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = - 1
3. Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = - 2
4. Force if a = 0, b =-1, c = - 2

In the nuclear decay given below:

{}_{Z}^{A}X \to {}_{Z + 1}^{A}Y \to {}_{Z - 1}^{A - 4}B \to {}_{Z - 1}^{A - 4}B

the particles emitted in the sequence are:

β, α, γ

γ, β, α

β, γ, α

α, β, γ

Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b, and c (a < b < c) and have surface charge densities σ, - σ and σ respectively . If V_{A}, V_{B} and V_{C} denote the potentials of the three shells, then for c = a + b, we have

A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms^-1 on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?

1. 20 ms^-1
2. 40 ms^-1
3. 25 ms^-1
4. 10 ms^-1

Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed v in a circle of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle:

1. Depends on v and not on R
2. Depends on R and not on v
3. is independent of both v and R
4. Depends on both v and R

A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the +ve direction of the x-axis with a speed of 128 m/s and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4 m length of the string. The equation describing the wave is:

1. y = (0.02)m sin(7.85x+1005t)

2. y = (0.02)m sin(15.7x -2010t)

3. y = (0.02)m sin(15.7x+2010t)

4. y = (0.02)m sin(7.85x -1005t)

A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time period T. The speed of the pendulum at

x = \frac{a}{2}

will be:

\frac{πa \sqrt{3}}{2 T}

\frac{πa}{T}

\frac{3 π^{2} a}{T}

\frac{πa \sqrt{3}}{T}

10.

A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band-gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength:

1. 6000 Å

2. 4000 nm

3. 6000 nm

4. 4000 Å

11.

A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity 20 ms^-1. It momentarily comes to rest after attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction? (g =10 ms^-2)

1. 20 J

2. 30 J

3. 40 J

4. 10 J

12.

The symbolic representation of four logic gates:

(ι)
(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND gates are respectively:

1. (iii), (iv), (ii)
2. (iv), (i), (iii)
3. (iv), (ii), (i)
4. (i), (iii), (iv)

13.

\vec{F}

is the force acting on a particle having position vector

\vec{r}

and

\vec{τ}

be the torque of this force about the origin, then:

\vec{r}

\vec{τ}

≠ 0 and

\vec{F}

\vec{τ}

= 0

\vec{r}

\vec{τ}

> 0 and

\vec{F}

\vec{τ}

< 0

\vec{r}

\vec{τ}

= 0 and

\vec{F}

\vec{τ}

= 0

\vec{r}

\vec{τ}

= 0 and

\vec{F}

\vec{τ}

≠ 0

14.

If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is

1. Repelled by both the poles
2. Repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
3. Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
4. Attracted by both the poles

15.

The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its acceleration is: (g=10 m/s²)

1. 30 ms^-2 downwards
2. 4 ms^-2 upwards
3. 4 ms^-2 downwards
4. 14 ms^-2 upwards

16.

The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an:

1. isobar of parent
2. Isomer of parent
3. Isotone of parent
4. Isotope of parent

17.

A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x-y) plane, are moving out of a uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity,

\vec{v} = v \hat{i}

. The magnetic field is directed along the negative z-axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops out of the field region will not remain constant for:

1. the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops
2. the circular and the elliptical loops
3. only the elliptical loop
4. any of the four loops

18.

A particle starts its motion from rest under the action of a constant force. If the distance covered in the first 10 sec is S₁ and that covered in the first 20 sec is S₂, then

1. S₂ = 2S₁

2. S₂ = 3S₁

3. S₂ = 4S₁

4. S₂ = S₁

19.

A wire of resistance 12

Ω m^{- 1}

is bent to form a complete circle of radius 10 cm. The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, A and B as shown in the figure, is :

1. 0.6

πΩ

2. 3

πΩ

3. 61

π Ω

4. 6

π Ω

20.

The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by
E_x =0;
E_y=

2.5 \frac{N}{C} \cos [(2 π \times 10^{6} \frac{rad}{m}) t - (π \times 10^{- 2} \frac{rad}{s}) x]

E_s = 0. The wave is

1. Moving along y-direction with frequency 21

π

x 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 200 m.
2. Moving along x-direction with frequency 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 100m
3. Moving along x-direction with frequency 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 200m
4. Moving along x-direction with frequency 10⁶ Hz and wavelength 800m

21.

A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating in a horizontal plane about an axis vertical to its plane with a constant angular velocity

ω

. If two objects each of mass m be attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring, the ring will then rotate with an angular velocity:

\frac{ω (M - 2 m)}{M + 2 m}

\frac{ω M}{M + 2 m}

\frac{ω (M + 2 m)}{M}

\frac{ω M}{M + m}

22.

A transistor is operated in common-emitter configuration at V_c = 2 volt such that a change in the base current from 100

μ

A to 200

μ

A produces a change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The current gain is:

1. 75

2. 100

3. 150

4. 50

23.

A black body at 227 °C radiates heat at the rate of 7 cal-cm^-2s^-1. At a temperature of 727 °C, the rate of heat radiated in the same units will be:

1. 60

2. 50

3. 112

4. 80

24.

A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf E and internal resistance r) as a function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope and intercept of the graph between V and I, respectively, equal to :

1. E and -r

2. -r and E

3. r and -E

4. -E and r

25.

Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position vectors

\hat{i}

\hat{j}

\hat{k}

and -3

\hat{i}

- 2

\hat{j}

\hat{k}

, respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector:

1. -2

\hat{i}

\hat{k}

2. -2

\hat{i}

\hat{j}

\hat{k}

3. 2

\hat{i}

\hat{j}

- 2

\hat{k}

4. -

\hat{i}

\hat{j}

\hat{k}

26.

The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and done 500 J of work is:

1. 8900 J

2. 6400 J

3. 5400 J

4. 7900 J

27.

An engine pumps water continuously through a hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water?

\frac{1}{2} m v^{3}

m v^{3}

\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}

\frac{1}{2} m^{2} v^{2}

28.

The driver of a car travelling with speed 30 m/s towards a hill sounds a horn of frequency 600 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s the frequency of reflected sound as heard by the driver is:

1. 550 Hz
2. 555.5 Hz
3. 720 Hz
4. 500 Hz

29.

In a Rutherford scattering experiment, when a projectile of charge Z₁ and mass M₁ approaches a target nucleus of charge Z₂ and mass M₂, the distance of the closest approach is r₀. The energy of the projectile is

1. Directly proportional to M₁ x M₂

2. Directly proportional to Z₁Z₂

3. Inversely proportional to Z₁

4. Directly proportional to mass M₁

30.

Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be

\frac{C}{3}, \frac{V}{3}

3 C, \frac{V}{3}

\frac{C}{3}, 3 V

4. 3C, 3V

31.

The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge -2

μ

C in a magnetic field of 2T acting in y-direction, when the particle velocity is (2

\hat{i}

+ 3

\hat{j}

]) x 10⁶ ms^-1 is:

1. 8 N in - z-direction

2. 4 N in z-direction

3. 8 N in y-direction

4. 8 N in z-direction

32.

Which one of the following equations of motion represents simple harmonic motion where k, k₀, k_1, and a are all positive?

1. Acceleration = -k₀x + k₁x²

2. Acceleration = -k(x + a)

3. Acceleration = k(x + a)

4. Acceleration = kx

33.

Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium-neon laser. The power emitted is 9mW. The number of photons arriving per second on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is

1. 9 x 10¹⁷

2. 3 X 10¹⁶

3. 9 x 10¹⁵

4. 3 X 10¹⁹

34.

The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus anode potential for a photosensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

1. Curves a and b represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

2. Curves a and b represent incident radiations of the same frequency but of different intensities

3. Curves b and c represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

4. Curves b and c represent incident radiations of same frequency having the same intensity

35.

Power dissipated in an L-C-R series circuit connected to an AC source of emf E is:

36.

The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = -x²y - xz³ +4
The electric field

\vec{E}

at that point is

\vec{E}

= (2xy + z³)

\hat{i}

+ x²

\hat{j}

+ 3xz²

\hat{k}

\vec{E}

= 2xy

\hat{i}

+ (x² +y²)

\hat{j}

+(3xz-y²)

\hat{k}

\vec{E}

= z³

\hat{i}

+ xyz

\hat{j}

+ z²

\hat{k}

\vec{E}

= (2xy- z³)

\hat{i}

+ xy²

\hat{j}

+ 3z²x

\hat{k}

37.

A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2 x 10⁴ JT^-1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field B = 6 x 10^-4T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60 ° from the field is

1. 0.6 J

2. 12 J

3. 6 J

4. 2 J

38.

A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60

Ω

shows full-scale deflection when a current of. 1.0 A passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents up to 5.0 A by:

1. Putting in parallel resistance of 24

Ω

2. Putting in series resistance of 15

Ω

3. Putting in series resistance of 240

Ω

4. Putting in parallel resistance of 15

Ω

39.

The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T₁ and T₂ (T₁> T₂). The rate of heat transfer

\frac{d Q}{d t}

through the rod in a steady state is given by:

\frac{d Q}{d t} = \frac{K L (T_{1} - T_{2})}{A}

\frac{d Q}{d t} = \frac{K (T_{1} - T_{2})}{L A}

\frac{d Q}{d t} = K L A (T_{1} - T_{2})

\frac{d Q}{d t} = \frac{K A (T_{1} - T_{2})}{L}

40.

See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it?

ε_{1} - (i_{1} + i_{2}) R - i_{1} r_{1} = 0

ε_{2} - i_{2} r_{2} - ε_{1} - i_{1} r_{1} = 0

- ε_{2} - (i_{1} + i_{2}) R + i_{2} r_{2} = 0

ε_{1} - (i_{1} + i_{2}) R + i_{1} r_{1} = 0

41.

The mean free path of electrons in a metal is 4 x 10^-8 m. The electric field which can give on an average 2 eV energy to an electron in the metal will be in the unit of Vm^-1

1. 8 x 10⁷

2. 5 x 10^-11

3. 8 X 10^-11

4. 5 X 10⁷

42.

The number of photoelectrons emitted for the light of a frequency

ν

(higher than the threshold frequency

ν

₀) is proportional to

ν

ν

₀

2. threshold frequency (

ν

₀)

3. intensity of light

4. frequency of light (

ν

)

43.

Each of the two strings of length 51.6 cm and 49.1 cm are tensioned separately by 20 N force. Mass per unit length of both the strings is the same and equal to 1 g/m. When both the strings vibrate simultaneously the number of beats is:

1. 5

2. 7

3. 8

4. 3

44.

The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between :

1. n = 3 to n = 2 states

2. n = 3 to n = 1 states

3. n = 2 to n = 1 states

4. n = 4 to n= 3 states

45.

Four identical thin rods each of mass M and length form a square frame. The moment of inertia of this frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is:

\frac{4}{3} M l^{2}

\frac{2}{3} M l^{2}

\frac{13}{3} M l^{2}

\frac{1}{3} M l^{2}

46.

In thermodynamic processes which of the following statements is not true?

1. In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from the surroundings

2. In an isochoric process pressure remains constant

3. in an isothermal process the temperature remains constant
4. In an adiabatic process

P V^{γ}

= constant

47.

The figure shows the elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB. If t₁ is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t₂ is the time to move from A to B, then,

1. t₁> t₂

2. t₁ = 4t₂

3. t₁ = 2t₂

4. t₁ = t₂

48.

Sodium has body centered packing. Distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 A. The lattice parameter is

1. 6.8 Å

2. 4.3 Å

3. 3.0 Å

4. 8.5 Å

49.

A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially upstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be:

1. Mg/k

2. 2Mg/k

3. 4Mg/k

4. Mg/2k

50.

A body, under the action of a force

\vec{F} = 6 \hat{i} - 8 \hat{j} + 10 \hat{k}

, acquires an acceleration of 1 ms^-2. The mass of this body must be:

2 \sqrt{10}

kg
2. 10 kg
3. 20 kg
4.

10 \sqrt{2}

51.

Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

1. (CH₃)₃B

2. (CH₃)₂O

3. (CH₃)₃P

4. (CH₃)₃N

52.

Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic substitution reaction?

1. RX + KOH →+ ROH + KX

2. 2RX + 2Na →R — R + 2NaX

3. RX + H₂→RH + HX

4. RX + Mg →RMg X

53.

From the following bond energies :
H—H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol^-1
C =C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol^-1
C—C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol^-1
C—H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol^-1

Enthalpy for the reaction,

will be

54.

Which one of the elements with the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the largest number of oxidation states?

1. 3d³, 4s²

2. 3d⁵, 4s¹

3. 3d⁵, 4s²

4. 3d², 4s²

55.

The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is 1.77 x 10^-5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of ammonium Chloride is

56.

Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?

1. B₂O₃

2. CaO

3. SiO₂

4. BeO

57.

Which of the following does not show optical isomerism?(en = ethylenediamine)

1. [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺

2. [Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃]

3. [Co(en)Cl₂(NH₃)₂]⁺

4. [Co(en)₃]³⁺

58.

Which one of the following is employed as a tranquilizer?

1. Equanil

2. Naproxen

3. Tetracycline

4. Chlorpheninamine

59.

Al₂O₃is reduced by electrolysis at low potentials and high currents. If 4.0 x 10⁴A of current is passed through molten Al₂O3 for 6 hours, what mass of aluminium is produced ? (Assume 100% current efficiency, at. mass of Al = 27 g mol^-1)

60.

Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl₃CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and produces

61.

Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light?
(At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)

1. [Sc(H₂O)₃(NH₃)₃]³⁺

2. [Ti(en)₂ (NH₃)₂]⁴⁺

3. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

4. [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺

62.

Half-life period of a first order reaction is 1386 s. The specific rate constant of the reaction is

1. $5.0 \times 10^{- 3} s^{- 1}$

2. $0.5 \times 10^{- 2} s^{- 1}$

3. $0.5 \times 10^{- 3} s^{- 1}$

4. $5.0 \times 10^{- 2} s^{- 1}$

63.

Consider the following reaction,
$Phenol \overset{Zn dust}{\to} X \to_{Anhy . {AlCl}_{3}}^{{CH}_{3} Cl} Y \overset{Alkaline {KMnO}_{4}}{\to} Z$
the product, Z, is

1. toluene

2. benzaldehyde

3. benzoic acid

4. benzene

64.

Copper crystallises in a face-centred cubic lattice with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom in pm?

1. 128

2. 157

3. 181

4. 108

65.

For the reaction, A + B → products, it is observed that
(1) On doubling the initial concentration of A only, the rate of reaction is also doubled and
(2) On doubling the initial concentrations of both A and B, there is a change by a factor of 8 in the rate of the reaction.
The rate of this reaction is, given by

1. $r a t e = k [A]^{2} [B]$

2. $r a t e = k [A] [B]^{2}$

3. $r a t e = k [A]^{2} [B]^{2}$

4. $r a t e = k [A] [B]$

66.

According to the MO theory, which of the following lists ranks the nitrogen species in terms of increasing bond order?

1. $N_{2}^{-} < N_{2} < N_{2}^{2 -}$

2. $N_{2}^{2 -} < N_{2}^{-} < N_{2}$

3. $N_{2} < N_{2}^{2 -} < N_{2}^{-}$

4. $N_{2}^{-} < N_{2}^{2 -} < N_{2}$

67.

The state of hybridisation of C₂, C₃, C₅ and C₆of the hydrocarbon,

is in the following sequence

1. $s p, s p^{3}, s p^{2} a n d s p^{3}$

2. $s p^{3}, s p^{2}, s p^{2} a n d s p$

3. $s p, s p^{2}, s p^{2} a n d s p^{3}$

4. $s p, s p^{2}, s p^{3} a n d s p 2$

68.

Among the following which is the strongest oxidising agent ?

1. $F_{2}$

2. $B r_{2}$

3. $l_{2}$

4. $C l_{2}$

69.

The equivalent conductance of $\frac{M}{32}$ solution of a weak monobasic acid is 8.0 mho cm²and at infinite dilution is 400 mho cm². The dissociation constant of this acid is

1. $1.25 \times 10^{- 5}$

2. $1.25 \times 10^{- 6}$

3. $6.25 \times 10^{- 4}$

4. $1.25 \times 10^{- 4}$

70.

Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented?

1. Teflon

{(- {CF}_{2} - {CF}_{2} -)}_{n}

2. Neoprene

${(- {CH}_{2} - \underset{Cl}{\underset{|}{C}} = CH - {CH}_{2} - {CH}_{2} -)}_{n}$

3. Terylene

4. Nylon 66

${[- NH {({CH}_{2})}_{6} NHCO {({CH}_{2})}_{4} - CO -]}_{n}$

71.

Oxidation numbers of P in ${PO}_{4}^{3 -}$ , of S in ${SO}_{4}^{2 -}$ and that of Cr in ${Cr}_{2} O_{7}^{2 -}$ are respectively,

1. +5, +6 and +6

2. +3, +6 and +5

3. +5, +3 and +6

4. -3, +6 and +6

72.

The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula CH≡C–CH=CH₂ is

1. 3-butene-1-yne

2. 1-butyn-3-ene

3. but-1-yne-3-ene

4. 1-butene-3-yne

73.

In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order

1. MCl>Ml>MBr>MF

2. MF>MCl>MBr>Ml

3. MF>MCl>Ml>MBr

4. Ml>MBr>MCl>MF

74.

Given,
(i) ${Cu}^{2 +} + 2 e^{-} \to Cu$ E^o = 0.337 V
(ii) ${Cu}^{2 +} + e^{-} \to {Cu}^{+}$ E^o = 0.153 V
Electrode potential, E⁰ for the reaction,
${Cu}^{1} + e^{-} \to Cu$ , will be

1. 0.52 V

2. 0.90 V

3. 0.30 V

4. 0.38 V

75.

For the reaction, N₂ + 3H₂→2NH₃, if $\frac{d [N H_{3}]}{d t}$ =2 x 10^-4 mol L^-1s^-1, the value of $\frac{- d [H_{2}]}{d t}$ would be

1. $3 \times 10^{- 4} m o l L^{- 1} s^{- 1}$

2. $4 \times 10^{- 4} m o l L^{- 1} s^{- 1}$

3. $6 \times 10^{- 4} m o l L^{- 1} s^{- 1}$

4. $1 \times 10^{- 4} m o l L^{- 1} s^{- 1}$

76.

What is the [OH^-] in the final solution prepared by mixing 20.0 mL of 0.050 M HCl with 30.0 mL of 0.10 M Ba(OH)₂ ?

1. 0.10 M

2. 0.40 M

3. 0.0050 M

4. 0.12 M

77.

Out of ${TiF}_{6}^{2 -}$ , ${CoF}_{6}^{3 -}$ , Cu₂Cl₂ and ${NiCl}_{4}^{2 -}$ (Z of Ti = 22, Co=27, Cu = 29, Ni= 28) the colourless species are

1. $T i F_{6}^{2 -} a n d C o F_{6}^{3 -}$

2. $C u_{2} C l_{2} a n d N i C l_{4}^{2 -}$

3. $T i F_{6}^{2 -} a n d C u_{2} C l_{2}$

4. $C o F_{6}^{3 -} a n d N i C l_{4}^{2 -}$

78.

Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionisation energy ?

1. $[N e] 3 s^{2} 3 p^{3}$

2. $[N e] 3 s^{2} 3 p^{2}$

3. $[A r] 3 d^{10} 4 s^{2} 4 p^{3}$

4. $[N e] 3 s^{2} 3 p^{1}$

79.

Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following

1. 4l+2

2. 2l+1

3. 4l- 2

4. 2n²

80.

Lithium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of lithium is 351 pm, the atomic radius of the lithium will be

1. 240.8 pm

2. 151.8 pm

3. 75.5 pm

4. 300.5 pm

81.

The segment of DNA, which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is

1. nucleotide

2. ribose

3. gene

4. nucleoside

82.

Predict the product,

+ {NaNO}_{2} + HCl \to Product

83.

Which of the following compounds will exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism?

1. 2-butene

2. Butanol

3. 2-butyne

4. 2-butenol

84.

The values of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction, C_(graphite) +CO₂(g)→2CO(g) are 170 kJ and 170 JK^-1, respectively. This reaction will be spontaneous at

1. 710 K

2. 910 K

3. 1110 K

4. 510 K

85.

H₂COH.CH₂OH on heating with per-iodic acid gives

1. 2CO₂

2. 2 HCOOH

86.

The dissociation constants for acetic acid and HCN at 25 °C are 1.5 x 10^-5and 4.5 x 10^-10, respectively. The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium,
CN^- + CH₃COOHHCN + CH₃Coo^-
would be

1. $3.0 \times 10^{5}$

2. $3.0 \times 10^{- 5}$

3. $3.0 \times 10^{- 4}$

4. $3.0 \times 10^{4}$

87.

Nitrobenzene can be prepared from benzene by using a mixutre of cone HNO₃ and cone. H₂SO₄. In the mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an:

1. reducing agent

2. acid

3. base

4. catalyst

88.

In the reaction,
${BrO}_{3}^{-} (aq) + 5 {Br}^{-} (aq) + 6 H^{+} \to$ 3Br₂(l)+3H₂O(l)
The rate of appearance of bromine (Br₂) is related to rate of disappearance of bromide ions as following

1. $\frac{d [B r_{2}]}{d t} = - \frac{3}{5} \frac{d [B r^{-}]}{d t}$

2. $\frac{d [B r_{2}]}{d t} = - \frac{5}{3} \frac{d [B r]}{d t}$

3. $\frac{d [B r_{2}]}{d t} = \frac{5}{3} \frac{d [B r^{-}]}{d t}$

4. $\frac{d [B r_{2}]}{d t} = \frac{3}{5} \frac{d [B r^{-}]}{d t}$

89.

In which of the following molecules/ions BF₃, , and H₂O, the central atom is sp²hybridised ?

1. $N O_{2}^{-} a n d N H_{2}^{-}$

2. $N H_{2}^{-} a n d H_{2} O$

3. $N O_{2}^{-} a n d H_{2} O$

4. $B F_{3} a n d N O_{2}^{-}$

90.

Which of the following hormones contains iodine?

1. Insuline

2. Testosterone

3. Adernaline

4. Thyroxine

91.

10 g of hydrogen and 64 of oxygen were filled in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water produced in this reaction will be

1. 2 mol

2. 3 mol

3. 4 mol

4. 1 mol

92.

The energy absorbed by each molecule (A₂) of a substance is 4.4 x 10^-19 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 x 10^-19 J. The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be

1. $2.0 \times 10^{- 20} J$

2. $2.2 \times 10^{- 19} J$

3. $2.0 \times 10^{- 19} J$

4. $4.0 \times 10^{- 20} J$

93.

The straight chain polymer is formed by

1. hydrolysis of $C H_{3} S i C l_{3}$ followed by condensation polymerization

2. hydrolysis of $(C H_{3})_{3} S i C l$ followed by condensation polymerization

3. hrdrolysis of $(C H_{3})_{4} S i$ by addition polymerisation

4. hydrolysis of $(C H_{3})_{2} S i C l_{2}$ followed by condensation polymerization

94.

The stability of +1 oxidation state increases in the sequence

1. Al <Ga<In<Tl

2. Tl<In<Ga<Al

3. In<Tl<Ga<Al

4. Ga<In<Al<Tl

95.

Consider the following reaction, $ethanol \overset{{PBr}_{3}}{\to} X \overset{alc . KOH}{\to} Y \to_{(ii) H_{2} O, heat}^{(i) H_{2} {SO}_{4}, room temperature} Z;$
the product Z, is

1. $C H_{2} = C H_{2}$

2. $C H_{3} C H_{2} - O - C H_{2} - C H_{3}$

3. $C H_{3} - C H_{2} - O - S O_{3} H$

4. $C H_{3} C H_{2} O H$

96.

A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)Cl freezes at - 0.0073C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (k1 = -1.86 C I m)

1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 1

97.

What is the dominant intermolecular force or bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH₃OH to a gas ?

1. Hydrogen bonding

2. Dipole-dipole interaction

3. Covalent bonds

4. London dispersion force

98.

Benzene reacts with CH₃Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ to form

1. toluene

2. chlorobenzene

3. benzylchloride

4. xylene

99.

Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom ?

1. n= 4, l= 0, m= 0, s= -1/2

2. n= 5, l= 3, m= 0, s= +1/2

3. n= 3, l= 2, m= 3, s= -1/2

4. n= 3, l= 2, m= 2, s= -1/2

100.

Propanoic acid with Br₂/P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be

C H_{2} B r - C H B r - C O O H

H - {C_{|}^{|}}_{Br}^{Br} - {CH}_{2} COOH

C H_{2} B r - C H_{2} - C O B r

{CH}_{3} - {C_{|}^{|}}_{Br}^{Br} - COOH

101.

The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as a/an

1. indicator of water pollution

2. insecticide

3. agent for production of dairy products

4. source of industrial enzyme

102.

Chipko movement was launched for the protection of

1. grasslands

2. forests

3. livestock

4. wet lands

103.

A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxin in adults and characterized by
(i) a low metabolic rate
(ii) increase in body weight
(iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is

1. hypothyroidism

2. simple goitre

3. myxoedema

4. cretinism

104.

Elbow joint is an example of

1. Pivot joint

2. Hinge joint

3. Glinding joint

4. ball and socket joint

105.

The correct sequence of plants in a Hydrosere is

1. Oak $\to$ Lamtana $\to$ Scirpus $\to$ Pistia $\to$ Hydrilla $\to$ Volvox

2. Volvox $\to$ Hydrilla $\to$ Pistia $\to$ Scirpus $\to$ Lantana $\to$ Oak

3. Pistia $\to$ Volvox $\to$ Scirpus $\to$ Hydrilla $\to$ Oak $\to$ Lantana

4. Oak $\to$ Lantana $\to$ Volvox $\to$ Hydrilla $\to$ Pistia $\to$ Scirpus

106.

Mannitol is the stored food in of

1. Chara

2. Porphyra

3. Fucus

4. Gracillaria

107.

The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is

1. cuboidal

2. glandular

3. ciliated

4. squamous

108.

Which one of the following pair of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

1. Protein and starch

2. Starch and fat

3. Fat and cellulose

4. Starch and cellulose

109.

Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of

1. man

2. earthworm

3. cockroach

4. frog

110.

Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

1. Coelenterates (cnidarians)

2. Ascheminthes (roundworms)

3. Ctenophores

4. Sponges

111.

Tiger is not a resident, in which one of the following national park?

1. Rantharmbhor

2. Sunderbans

3. Gir

4. Jim Corbett

112.

A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect

1. formation of zygote

2. pattern of cleavage

3. number of blastomeres produced

4. fertilization

113.

When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from

1. marasmus

2. rickets

3. kwashiorkor

4. pellagra

114.

Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plants contains

1. light-independent reaction enzymes

2. light-dependent reaction enzymes

3. ribosomes

4. chlorophyll

115.

Which of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?

1. Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18 segments

2. Four pairs of spermathecae in 4-7 segments

3. One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments

4. Two pairs of tests in 10th and 11th segments

116.

Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

1. pressure exerted by aminotic fluid

2. release of oxytocin from pituitary

3. fully developed foetus and placenta

4. differentiation of mammary glands

117.

Which one of the following has haplontic life cycle?

1. Funaria

2. Polytrichum

3. Ustilago

4. wheat

118.

Which of the following plants you would select for the production of bioethanol?

1. Brassica

2. Zea mays

3. Pongamia

4. jatropha

119.

Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

1. Medulla oblongata

2. Cerebellum

3. Cerebrum

4. Hyprothalamus

120.

Which one of the following is the correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?

1. Heart wall- Involuntary unstriated muscle

2. Biceps of upper arm- Smooth muscle fibers

3. Abdominal wall- Smooth muscle

4. Iris- Involuntary smooth muscle

121.

In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during the industrial revolution. This is an example of

1. natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected

2. appearance of the darker coloures individuals due to very poor sunlight

3. protective mimicry

4. inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment

122.

Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in

1. Chromatium

2. Oscillatoria

3. Rhodospirillum

4. Chlorobium

123.

The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by

1. periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA

2. administering adenosine deaminase activators

3. introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages

4. Invitro Cell culture therapy.

124.

The annular and spirally thickened conducting elements generally develop in the protoxylem when the root or stem is

1. maturing

2. elongating

3. widening

4. differentiating

125.

In barley stem, vascular bundles are

1. open and scattered

2. closed and scattered

3. open and in a ring

4. closed and radial

126.

Sickle cell anaemia is:

1. an autosomal linked dominant trait

2. caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the globin chain of haemoglobin

3. caused by a change in base pair of DNA

4. characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

127.

If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its _outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes out is

1. excretory fluid

2. coelomic fluid

3. harmolymph

4. slimy mucus

128.

There is no DNA in

1. an enucleated ovum

2. mature RBCs

3. a mature spermatozoan

4. hair root

129.

Point mutation involves

1. insertion

2. change in single base pair

3. duplication

4. deletion

130.

Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?

1. Teak

2. Mango

3. Wheat

4. Tea

131.

In a standard ECG, which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

1. R-repolarisation of ventricles

2. S-start of systole

3. T-end of diastole

4. P-depolarisation of the atria

132.

Study the pedigree chart given below

What does it show?

1. Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism

2. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait

3. The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible

4. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia

133.

Middle lamella is mainly composed of

1. hemicellulose

2. muramic acid

3. calcium pectate

4. phosphoglycerides

134.

Somaclones are obtained by

1. tissue culture

2. plant breeding

3. irradiation

4. genetic engineering

135.

Which one of the following plants is monoecious ?

1. Marchantia

2. Pinus

3. Cycas

4. Papaya

136.

Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?

1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (d)

137.

Plasmodesmata are

1. lignified cemented layers between cells

2. locomotory structures

3. membranes connecting the nucleus with plasmalemma

4. connections between adjacent cells

138.

Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?

1. Ringworm, AIDS

2. Common cold, AIDS

3. Dysentery, common cold

4. Thyphoid, tuberculosis

139.

Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed

1. catabolic

2. parabolic

3. amphibolic

4. anabolic

140.

Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?

1. Bacillus thuringiensis

2. Trichoderma harzianum

3. Nucleopolyhedrovirus(NPV)

4. Xanthomonas campestris

141.

Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of

1. dopamine

2. glutamic acid

3. acetylcholine

4. Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA)

142.

Cytoskeleton is made up of

1. calcium carbonate granules

2. callose deposits

3. cellulosic microfihrils

4. proteinaceous filaments

143.

Compared to blood our lymph has

1. no plasma

2. plasma without proteins

3. more WBCs and no RBCs

4. more RBCs and less WBCs

144.

Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female ?

1. Fertilization of the ovum

2. Maintenance of the hypertropical endometrial lining

3. Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in the blood stream

4. Retention of well-developes corpus luteum

145.

Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle

Which one of the following is. the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

1. B-Metaphase

2. C-Karyokinesis

3. D-Synthetic phase

4. A-Cytokinesis

146.

The floral formula is that of

1. tulip

2. soybean

3. sunnhemp

4. tobacco

147.

The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because 'O' in it refers to having

1. other antigens besides A and B on RBCs

2. over dominance of this type on the genes for A and B types

3. one antibody only- either anti A or anti-B on the RBCs

4. no antigens A and B on RBCs

148.

Which one of the following statement is true regarding digesting and absorption of food in humans?

1. Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen

2. Fructose qand amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na⁺.

3. Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.

4. About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.

149.

Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by

1. absence of secondary xylem

2. absence of secondary phloem

3. presence of cortex

4. position of protoxylem

150.

Manganese is required in

1. nucleic acid synthesis

2. plant cell wall formation

3. photolysis of water during photosynthesis

4. chlorophyll synthesis

151.

Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

1. Trichoderma harzianum

2. Meloidogyne incognita

3. Agro bacterium tumefaciens

4. Penicillium expansum

152.

Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called

1. splicing

2. tailing

3. transformation

4. capping

153.

Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a triplet?

1. Nirenberg and Mathaei

2. Hershey and CHase

3. Morgan and Sturtevant

4. Beadle and Tatum

154.

Seminal plasma in human is rich in

1. fructose, calcium and certain enzymes

2. fructose and calcium but has no enzymes

3. glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium

4. fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium

155.

Phylogenetic system of classification is based on

1. evolutionary relationships

2. morphological features

3. chemical constituents

4. floral characters

156.

Synapsis occurs between

1. a male and a female gamete

2. mRNA and ribosomes

3. spindle fibres and centromere

4. two homologous chromosomes

157.

Which one of the following pairs of animal comprises 'jawless fishes'?

1. Lampreys and eels

2. MAckerals and rohu

3. Lampreys and hag fishes

4. Guppies and hag fishes

158.

Select the incorrect statement from the following

1. linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity

2. galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism

3. small population size result in random genetic drift in a population

4. baldness is a sex-limites trait

159.

The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in

1. muscular tissue

2. connective tissue

3. epithelial tissue

4. neural tissue

160.

Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem?

1. Phytoplankton

2. Fish

3. Zooplankton

4. Frog

161.

Use of anti - histamine and steroids give a quick relief from

1. allergy

2. nausea

3. cough

4. headache

162.

Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?

1. Late blight of potato : Alternaria solani

2. Black rust of wheat-Puccinia graminis

3. Loose smut of wheat-Ustilago nuda

4. Root-knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp

163.

Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D

1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (d)

164.

Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

1. runner

2. offset

3. rhizome

4. sucker

165.

What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?

1. Urine will not collect in the bladder

2. Micturition will continue

3. Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

4. There will be no micturition

166.

One of the synthetic auxin is

1. NAA

2. IAA
3. GA

4. IBA

167.

A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age sex pyramids of populations. A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them

Interpretations

1. 'A' is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate

2. 'B' is more earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate

3. 'B' is more recent showing that population is very young

4. 'A' is the earlier pyramid and no change has occured in the growth rate

168.

The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is

1. spermatocyte-spermatogonia- spematid-sperms

2. spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms

3. spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperms

4. spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperms

169.

What is true about Bt toxin?

1. the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut

2. Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus

3. The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilize it and thus prevent its multiplication

4. the concerned Bacillus has antitoxins

170.

The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in

1. Vertebrae

2. Nails

3. Ear ossicled

4. tip of the nose

171.

DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is

1. lipo soluble

2. moderately toxic

3. non-toxic to aquatic animals

4. water soluble

172.

Which one of the following is a vascular cryptogam?

1. Equisetum

2. Ginkgo

3. Marchantia

4. Cedrus

173.

Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include

1. compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel

2. compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles, which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons

3. permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm Sulphur as fuel for vehicles

4. use of non-pollutiong Compressed natural Gas(CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks

174.

Montreal protocol aims at

1. reduction of ozone depleting substances

2. biodiversity conservation

3. control of water pollution

4. control of CO₂ emission

175.

Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?

1. Indole-butyric acid

2. Indole-3-acetic acid

3. Gibberellic acid

4. Abscisic acid`

176.

Guard cells help in

1. protection against grazing

2. transpiration

3. guttation

4. fighting against infection

177.

Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of

1. Sorghum

2. mustard

3. soybean

4. gram

178.

Cotyledons and testa are edible parts of

1. groundnut and pomegranate

2. walnut and tamarind

3. french bean and coconut

4. cashew nut and litchi

179.

Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?

1. Dependent sporophyte

2. Heterospory

3. Halplontic life cycle

4. Free-living gametophyte

180.

T.O. Diener discovered a

1. free infectious RNA

2. free infectious DNA

3. infectious protein

4. bacteriophage

181.

Polyethene glycol method is used for

1. gene transfer without a vector

2. biodiesel production

3. seedless fruit production

4. energy production from sewage

182.

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

1. Detergents-Lipase

2. Alcohol-Nitrogenase

3. Fruit juice-Pectinase

4. Textile-Amylase

183.

A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering

1. dead germs

2. preformed antibodies

3. wide spectrum antibiotics

4. weakened germs

184.

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water

1. remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs

2. has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water

3. gives a measure of Salmonella in the water

4. increases when sewage gets mixed with river water

185.

Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?

1. Ovulation-LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone

2. Proliferative phase-Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle

3. Development of corpus luteum-Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone

4. Menstruation-Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized

186.

Cyclic -photophosphorylation results in the formation of

1. NADPH

2. ATP and NADPH

3. ATP, NADPH and O₂

4. ATP

187.

Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in

1. defence mechanisms of body

2. osmotic balance of body fluids

3. oxygen transport in the blood

4. clotting of blood

188.

Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer?

1. Glomus

2. Azotobacter

3. Frankia

4. Azolla

189.

An example of axile placentation is

1. Argemone

2. Dianthus

3. Lemon

4. Marigold

190.

Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

1. Drosophila melanogaster

2. Escherichia coli

3. Streptococcus pneumoniae

4. Salmonella typhimurium

191.

A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk, which is white in colour but the stools, which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to?\

1. Intestinal juice

2. Bile pigments passed through bile juice

3. Undigested mil protein casein

4. pancreatic juice poured into duodenum

192.

A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescences is called

1. hesperidium

2. sorosis

3. syconus

4. caryopsis

193.

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

1. Patients, who had undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain

2. Benign tumours show the property of metastasis

3. heroin accelerates body fuctions

4. Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis

194.

Transgenic plants are

1. produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium

2. generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell

3. Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium

4. grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field

195.

The letter T , in T- lymphocyte refers to

1. thyroid

2. thalamus

3. tonsil

4. thymus

196.

Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substance, was adopted by

1. Rio de Janeiro Conference

2. The Montreal Protocol

3. The Koyoto Protocol

4. The Vienna Convention

197.

Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical tissue and cuticle is characteristic of

1. xerophytes

2. mesophytes

3. epiphytes

4. hydrophyte

198.

An example of a seed with endosperm perisperm and carnucle is

1. cotton

2. coffee

3. lily

4. castor

199.

What is not true for genetic code?

1. A codon in mRNA is read in non-contiguous fashion

2. It is nearly universal

3. It is degenerate

4. It is unambiguous

200.

Peripatus is a connecting link between

1. Ctenophora and Plantyhelminthes

2. Mollusca and Echinodermata

3. Annelida and Arthropoda

4. Coelenterata and Poriphera

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