In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves the transfer of which one of the following into the Fallopian tube?
1. Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
2. Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
3. Embryo of 32 cell stage
4. Zygote only
Which one of the following structures between two adjacent cells is an effective transport pathway?
1. Plasmodesmata
2. Plastoquinones
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Plasmalemma
Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
1. Protista
2. Fungi
3. Archaea
4. Monera
The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:
1. insect-resistance
2. enhancing self-life
3. enhancing mineral content
4. drought-resistance
In unilocular ovary with a single ovule, the placentation is:
1. marginal
2. basal
3. free central
4. axile
An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:
1. molybdenum
2. copper
3. manganese
4. zinc
Sertoli cells are found in:
1. | ovaries and secrete progesterone |
2. | adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline |
3. | seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells |
4. | pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin |
Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
1. | The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor. |
2. | Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant, and the other recessive. |
3. | Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in the F2 generation. |
4. | Factors occur in pairs. |
Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from:
1. synergids
2. maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
3. antipodal cells
4. diploid egg
One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as the anus is:
1. Octopus
2. Asterias
3. Ascidia
4. Fasciola
Select the correct statement from the ones given below:
1. | Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth |
2. | Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller |
3. | Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate |
4. | Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery |
Listed below are four respiratory capacities (1-4) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult.
Respiratory capacities | Respiratory volume | |
(a) | Residual volume | 2500 mL |
(b) | Vital capacity | 3500 mL |
(c) | Inspiratory reserve volume | 1200 mL |
(d) | Inspiratory capacity | 4500 mL |
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?
1. (a) 2500 mL, (d) 4500 mL
2. (c) 1200 mL, (a) 2500 mL
3. (b) 4500 mL, (c) 2500 mL
4. (d) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are:
1. vessels
2. fibres
3. transfusion tissue
4. tracheids
Ringworm in humans is caused by:
1. | bacteria | 2. | fungi |
3. | nematodes | 4. | viruses |
Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
1. Molybdenum
2. Magnesium
3. Zinc
4. Boron
Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
1. Saccharomyces
2. Streptococcus
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Plasmodium
Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from:
1. Testicular lobules to rete testis
2. Rete testis to vas deferens
3. Vas deferens to epididymis
4. Epididymis to urethra
Select the correct statement from the following:
1. | Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste |
2. | Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in the rumen of cattle |
3. | Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane |
4. | Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria |
Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon:
a: | Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it. |
b: | In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region. |
c: | The z-gene codes for permease. |
d: | It was explained by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod. |
The correct statements are:
1. | (b) and (c) |
2. | (a) and (c) |
3. | (b) and (d) |
4. | (a) and (b) |
Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
1. Gulmohur
2. Cassia
3. Calotropis
4. Bean
The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is:
1. cuboidal epithelium
2. columnar epithelium
3. ciliated columnar epithelium
4. squamous epithelium
Which one of the following has its own DNA?
1. Mitochondria
2. Dictyosome
3. Lysosome
4. Peroxisome
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called:
1. xenogamy
2. geitonogamy
3. karyogamy
4. autogamy
The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by:
1. test cross
2. dihybrid cross
3. pedigree analysis
4. back cross
PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of:
1. Bryophyte
2. Gymnosperm
3. Angiosperm
4. Algae
Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
a: | A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers |
b: | Predator starfish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates |
c: | Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species |
d: | Production of chemicals such as nicotine and strychnine by plants is metabolic disorder |
The two correct statements are:
1. a and d
2. a and b
3. b and c
4. c and d
Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:
1. fructose and calcium
2. glucose and calcium
3. DNA and testosterone
4. ribose and potassium
ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA IB and i. Since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes can occur?
1. Three
2. One
3. Four
4. Two
Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins, and proteins is called:
1. | somatic hybridization |
2. | biofortification |
3. | biomagnification |
4. | micropropagation |
A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is:
1. Baculovirus
2. Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Glomus
4. Trichoderma
Widal test is used for the diagnosis of:
1. malaria
2. pneumonia
3. tuberculosis
4. typhoid
Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?
1. Aldosterone
2. Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone
3. Adrenalin
4. Cortisol
Low Ca2+ in the body fluid may be the cause of:
1. tetany
2. anaemia
3. angina pectoris
4. gout
Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
1. Glucagon- Beta cells(source)
2. Somatostatin- Delta cells(source)
3. Corpus luteum- Relaxin(secretion)
4. Insulin- Diabetes mellitus(disease)
Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross:
1. | Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations |
2. | Genes far apart, on the same chromosome, show very few recombinations |
3. | Genes loosely linked, on the same chromosome, show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones |
4. | Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations |
Which one of the following statement with regards to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
1. | Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water |
2. | Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3 |
3. | Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules |
4. | Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes |
The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in:
1. hypothalamus
2. pons
3. cerebellum
4. thalamus
The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called:
1. net primary productivity
2. secondary productivity
3. standing crop
4. gross primary productivity
If due to some injury the chordae tendineae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
1. | The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down |
2. | The 'pacemaker' will stop working |
3. | The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium |
4. | The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced |
Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of:
1. guava
2. plum
3. brinjal
4. cucumber
Which one of the following is used as a vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?
1. Baculovirus
2. Salmonella typhimurium
3. Rhizopus nigricans
4. Retrovirus
The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being:
1. degenerate
2. ambiguous
3. universal
4. specific
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
1. Wildlife sanctuary
2. Seed bank
3. Sacred groves
4. National park
Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?
1. | 5'-CGTTCG-3' | 2. | 5'-GATATG-3' |
3'-ATGGTA-5' | 3'-CTACTA-5' | ||
3. | 5'-GAATTC-3' | 4. | 5'-CACGTA-3' |
3'-CTTAAG-5' | 3'-CTCAGT-5' |
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?
1. | HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person. |
2. | Drug addicts are the least susceptible to HIV infection. |
3. | AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition. |
4. | The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers. |
Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of:
1. gibberellin
2. phytochrome
3. cytokinins
4. auxin
The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of the response of organisms to abiotic factors. What do (a), (b) and (c) represent, respectively?
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
|
1. |
Regulator |
Conformer |
Partial regulator |
2. |
Conformer |
Regulator |
Partial regulator |
3. |
Regulator |
Partial regulator |
Conformer |
4. |
Partial regulator |
Regulator |
Conformer |
Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in:
1. Mustard
2. Castor
3. Pinus
4. Sphagnum
The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa-sinensis) is:
1. monadelphous
2. diadelphous
3. polyandrous
4. polyadelphous
Virus envelope is known as:
1. capsid
2. virion
3. nucleoprotein
4. core
The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for:
1. | detecting sex of the unborn foetus |
2. | artificial insemination |
3. | transfer of the embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother |
4. | detecting any genetic abnormality |
During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at:
1. late prophase
2. early metaphase
3. late metaphase
4. early prophase
The free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is:
1. Beijerinckia
2. Rhodospirillum
3. Rhizobium
4. Azotobacter
DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:
1. | vector | 2. | probe |
3. | clone | 4. | plasmid |
Darwin's finches are a good example of:
1. industrial melanism
2. connecting link
3. adaptive radiation
4. convergent evolution
The signals for parturition originate from:
1. placenta only
2. placenta as well as developed foetus
3. oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
4. fully developed foetus only
What is true about RBCs in humans?
1. | They carry about 20-25 per cent of CO2 |
2. | They transport 99.5 per cent of O2 |
3. | They transport about 80 per cent oxygen only and the rest 20 per cent of it is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma |
4. | They do not carry CO2 at all |
Which stages of cell division do the following figures A and B represent respectively?
1. | Metaphase- Telophase | 2. | Telophase- Metaphase |
3. | Late anaphase- Prophase | 4. | Prophase- Anaphase |
The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:
1. Plasma membrane
2. Mitochondria
3. Cytoplasm
4. Nucleus
The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is:
1. Rhizobium
2. Azospirillum
3. Oscillatoria
4. Frankia
The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised:
1. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
2. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
3. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
4. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like:
1. amino acids and glucose
2. glucose and fatty acids
3. fatty acids and glycerol
4. fructose and some amino acids
Which one of the following symbols and its representation, used in the human pedigree analysis is correct?
1. | = Mating between relatives |
2. | = Unaffected male |
3. | = Unaffected female |
4. | = male affected |
Which two of the following changes (a – d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(a) | Increase in red blood cell size |
(b) | Increase in red blood cell production |
(c) | Increased breathing rate |
(d) | Increase in thrombocyte count |
Changes occurring are:
1. (b) and (c)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (a) and (b)
Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxin synthesis lead to the development of:
1. toxic goitre
2. cretinism
3. simple goitre
4. thyrotoxicosis
If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect:
1. production of somatostatin
2. secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
3. maturation of sperms
4. smooth movement of food down the intestine
The plasma membrane consists mainly of:
1. phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
2. proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
3. proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose molecules
4. proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct?
1. | Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic |
2. | Leech is a freshwater form while others are marine |
3. | Songilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three |
4. | All are bilaterally symmetrical |
The first movements of the foetus and the appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
1. Fourth month
2. Fifth month
3. Sixth month
4. Third month
The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?
1. Cotyledon
2. Endosperm
3. Aleurone layer
4. Plumule
Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic?
1. Flatworms
2. Sponges
3. Ctenophores
4. Corals
Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?
1. Roundworms(Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
2. Molluscs are acoelomates
3. Insects are pseudocoelomates
4. Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
Copper ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs):
1. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
2. increase phagocytosis of sperms
3. suppress sperm motility
4. prevent ovulation
The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called:
1. glycolysis
2. fermentation
3. aerobic respiration
4. photorespiration
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which:
1. | make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule |
2. | recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase |
3. | restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase |
4. | remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule |
Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem?
1. Intrafascicular cambium
2. Interfascicular cambium
3. Phellogen
4. Intercalary meristem
A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
1. coal
2. petroleum
3. minerals
4. forest
Photoperiodism was first characterized in:
1. tobacco
2. potato
3. tomato
4. cotton
C4-plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3-plants due to:
1. | higher leaf area |
2. | presence of larger number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells |
3. | presence of thin cuticle |
4. | lower rate of photorespiration |
Alage have cell wall made up of:
1. Cellulose, galactans and mannans
2. Hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
3. Pectins, cellulose and proteins
4. Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups called:
1. eubacteria and archaea
2. cyanobateria and diatoms
3. protists and mosses
4. liverworts and yeasts
Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:
1. | transgenic mice for testing the safety of polio vaccine before use in humans |
2. | transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac disease |
3. | transgenic Cow-Rosie which produces high-fat milk for making ghee |
4. | Animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power |
Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are:
1. | long fibre and resistance to aphids |
2. | medium yield, log fibre, and resistance to beetle pests |
3. | high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests |
4. | high yield and resistance to bollworms |
Heartwood differs from sapwood in:
1. presence of rays and fibres
2. absence of vessels and parenchyma
3. having dead and non-conducting elements
4. being susceptible to pests and pathogens
Satellite DNA is a useful tool in:
1. Organ transplantation
2. Sex determination
3. Forensic science
4. Genetic engineering
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs:
1. | Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube |
2. | until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm |
3. | until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum |
4. | in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division |
Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?
1. Pea
2. Mucor
3. Chlamydomonas
4. HIV
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
1. | The acrosome has a conical, pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization. |
2. | The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope, facilitating fertilization. |
3. | The acrosome serves as a sensory structure, leading the sperm towards the ovum. |
4. | The acrosome serves no particular function. |
Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these:
(a) | Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppressants for a long time |
(b) | The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection |
(c) | The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft |
(d) | The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons |
The two correct statements are:
1. (b) and (c)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a) and (b)
Wind pollinated flowers are:
1. | small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains |
2. | small, producing large number of dry pollen grains |
3. | large, producing abundant nectar and pollen |
4. | small, producing nectar and dry pollen |
dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of:
1. the density of bacteria in a medium
2. a particular pollutant
3. the dominant Bacillus in a culture
4. a certain pesticide
Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
1. | Stratification | 2. | Natality |
3. | Mortality | 4. | Sex-ratio |
Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct:
1. | It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA |
2. | It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than an uncleaved zygote |
3. | It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote |
4. | It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote |
Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of:
1. thigmotaxis
2. thigmonasty
3. thigmotropism
4. thermotaxis
The two gases making the highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following is not used in organic farming?
1. Glomus
2. Earthworm
3. Oscillatoria
4. Snail
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for:
1. Addition of preservatives to the product
2. Purification of the product
3. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
4. Availability of oxygen throughout the process
An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice:
1. | does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones |
2. | gives high yield and is rich in vitamin-A |
3. | is completely resistant to all insect pests and diseases of paddy |
4. | gives high yield but has no characteristic aroma |
Infectious proteins are present in:
1. geminiviruses
2. prions
3. viroids
4. satellite viruses
The part of the Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
1. Isthmus
2. Infundibulum
3. Cervix
4. Ampulla
For the reaction,
the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.25 x 10-3mol L-1s-1.The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as:
1. | 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1 and 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
2. | 1.25 × 10-2 mol L-1s-1 and 3.125 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
3. | 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1 and 3.125 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
4. | 1.25 × 10-2 mol L-1s-1 and 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by:
1. oxidation
2. cracking
3. distillation under reduced pressure
4. hydrolysis
In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridization?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation?
1. (+) Sucrose
2. (+) Lactose
3. (+) Maltose=
4. (-) Fructose
A molecule/ion among the following species that does not exist under normal conditions is:
1. \(Be^+_2\)
2. \(Be_2\)
3. \(B_2\)
4. \(Li_2\)
The complex ion that does not expected to absorb visible light is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV) the correct order of decreasing acidic character will be:
1. | III>II>IV>I | 2. | II>III>I>IV |
3. | II>III>IV>I | 4. | III>IV>II>I |
A saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 has a pH of 12. The value of its Ksp will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives ‘X' and the reaction in presence of light gives 'Y'. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively:
1. | X= Benzal chloride, Y= o-chlorotoluene |
2. | X= m-chlorotoluene, Y= p-chlorotoluene |
3. | X= o and p-chlorotoluene, Y= trichloromethyl benzene |
4. | X= Benzyl chloride, Y= m-chlorotoluene |
The most acidic compound among the following is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
The product 'D' in the above-mentioned reaction is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
What is [H+] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH ?(Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 x 10-5):
1.
2.
3.
4.
For an endothermic reaction, the energy of activation is Ea, and the enthalpy of reaction is ΔH (both of these in kJ/mol). The minimum value of Ea will be:
1. Less than H
2. Equal to H
3. More than H
4. Equal to zero
The correct order of increasing C-X bond reactivity toward nucleophiles among the following is:
I | II | ||
III | \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{X}\) | IV | \(\left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2 \mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{X}\) |
1. | I < II < IV < III | 2. | II < III < I < IV |
3. | IV < III < I < II | 4. | III < II < I < IV |
For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be +0.46 V at 25 °C. The value of standard Gibbs energy, ΔGo will be:
(F = 96500 C mol-1)
1. -89.0 kJ
2. -89.0 J
3. -44.5 kJ
4. -98.0 kJ
The equilibrium reaction that doesn't have equal values for Kc and Kp is:
1. \(2NO(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2(g) + O_2(g)\)
2. \(SO_2(g) + NO_2(g) \rightleftharpoons SO_3(g) + NO(g)\)
3. \(H_2(g) + I_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2HI (g)\)
4. \(2C(s) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2CO_2(g)\)
Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?
1. La3+ (Z=57)
2. Ti3+ (Z=22)
3. Lu3+ (Z=71)
4. Sc3+ (Z=21)
Aniline gives a set of the following reactions that yielded a coloured product 'Y':
The structure of 'Y' is :
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
The reagent that is used to convert acetamide into methyl amine is:
1. NaOH-Br2
2. Soda lime
3. Hot conc. H2SO4
4. PCl5
An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. The vapour pressure of the solution
can be increased by:
1. Addition of NaCl
2. Addition of Na2SO4
3. Addition of 1.00 molal Kl
4. Addition of water
A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol-1 ) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be:
(kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
1. -0.372 oC
2. -0.520 oC
3. +0.372 oC
4. -0.570 oC
A compound that has higher hydration enthalpy than the lattice enthalpy is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d6?
(At. no :Mn = 25, Fe= 26, Co= 27, Ni = 28)
1.
2.
3.
4.
An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to:
1. | increase in ionic mobility of ions |
2. | 100% ionization of electrolyte at normal dilution |
3. | increase in both, i.e, number of ions and ionic mobility of ions |
4. | increase in the number of ions |
Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is:
1. -1.8
2. -1.6 +P
3. -1.2
4. -0.6
Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7, are respectively:
1. | +3, +5, +4 | 2. | +5, +3, +4 |
3. | +5, +4, +3 | 4. | +3, +4, +5 |
The incorrect statement among the following regarding the primary amine is:
1. | Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl amines |
2. | Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols |
3. | Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols |
4. | Alkyl amines are stronger bases than ammonia |
The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is:
1. \(C l_{2} O < C l O_{2} < C l O_{2}^{-}\)
2. \(C l O_{2} < C l_{2} O < C l O_{2}^{-}\)
3. \(C l_{2} O < C l O_{2}^{-} < C l O_{2}\)
4. \(C l O_{2}^{-} < C l_{2} O < C l O_{2}\)
The compound that is most susceptible to a nucleophilic attack in the carbonyl group is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3, is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of a solution. If sodium carbonate completely dissociates, the molar concentrations of sodium ion, Na+ and carbonate ion, are respectively:
(molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106g mol-1)
1. 0.955 M and 1.910 M
2. 1.910 M and 0.955 M
3. 1.90 M and 1.910 M
4. 0.477 M and 0.477 M
In a buffer solution containing an equal concentration of B- and HB, the Kb for B- is 10-10. pH of the buffer solution is:
1. | 10 | 2. | 7 |
3. | 6 | 4. | 4 |
The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+is due to:
1. Linkage isomerism
2. Geometrical isomerism
3. Coordination isomerism
4. Ionisation isomerism
Among the given options, what is the property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number?
1. Solubility of their hydroxides in water
2. Solubility of their sulphates in water
3. Ionization energy
4. Electro-negativity
During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B\( \rightarrow\)C + D, following results were obtained:
Run |
[A)/ mol L |
[B)/ mol L |
Initial rate of L |
I |
0.1 |
0.1 |
6.0 |
II |
0.3 |
0.2 |
7.2 |
III |
0.3 |
0.4 |
2.88 |
IV |
0.4 |
0.1 |
2.40 |
Based on the above data which one of the following is correct?
1. rate= k[A]2[B]
2. rate= k[A][B]
3. rate= k[A]2[B]2
4. rate= k[A][B]2
Which of the following pairs has the same size?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii
among the following isoelectronic species is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that present in the other three?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50JK-1mol-1 respectively. For the reaction
to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be:
1. 750 K
2. 1000 K
3. 1250 K
4. 500 K
The correct order of increasing electron affinity for the elements, O, S, F and Cl is:
1. | Cl < F < O < S | 2. | O < S < F < Cl |
3. | F < S < O < Cl | 4. | S < O < Cl < F |
Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The most reactive compound towards electrophilic reagent among the following is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
A compound among the following
that can be used as a tranquilizer is:
1. Promethazine
2. Valium
3. Naproxen
4. Mifepristone
The most stable conformation of n-butane among the following is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Which of the following reactions cannot form new carbon-carbon bonds?
1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation
The structure of neoprene polymer is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?
1.
2.
3.
4.
AB crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice with edge length 'a' equal to 387 pm. The distance between two oppositely charged ions in the lattice is:
1. 335 pm
2. 250 pm
3. 200 pm
4. 300 pm
The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is (NA= 6.02 x 1023 mol-1):
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A block of mass \(\mathrm{m}\) is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is . The acceleration of the cart that will prevent the block from falling satisfies:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The mass of a nucleus is \(0.042~\text{u}\) less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus is near:
1. \(4.6~\text{MeV}\)
2. \(5.6~\text{MeV}\)
3. \(3.9~\text{MeV}\)
4. \(23~\text{MeV}\)
A circular disk of a moment of inertia \(\mathrm{I_t}\) is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetric axis, with a constant angular speed \(\omega_i.\) Another disk of a moment of inertia \(\mathrm{I_b}\) is dropped coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially, the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually, both the disks rotate with a constant angular speed \(\omega_f.\) The energy lost by the initially rotating disc due to friction is:
1. \( \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}}^2}{\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}}\right)} \omega_{\mathrm{i}}^2\)
2. \( \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}^2}{\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}}\right)} \omega_{\mathrm{i}}^2\)
3. \( \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}}-\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}}{\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}}\right)} \omega_{\mathrm{i}}^2 \)
4. \( \frac{1}{2} \frac{\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}} \mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}}{\left(\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{t}}+\mathrm{I}_{\mathrm{b}}\right)} \omega_{\mathrm{i}}^2 \)
Which one of the following statements is false?
1. | Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor. |
2. | The majority of carriers in an n-type semiconductor are holes. |
3. | The minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons. |
4. | The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with an increase in temperature. |
The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by, x = asin2t. The motion of the particle corresponds to:
1. | simple harmonic motion of frequency |
2. | simple harmonic motion of frequency |
3. | non-simple harmonic motion |
4. | simple harmonic motion of frequency |
The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth are \(4R\) and \(R\) respectively. If the speed of satellite A is \(3v,\) then the speed of satellite B will be:
1. \(3v/4\)
2. \(6v\)
3. \(12v\)
4. \(3v/2\)
A beam of cathode rays is subjected to cross Electric (E) and magnetic fields(B). The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
(where V is the potential difference between cathode and anode)
A ball is dropped from a high-rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds, another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with speed v. The two balls meet after 18 seconds. What is the value of v?
1. | 75 ms-1 | 2. | 55 ms-1 |
3. | 40 ms-1 | 4. | 60 ms-2 |
A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index \(\mu\) falls on a surface separating the medium from the air at an angle of incidence of \(45^{\circ}\). For which of the following value of \(\mu\), the ray can undergo total internal reflection?
1. \(\mu = 1.33\)
2. \(\mu =1.40\)
3. \(\mu=1.50\)
4. \(\mu = 1.25\)
The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along with it, another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be:
1. T
2. T/
3. 2T
4. T
A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs at the same time?
1. Q /4
2. Q/16
3. 2Q
4. Q/2
A ball moving with velocity 2 ms-1 collides head-on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in ms-1) after the collision will be:
1. 0, 1
2. 1, 1
3. 1, 0.5
4. 0, 2
A transverse wave is represented by y = Asin(ωt -kx).
At what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity?
1. A/2
2. A
3. 2A
4. A
An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 ms-1. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is What is the power of the engine?
1. 400 W
2. 200 W
3. 100 W
4. 800 W
A thin ring of radius \(R\) metre has a charge \(q\) C uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates about its axis with a constant frequency of \(f\) revolutions/s. The value of magnetic induction in \(\mathrm{Wb ~m^{-2}}\)
1. \(\frac{\mu_0 qf}{2\pi R}\)
2. \(\frac{\mu_0 q}{2\pi f R}\)
3. \(\frac{\mu_0 q}{2f R}\)
4. \(\frac{\mu_0 qf}{2R}\)
Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conductivity decreases with temperature and has a high melting point?
1. Metallic bonding
2. Van der Waals' bonding
3. Ionic bonding
4. Covalent bonding
A particle moves a distance \(x\) in time \(t\) according to equation \(x=(t+5)^{-1}.\) The acceleration of the particle is proportional to:
1. (velocity)\(3/2\)
2. (distance)\(2\)
3. (distance)\(-2\)
4. (velocity)\(2/3\)
A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, \(B=0.025~\text{T}\) with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of \(1~\text{mm s}^{-1}\). The induced emf, when the radius is \(2~\text{cm}\), is:
1. \(2\pi ~\mu\text{V}\)
2. \(\pi ~\mu\text{V}\)
3. \(\frac{\pi}{2}~\mu\text{V}\)
4. \(2 ~\mu \text{V}\)
The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per minute at t = 5 min. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is:
1.
2.
3. 5
4.
Two particles that are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their mutual attraction. If their speeds are \(v\) and \(2v\) at any instant, then the speed of the centre of mass of the system will be:
1. \(2v\)
2. \(0\)
3. \(1.5v\)
4. \(v\)
A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of the same mass and radius a. The gravitational potential at a point situated at a / 2 distance from the centre, will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is:
1. Junction diode
2. Integrated circuit
3. Junction transistor
4. Zener diode
A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown in the figure below. The potential gradient across the potentiometer wire is k volt/cm. Ammeter present in the circuit reads 1.0 A when the two-way key is switched off. The balance points, when the key between the terminals (i) 1 and 2 (ii) 1 and 3, is plugged in, are found to be at lengths and respectively. The magnitudes of the resistors R and X in ohm, are then, respectively, equal to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A tuning fork of frequency \(512\) Hz makes \(4\) beats/s with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency decreases to \(2\) beats/s when the tension in the piano string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was:
1. \(510\) Hz
2. \(514\) Hz
3. \(516\) Hz
4. \(508\) Hz
Six vectors through have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figure. Which of the following statements is true?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A galvanometer has a coil resistance of 100 Ω and gives a full-scale deflection for 30 mA of current. If it is to work as a voltmeter in the 30 V range, how much resistance does it require to be added?
1. 900
2. 1800
3. 500
4. 1000
A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with the record if:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
1. | Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time. |
2. | The energy in the electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors. |
3. | Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. |
4. | These waves do not require any material medium for propagation. |
The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is \(-13.6\) eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state will be:
1. \(-13.6\) eV
2. \(-27.2\) eV
3. \(-54.4\) eV
4. \(-6.8\) eV
The dimensions of where is the permittivity of free space and E is the electric field, are:
1. [ML2T-2]
2. [ML-1T-2]
3. [ML2T-1]
4. [MLT-1]
In producing chlorine by electrolysis, 100 kW power at 125 V is being consumed.
How much chlorine per minute is liberated:
(Given -ECE of chlorine is 0.367 X 10-6 kgC-1)
1.
2.
3.
4.
A man of \(50\) kg mass is standing in a gravity-free space at a height of \(10\) m above the floor. He throws a stone of \(0.5\) kg mass downwards with a speed of \(2\) ms-1. When the stone reaches the floor, the distance of the man above the floor will be:
1. \(9.9\) m
2. \(10.1\) m
3. \(10\) m
4. \(20\) m
If an alpha nucleus of energy bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze, then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to:
1. | \(\frac{1}{Ze} \) | 2. | \(v^2 \) |
3. | \(\frac{1}{m} \) | 4. | \(\frac{1}{v^4}\) |
A lens having focal length \(f\) and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity \(I\). An aperture of diameter \(\frac{d}{2}\)in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. The focal length of lens and intensity of the image now will be respectively:
1. \(f\) and \(\frac{I}{4}\)
2. \(\frac{3f}{4}\) and \(\frac{I}{2}\)
3. \(f\) and \(\frac{3I}{4}\)
4. \(\frac{f}{2}\) and \(\frac{I}{2}\)
If \(\Delta U\) and \(\Delta W\) represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a thermodynamical process, which of the following is true?
1. | \(\Delta U=-\Delta W\), in an adiabatic process |
2. | \(\Delta U=\Delta W\) , in an isothermal process |
3. | \(\Delta U=\Delta W\), in an adiabatic process |
4. | \(\Delta U=-\Delta W\), in an isothermal process |
The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance \(R\) from the centre of a star of radius \(r,\) whose outer surface radiates as a black body at a temperature \(T\) K is given by: (Where \(\sigma\) is Stefan’s constant):
1. \(\frac{\sigma r^{2}T^{4}}{R^{2}}\)
2. \(\frac{\sigma r^{2}T^{4}}{4 \pi R^{2}}\)
3. \(\frac{\sigma r^{2}T^{4}}{R^{4}}\)
4. \(\frac{4\pi\sigma r^{2}T^{4}}{R^{2}}\)
In the given circuit, the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 V each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively:
1. 150 V, 2.2 A
2. 220 V, 2.2 A
3. 220 V, 2.0 A
4. 100 V, 2.0 A
A \(220\) V input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of \(2.0\) A at \(440\) V. If the efficiency of the transformer is \(80\)%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the transformer is:
1. \(3.6\) A
2. \(2.8\) A
3. \(2.5\) A
4. \(5.0\) A
A source S1 is producing 1015 photons per sec of wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S2 is producing 1.02×1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100 Å. Then, (power of S2)/(power of S1) is equal to:
1. 1.00
2. 1.02
3. 1.04
4. 0.98
A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 Ω and an output impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is:
1. 500
2. 1000
3. 1250
4. 50
A vibration magnetometer placed in a magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a time period of 2 s in the earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 T. When a horizontal field of 18 T is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current-carrying wire, the new time period of the magnet will be:
1. 1 s
2. 2 s
3. 3 s
4. 4 s
Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be:
(e is the charge on an electron)
1.
2.
3.
4.
The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls on it, must be:
1. 2.4 V
2. -1.2 V
3. -2.4 V
4. 1.2 V
A square surface of side \(L\) (metre) in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field \(E\) (volt/m) acting along the same plane at an angle θ with the horizontal side of the square as shown in the figure. The electric flux linked to the surface in the unit of V-m is:
1. | \(EL^{2}\) | 2. | \(EL^{2} cos\theta \) |
3. | \(EL^{2} sin\theta \) | 4. | \(0\) |
A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has. The value of C2, in terms of C1, is then:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has:
1. low retentivity and high coercive force
2. high retentivity and high coercive force
3. low retentivity and low coercive force
4. high retentivity and low coercive force
A square current-carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is \( \overrightarrow{F}\), what will be the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop?
1. | \(3 \overrightarrow{F}\) | 2. | \(- \overrightarrow{F}\) |
3. | \(-3 \overrightarrow{F}\) | 4. | \( \overrightarrow{F}\) |
Given below two statements:
Statement I: | Kirchhoff’s junction law follows the conservation of charge. |
Statement II: | Kirchhoff’s loop law follows the conservation of energy. |
1. | Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong. |
2. | Statement I is correct but Statement II is wrong. |
3. | Statement I is wrong and Statement II is correct. |
4. | Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown below, the input must be:
1. A=0 B=1 C=0
2. A=0 B=0 C=1
3. A=1 B=0 C=1
4. A=1 B=0 C=0