The vegetative propagule of Bryophyllum is:
1. Bulbil
2. Leaf buds
3. Rhizome
4. Offset
Water hyacinth is one of the most invasive weeds primarily because:
1. It gets adapted to any fresh water body easily
2. It produces secondary metabolites against herbivores
3. It can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate
4. It is predated upon by a large number of organisms
Isogametes are seen in:
1. Cladophora
2. Fucus
3. Human beings
4. Ficus
When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, then plant is said to be:
1. Bisexual
2. Monoecious
3. Unisexual
4. Dioecious
The number of chromosomes in a meiocyte of the fruit fly is:
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16
The most critical event in sexual reproduction is:
(1) Gametogenesis
(2) Gamete transfer
(3) Fertilization
(4) Embryogenesis
With respect to organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, organisms exhibiting external fertilization show:
1. More variations
2. Great synchrony between sexes
3. Large female size than males
4. Less vulnerability to predation
A typical angiosperm anther is dithecous which means that it is:
1. One lobed and the lobe has two theca
2. Two lobed and each lobe has two theca
3. Two lobed and each lobe has one theca
4. Four lobed and each lobe has two theca
Which of the following layers in the wall of an anther nourishes the developing pollen grains?
1. Tapetum
2. Epidermis
3. Endothecium
4. Middle layers
Pollen intine is made of:
1. Sporopollenin
2. Cellulose and pectin
3. Ergosterol
4. Phospholipids and cholesterol
Pollen grains lose their viability within 30 minutes of their release in:
1. Rose
2. Potato
3. Pea
4. Wheat
The pistil of Papaver is:
1. Monocarpellary
2. Multicarpellary apocarpous
3. Multicarpellary syncarpous
4. Absent
How many of the nuclei in the female gametophyte in angiosperms are surrounded by cell wall?
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
The only type of pollination that brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:
(1) Chasmogamy
(2) Cleistogamy
(3) Geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy
The aquatic plant in which pollination is not carried out by water is:
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Water lily
(3) Zostera
(4) Hydrilla
Dioecy in plants prevents:
(1) Autogamy but not geitonogamy
(2) Geitonogamy but not autogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Neither autogamy nor geitonogamy
If the female parent produces unisexual flower:
(1) Emasculation must be done before maturity
(2) Emasculation must be done after maturity
(3) Emasculation must be done before pollination
(4) Emasculation is not needed
The central cell in the embryo sac, after triple fusion, becomes:
(1) Primary endosperm cell
(2) Endosperm
(3) Embryo
(4) Zygote
The endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in all of the following except:
1. Pea
2. Groundnut
3. Beans
4. Castor
Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordial enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called as the:
(1) Coleoptile
(2) Coleorhiza
(3) Scutellum
(4) Perisperm
The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat. During germination, this facilitates entry of:
I. Oxygen
II. Water
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II
Malignant tertain malaria is caused by Plasmodium :
1. Vivax
2. ovale
3. malariae
4. falciparum
The pathogens responsible for causing elephantiasis are transmitted to a healthy person through:
1. Droplet
2. Female mosquito vector
3. Contaminated food and water
4. Sexual contact
Interferons are secreted by:
1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Virus infected cells
4. Lymphocytes
The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection by a recipient body is
1. Innate immunity
2. Humoral immunity
3. Cell mediated immunity
4. Either 2 or 3
Which of the following is used in the production of the recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine?
1. Yeast
2. Microsporum
3. E coli
4. Streptococcus
The class of antibodies involved in the allergic reaction is:
1. Ig A
2. Ig D
3. Ig E
4. Ig G
The immune-deficiency becomes marked once the HIV starts destroying
1. Macrophages
2. T helper cells
3. B lymphocytes
4. Natural killer cells
The cells of the malignant tumors exhibit
1. Metastasis
2. Contact inhibition
3. High differentiation
4. Slow proliferation
The receptors for opioids are found in :
1. GIT and CNS
2. CNS and CVS
3. CVS and GIT
4. GIT and Urinary system
Which of the following drugs acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter Dopamine?
1. Morphine
2. Hashish
3. Cocaine
4. Atropine
In the absence of fertilization, corpus luteum:
1. | Stops secreting progesterone but increases the secretion of estrogen |
2. | Stops secreting estrogen but increases the secretion of progesterone |
3. | Increases the secretion of both progesterone and estrogen |
4. | Degenerates |
What ensures that only one sperm can fertilize the ovum?
1. Corona radiata
2. Ground substance around ovum
3. Zona pellucida
4. Acrosome
In humans, the sex of the baby is determined:
1. At the time of fertilization and by the father
2. At the time of fertilization and by the mother
3. At the time of implantation and by the father
4. At the time of implantation and by the mother
During pregnancy the levels of thyroxin:
1. Increase several folds in maternal blood
2. Increases several folds in fetal blood
3. Decreases several folds in maternal blood
4. Decreases several folds in fetal blood
The first movements of the fetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during:
1. 2nd month
2. 3rd month
3. 5th month
4. 6th month
The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from:
1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta
4. Fetal pituitary
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation, called colostrum, is essential for the new born as colostrums contains:
1. Large amount of glucose
2. Anti-infective antibodies
3. Fats
4. Various hormones
"Saheli" is a(n)
1. NGO working for female child rights
2. Mid-wife working in villages to help in child immunization
3. A national helpline number for prevention of crimes against women
4. Oral contraceptive for females
According to 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was around .......% , a rate at which our population could double in .......... years.
1. 1.7 ; 33
2. 2.1 ; 30
3. 1.4 ; 50
4. 2.0 ; 32
Natural methods for contraception work on the principle of:
1. Preventing fertilization
2. Preventing implantation
3. Preventing ovulation
4. Preventing embryo development
Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to maximum period of:
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 9 months
4. 12 months
The ideal contraceptive for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children is:
1 Barrier contraceptive
2. Periodic abstinence
3. IUD
4. Hormonal pills
Emergency contraceptive methods must be employed within:
1. 72 hours of ovulation
2. 72 hours of onset of menstrual flow
3. 72 hours of unprotected coitus
4. 72 hours of cessation of menstrual flow
Identify the incorrect statement regarding surgical birth control methods:
1. | They are also called as "sterilization" procedures |
2. | In males, vasectomy and in females, tubectomy is advised |
3. | They are terminal methods to prevent any more pregnancies |
4. | These methods are hugely popular all over the world |
Which of the following STIs is not caused by a virus?
1. Genital herpes
2. Genital warts
3. HIV
4. Syphilis
ART [used to help infertile couples] stands for:
1. Assisted Reproductive Technologies
2. Artificial Reproductive Technologies
3. Augmented Reproductive Technologies
4. Anomalous Reproductive Technologies
In 'test-tube baby' procedure:
1. Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development is in-vivo
2. Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development is in-vitro
3. Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vitro
4. Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vivo
Why do seeds need water to germinate?
(1) Following hydration, enzymes break down stored food and make it available for the embryo.
(2) Water provides energy.
(3) Water activates the chlorophyll molecules so that photosynthesis can begin.
(4) Water dissolves the minerals in the soil so that they become available to the seed.
Plants growing in harsh environments such as deserts, sand dunes, and arctic tundra often reproduce vegetatively. This is because
1. there are few animals available to pollinate them
2. they are members of plants families that only reproduce asexually
3. fruits would freeze or dry out in these environments
4. vegetative reproduction is not as risky as making seeds
Many plants have very long life spans because they have retained
1. the ability to photosynthesize
2. the ability to recycle water
3. meristem tissue
4. the ability to produce gametes
In the angiosperm life cycle, which of the following is not a member of the sporophyte generation
1. carpel
2. anther
3. pollen
4. ovary
Genetic self-incompatibility tends to increase
(1) pollen dispersal
(2) inbreeding
(3) pollination
(4) outcrossing
If a flower is to be pollinated by moths, it should
(1) be heavily scented
(2) be shaped like a tulip
(3) close about noon
(4) be brightly colored
Which of the following is not a major adaptation that has contributed to the enormous success of angiosperms over all other vascular plants?
1. Seeds
2. Flowers
3. Fruits
4. tracheids
All of the following structures are derived from mesoderm except the ____.
1. pancreas
2. dermis of skin
3. notochord
4. heart
Example of unit cell with crystallographic dimensions is
1. Rhombohedral
2. monoclinic
3. Orthorhombic
4. Tetragonal
The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K, when 10 gm glucose (P1), 10 gm urea (P2), and 10 gm sucrose (P3)
are dissolved in 250 ml of water, is-
1. P1 > P2 > P3
2. P3 > P1 > P2
3. P2 > P1 > P3
4. P2 > P3 > P1
If 'A' contains 2 % NaCl and is separated by a semi permeable membrane from 'B', which contains 10 % NaCl, then the
event that will occur is
1. NaCl will flow from 'A' to 'B'
2. NaCl will flow from 'B' to 'A'
3. Water will flow from 'A' to 'B'
4. Water will flow from 'B' to 'A'
The Van't hoff Factor of 0.005M aqueous solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionisation is
1. 0.95
2. 0.97
3. 0.94
4. 0.96
The vapour pressure of water depends upon:
(1) surface area of container
(2) volume of container
(3) Temperature
(4) All of these
The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The mixture shows
(1) No deviation from Raoult's law
(2) Positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) Negative deviation from Raoult's law
(4) That the solution is unsaturated
A 5.85% solution of NaCl has osmotic pressure close to-
1. 5.85% solution of urea
2. 2M solution of glucose
3. 1M solution of urea
4. 5.8% solution of glucose
The mole(s) of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 moles of water to lower its vapor pressure by 10 mm of Hg at a temperature at which vapor pressure of pure water is 50 mm of Hg is :
1. | 3 mol | 2. | 0.5 mol |
3. | 1 mol | 4. | 2 mol |
The
salt that possesses the highest freezing point
1. 0.01 M NaCl
2. 0.05 M Urea
3. 0.01 M MgCl2
4. 0.02 M NaCl
When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide is
1. Freezing point is raised
2. Freezing point is lowered
3. Freezing point does not change
4. Boiling point does not change
Aluminium phosphate is 100 % ionized in 0.01 m aqueous solution. Hence, is-
1. | 0.01 m | 2. | 0.015 m |
3. | 0.0175 m | 4. | 0.02 m |
In the following reaction: xA → yB
where the -ve sign indicates the rate of disappearance of the reactant. Then, x : y equals:
1. | 1:2 | 2. | 2:1 |
3. | 3:1 | 4. | 3:10 |
Half-life is independent of the concentration of a reactant. After 10 minutes, the volume of N2 gas is 10 L and after complete reaction, it is 50 L. Hence, the rate constant is:
1. log 5 min-1
2. log 1.25 min-1
3. log 2 min-1
4. log 4 min-1
The activation energies of the forward and backward reactions in the case of a chemical reaction are 30.5 and 45.4 KJ/mol respectively. The reaction is
1. Exothermic
2. Endothermic
3. Neither exothermic nor endothermic
4. Independent of temperature
The t0.5 for the first order reaction.
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 20 min. The time in which the conc. of PCl5 reduces to 25% of the initial conc. is close to
1. 22 min
2. 40 min
3. 90 min
4. 50 min
Consider a reaction A + B → C. If the initial concentration of A was reduced from 4M to 2M in 1 hour and from 2M to 1M in 0.5 hours, the order of the reaction is
1. One
2. Zero
3. Two
4. Three
Which of the following is not applicable to chemisorption?
1. Its heat of adsorption is high
2. It takes place at high temperature
3. It is reversible
4. It forms unimolecular layer
As2S3 sol is
1. possible colloid
2. negative colloid
3. neutral colloid
4. none of the above
Pick out the incorrect statement
1. Equivalent conductance increases with dilution
2. Molar conductance increases with dilution
3. Specific conductance increases with dilution
4. Specific resistance increases with dilution
A gaseous reaction A2(g) → B(g) + (g) shows increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of A2 will be :
1. | 4 mm min-1 | 2. | 8 mm min-1 |
3. | 16 mm min-1 | 4. | 2 mm min-1 |
During the formation of ammonia by Haber's process N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, the rate of appearance of NH3 was measured as 2.5 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1. The rate of disappearance of H2 will be:
1. 2.5 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
2. 1.25 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
3. 3.75 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
4. 15.00 x 10-4 mol L-1 s-1
For a chemical reaction, A products, the rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of A is increased by 4 times. The order of the reaction is
1. 4
2. 0
3. 1/2
4. 1
The correct expression for the 3/4th life of a first-order reaction is:
From the plot of log k vs 1/T, following parameter can be calculated:
1. Activation energy.
2. Rate constant of reaction .
3. Order of reaction.
4. Activation energy as well as the frequency factor.
The rate constant for a reaction The energy of activation of the reaction is.
1.
2.
3.
4.
For an endothermic reaction, where ΔH represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mol, the minimum value for the energy of activation will be
1. Less than ΔH
2. Zero
3. More than ΔH
4. Equal to ΔΗ
What is the most effective electrolyte for precipitating Fe(OH)3 sol?
1. NaCl
2. BaSO4
3. AlCl3
4. Na3PO4
10 mg starch protected 5 ml gold sol in 1 ml 2 % NaCl solution. The gold number of starch is:
1. 20
2. 40
3. 80
4. 100
A particle of mass m and charge q is at rest. If it is moved with velocity where c is speed of light in vacuum, then its charge will become/remain
(1) 2q
(2)
(3)
(4) q
Four particles each having charge q are placed at the vertices of a square of side a. The value of the electric potential at the midpoint of one of the side will be
1. 0
2.
3.
4.
In the circuit shown in figure find the value of r(internal resistance of the cell) for which power transferred by the cell is maximum
1.
2.
3.
4.
If E be the electric field inside a parallel plate capacitor due to Q and -Q charges on the two plates, then electrostatic force on plate having charge -Q due to the plate having charge +Q will be
(1) -QE
(2)
(3) QE
(4)
If W be the amount of heat produced in the process of charging an uncharged capacitor then the amount of energy stored in it is
(1) 2W
(2)
(3) W
(4) zero
A metallic sphere of capacitance , charged to electric potential is connected by a metal wire to another metallic sphere of capacitance charged to electric potential . The amount of heat produced in connecting the wire during the process is:
1.
2.
3.
4. zero
The electric potential at the surface of a charged solid sphere of insulator is 20V. The value of electric potential at its centre will be
1. 30V
2. 20V
3. 40V
4. Zero
A particle having charge exerts F electrostatic force on charge at rest. If a particle having charge is placed midway between the line joining the two charges then electrostatic force on due to will become/remain
1. 2F
2.
3. F
4. zero
In the situation shown in the figure, what should be the relation between Q and q so that electric potential at the centre of the square is zero
1. Q = q
2. Q = 3q
3. Q = 2q
4. Q = -3q
If the voltage across a bulb decreases by 1%, then the percentage change in its power output is :
(1) 1%
(2) 4%
(3) 2%
(4).5%
In the situation shown in figure, A, B and C are three points in uniform electric field. The electric potential is
(1) minimum at A
(2) minimum at B
(3) minimum at C
(4) same at A,B and C
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the circuit shown in the figure, the current supplied by the battery is
1. 2A
2. 1A
3. 0.5A
4. 0.4A
If a resistance coil is made by joining in parallel two resistances each of 20. An emf of 2V is applied across this coil for 100 seconds. The heat produced in the coil is
(1) 20 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 80 J
The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is C. If a dielectric slab of thickness equal to one-fourth of the plate separation and dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates, then new capacitance become
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following graph correctly represents the variation of mobility of electrons with applied electric field (E) in a metallic conductor?
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
The equivalent resistance across AB is :
1. 2R
2. R/2
3. 4R/3
4. 3R/2
An electric Kettle draws 4.2A at 250V. How much time it would take to boil 1kg of water at C completely to ?
1. 320 seconds
2. 64 seconds
3. 3840 seconds
4. 960 seconds
The electric potential at a point in space due to charge Q is Q V. The value of an electric field at that point will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the circuit shown in the figure is
1. 6R
2. 4R
3. 2R
4. R
The electric potential at a point at distance 'r' from a short dipole is proportional to
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A charge q is to be divided on two small conducting spheres. What should be the value of charges on the spheres so that when placed at a certain distance apart, the repulsive force between them is maximum?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A wire has resistance 24 . It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance between the two point on the diameter of the circle is
(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 12
The drift velocity of the electrons in a current-carrying metallic conductor is of the order of
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the circuit shown in the figure, the effective resistance between A and B is:
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
A hollow charged metal spherical shell has radius R. If the potential difference between its surface and a point at a distance 3R from the center is V, then the value of electric field intensity at a point at distance 4R from the center is
1.
2.
3.
4.
A metallic sphere is given some charge. Electric energy is stored
(1) Only inside the sphere
(2) Only outside the sphere
(3) Both inside and outside
(4) Neither inside nor outside
You are traveling in a car during a thunderstorm. In order to protect yourself from lightning, you would prefer to
(1) Touch the nearest electric pole
(2) Take shelter under a tree
(3) Get out and crouch on the ground
(4) Remain in the car
If a soap bubble is given some charge, then its radius
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) May increase or decrease depending upon the give charge is positive or negative
For the circuit shown in the figure, the value of R must be
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
If I be the current limit of a fuse wire of length l and radius r, then select the appropriate relation
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The resistance of platinum wire at 0 is 22.05 and at 100 it becomes 22.70 . When the wire is heated to a temperature of t the resistance of wire becomes 24.91. The value of t is
1. 220
2. 440
3. 310
4. 550
Two wire A and B of copper have equal masses and the lengths are 10 cm and 20 cm respectively. If resistance of A be RA and B be RB, then the value of is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Capacitors are connected in series across a source of emf 20KV. The potential difference across will be
(1) 5 KV
(2) 15 KV
(3) 10 KV
(4) 20 KV
A galvanometer of resistance gives full scale deflection for a current of To convert it in to an ammeter of range 10A
(1) A resistor of resistance must be connected in series
(2) A resistor of resistance must be connected in series
(3) A resistor of resistance must be connected in parallel
(4) A resistor of resistance must be connected in parallel
The equivalent capacitance between A and B is as the given figure:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
The sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased by
1. increasing the potential gradient
2. decreasing the length of potentiometer wire
3. decreasing the current in the potentiometer wire
4. all of these
The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. This is necessary as:
1. The scrotum can contain lengthy ducts for the transfer of sperms
2. Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis
3. Scrotum reduces the pressure around testes necessary for spermatogenesis
4. Scrotum can store huge amounts of sperms
A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice. Oxygen atom at the centre of the edges and Na atom at centre of the cube. The formula of the compound is
1. NaWO2
2. NaWO3
3. Na2WO3
4. NaWO4
An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mole) having a BCC structure has a unit cell edge of 400 pm. The density of the element is :
1. 2.14 g/cm3
2. 5.20 g/cm3
3. 7.28 g/cm3
4. 10.37 g/cm3
The radius of Ag+ ion is 126 pm and that I- ion is 216 pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
Analysis shows that an oxide ore of nickel has formula Ni0.98O1.00. The percentage of nickel as Ni3+ ions is nearly
1. 2
2. 96
3. 4
4. 98
Mn(aq) + 8H+(aq) + 5e- Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(l);=1051V
Cr2O72-(aq) +14H+(aq) + 6e 2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l);=1.38V
Fe3+(aq) + e- Fe2+(aq);=0.77V
Cl2(g) + 2e- 2Cl-(aq); = 1.40V
The incorrect statement regarding the quantitative estimation of aqueous Fe(NO3)2 is -
1. Mn can be used in aqueous HCl
2. Cr2O72- can be used in aqueous HCl
3. MnO-24 can be used in aqueous H2SO4
4. Cr2O72- can be used in aqueous H2SO4
When NaCl solution is electrolysed using Pt electrodes then pH of solution
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains same
4. Firstly increases and then decreases
Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by:
1. Spermatogonia
2. Primary spermatocytes
3. Sertoli cells
4. Both 1 and 3
Leydig cells:
1. Are present in seminiferous tubules and secrete androgens
2. Are present in seminiferous tubules and help in maturation of sperms
3. Are present in interstitial space and secrete androgens
4. Are present in interstitial space and help in maturation of sperms
Seminal plasma is rich in:
1. Sucrose, calcium and certain enzyme
2. Glucose, sodium and certain enzymes
3. Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
4. Fructose, sodium and certain enzymes
Ovaries are the primary sex organs in human females because they:
I: | Produce the female gamete |
II: | Produce the hormone that regulates the development of secondary sexual characters |
1. Both I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II
4. None
Each Ovary is connected to the pelvic wall and the uterus by:
1. Peritoneum
2. Adipose tissue
3. Ligaments
4. Areolar tissue
Consider the following two statements:
I. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
II. The presence or absence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity.
Of the two statements:
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct and II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
The correct sequence of mammalian mammary gland ducts beginning from alveoli would he:
1. | Mammary tubules → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous ducts |
2. | Lactiferous duds → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules |
3. | Lactiferous ducts → Mammary arnpula → Mammary ducts → Mammary tubules |
4. | Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Mammary ducts → Lactiferous ducts |
The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called:
1. Spermiation
2. Spermatocytogenesis
3. Spermiogenesis
4. Spermatolysis
The final release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called:
1. Spermiation
2. Emission
3. Retrograde ejaculation
4. Ejaculation
FSH:
1. Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
2. Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
3. Acts on Leydig cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
4. Acts on Leydig cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
For normal fertility what percent of the sperm in ejaculation must exhibit vigorous motility?
1. 20
2. 30
3. 40
4. 60
The function of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by:
1. Hypothalamic releasing hormone
2. Pitutary gonadotropins
3. Adrenal cortex steroids
4. Testicular androgens
The division of primary oocyte results in:
1. unequal cells a smaller haploid secondary oocyte and a larger diploid polar body
2. unequal cells a larger haploid secondary oocyte and a smaller haploid polar body
3. unequal cells a smaller diploid secondary oocyte and a larger haploid polar body
4. equal cells - a haploid secondary oocyte and a haploid polar body
The correct sequence of the various phases of a typical menstrual cycle is:
1. Menstrual → Follicular → secretory → Ovulatory
2. Menstrual → Follicular → Ovulatory → secretory
3. Ovulatory → Follicular → secretory → Menstrual
4. Menstrual → secretory → Follicular → Ovulatory
LH surge:
1. | is a dramatic sudden increase in the levels of LH during the early part of menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation. |
2. | is a dramatic sudden decrease in the levels of LH during the early part of menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation. |
3. | is a dramatic sudden decrease in the levels of LH during the mid-menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation. |
4. | is a dramatic sudden increase in the levels of LH during the mid-menstrual cycle and is responsible for ovulation. |
During pregnancy:
1. All events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation
2. Events of menstrual cycle continue but there is no menstruation
3. Events of menstrual cycle contInue but there is menstruation only in the first trimester
4. All events of menstrual cycle stop and there is menstruation only in the first trimester
What does RCH stand for?
1. Reproductive and Complete Health
2. Regional and Central Healthcare
3. Reproductive and Child Healthcare
4. Reproductive and Cumulative Health
Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because:
1. It is a very expensive
2. It can tell about chromosomal aberrations
3. It is an invasive procedure and carries high risk of abortions
4. It can be used for pre-natal sex determination to be fetus leading to female feticides
Sperm has several components out of which the function of the acrosome is to:
1. | Produce base to neutralize the acidic environment of the female reproductive system |
2. | Propel the sperm as they swim through the fluid of the female reproductive tract |
3. | Release an enzyme that breaks down the membrane of the ovum |
4. | Metabolise the sugars provided by the semen for energy |
Which of the following is the least effective method of birth control?
1. vasectomy
2. rhythm method
3. the pill
4. IUD
The drug RU-486 is taken after sexual intercourse. It blocks implantation, and in this sense it prevents pregnancy_.
1. like spermicidal foam
2. in a manner similar to tubal ligation
3. like the familiar birth control pill used for the last 30 years
4 by blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus, thus preventing progesterone from maintaining pregnancy
Birth control pills contain synthetic estrogen and progesterone. How might these hormones prevent pregnancy?
1. They cause the corpus luteum to degenerate.
2. They keep the pituitary from secreting FSH and LH, so ovulation does not occur.
3. They cause the lining of the uterus to be sloughed off.
4 They trigger premature ovulation, before an egg is mature.
Which is a true statement about luteinizing hormone in the female reproductive system?
1. It inhibits ovulation.
2. It causes mitosis of the primary oocyte.
3. It is produced by the hypothalamus
4. It is responsible for mediating the production of estrogen and progesterone simultaneously.
At what point does the secondary oocyte complete meiosis?
1. when acrosomal enzymes begin to break down the egg's jelly coat
2. when the luteinizing hormone triggers ovulation
3 after it is penetrated by a sperm cell
4. when the secondary oocyte implants in the endometrium of the uterus
How do ovulated oocytes get into the uterus?
1. Because ovaries are within the uterus, the ovulated egg is already within the uterus.
2. Cilia within an oviduct create currents that sweep the egg toward the uterus.
3. The oocyte actively swims through the oviduct, using its flagellum.
4. Fimbriae sweep over the oviduct.