Test # 2: Masterclass in Biology by Dr. NK Sharma

1.

In the taxonomic hierarchy, the organisms belonging to the same Order must belong to the same:
1. Class
2. Family
3. Genus
4. Species

2.

Match each item in Column I [Protist] with one in Column II [Characteristic] and select the correct option:

	Protist		Characteristic
A.	Chrysophytes	P.	Plasmodium
B.	Dinoflagellates	Q.	Chief producers in the ocean
C.	Euglenoids	R.	Stiff cellulose plates in cell wall on outer surface
D.	Slime moulds	S.	Two flagella, one long and one short

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	Q	S	P
2.	Q	S	P	R
3.	Q	R	S	P
4.	R	S	Q	P

3.

Identify the correctly matched row:

	Class	Mycelium	Spores
I.	Phycomycetes	Aseptate and coenocytic	Exogenous on sporangium
II.	Ascomycetes	Branched and septate	Endogenously in asci
III.	Basidiomycetes	Branched and septate	Exogenously on basidium

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both II and III

4.

All the following statements are incorrect regarding Polysiphonia and Porphyra except:
1.    Food stored is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen
2.    Sexual reproduction is isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous
3.    Found mainly in fresh shallow waters
4.    2, unequal flagella inserted laterally

5.

In Cycas:
1. Stems are branched
2. Coralloid roots have symbiotic mycorrhizal association
3. Male cones and megasporophylls are borne on different trees
4. Female gametophyte has an independent free living existence

6.

The fertilization and development is:
1. internal and indirect in Ctenophora
2. internal and indirect in Porifera
3. external and direct in Aschelminthes
4. external and direct in Echinodermata

7.

How many of the animals given in the box below are triploblastic, have a true coelom but lack segmentation?

Antedon, Laccifer, Limulus, Aplysia, Dentalium, Ancylostoma, Hirudinaria, Sepia, Ophiura, Nereis

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 7

8.

The feature lacking in bony fishes would be:

1.	Operculum	2.	Swim bladder
3.	Ammonotelism	4.	Placoid scales

9.

China rose does not have:
1. Alternate phyllotaxy
2. Superior ovary
3. Imbricate aestivation
4. Monoadelphous stamen

10.

When the ovules are borne on central axis and septa are absent, the type pf placentation is called as:
1. free central and found in Dianthus and Primrose
2. basal and found in Dianthus and Primrose
3. free central and found in sunflower and marigold
4. basal and found in sunflower and marigold

11.

Endospermic seeds are seen in:

1.	Bean	2.	Gram
3.	Pea	4.	Castor

12.

How many of the following plants have axile placentation?

China rose, Petunia, Trifolium, Colchicum, Tomato, Indigofera, Lemon, Tobacco, Gloriosa, Lupin, Aloe

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 8

13.

All the following will be responsible for producing secondary tissues in plants except:
1. Intercalary meristem
2. Fascicular vascular cambium
3. Interfascicular cambium
4. Cork cambium

14.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem
2.	In stem, arrangement of xylem is exarch and it is endarch in root
3.	Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells in their phloem
4.	Bast fibres are genrally absent in the primary phloem

15.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Tissue		Location
A	Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium	P	Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron
B	Ciliated columnar epithelium	Q	Fallopian tubes
C	Dense regular connective tissue	R	Tendon
D	Dense irregular connective tissue	S	Skin

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	Q	P	R	S
4.	P	Q	S	R

16.

Identify the incorrect morphological feature of Periplaneta americana:
1. Tergites are dorsal sclerites and sternites are ventral sclerites
2. Labrum is the lower lip and labium is the upper lip
3. Tegmina are mesothoracic wings
4. Anal cerci are present in both sexes

17.

Which of the following organelles is not correctly matched with its feature?

	Organelle	Feature
1.	Smooth endoplasmic reticulum	Synthesis of steroidal hormones in animals
2.	Golgi apparatus	Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
3.	Lysosomes	Rich in alkaline hydrolases
4.	Elaioplasts	Store oils and fats

18.

In a prokaryotic cell:
1. an extrachromosomal circular plastid replicates autonomously
2. mesosomes have pigments in photosynthetic bacterial cells
3. polyribosomes are not found
4. reserve materials are stored in inclusion bodies

19.

In the given diagram of centriole something is wrong! What is it?

1. Radial spokes: all must attach to the central sheath
2. Central sheath: must be continuous
3. Interdoublet bridge: should not be present
4. Everything: it is not centriole

20.

Regarding lipids:
1. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding the carboxyl carbon
2. Trihydroxy propane is a component of triglycerides
3. Oils have a higher melting point than fats
4. They are polymers but not macromolecules

21.

Consider the following statements regarding co-factors required by enzymes:
I. Haem is the prosthetic group in catalase and peroxidase
II. Coenzyme NAD and NADP contain the vitamin niacin
III. Magnesium is a cofactor for carboxypeptidase
The correct statements include
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

22.

Which of the following stages of Meiosis I of Prophase I is not correctly matched with events occurring during that stage?

	Stage	Event
1.	Zygotene	Pairing between homologous chromosomes
2.	Pachytene	Crossing over between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
3.	Diplotene	Tendency of recombined homologues to separate
4.	Diakinesis	Terminalization of chiasmata

23.

Control points where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes that reach the xylem are:
1. Root hairs in the zone of maturation
2. Transport proteins of endodermal cells
3. Suberized Casparian strips in the wall of endodermal cells
4. Living parenchymal cells of the xylem

24.

Pollen germination and carbohydrate translocation in plants is the function of:
1. Boron
2. Zinc
3. Chlorine
4. Molybdenum

25.

During chemiosmosis in the chloroplast:

1.	Splitting of water molecule takes place on the outer side of the thylakoid membrane
2.	As electrons move through the photosystems protons are transported from the thylakoid lumen to the stroma
3.	The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane
4.	The CF₁ portion of the ATP synthase forms a transmembrane channel in the thylakoid membrane

26.

Which of the following is not a function of auxins in plants?

1.	Promotion of flowering in pineapples
2.	Induction of parthenocarpy in tomatoes.
3.	Apical dominance
4.	Promotion of female flowers in cucumber

27.

The glands in the gastric mucosa in the human alimentary canal secrete all of the following except:
1. Protease
2. Cyanocobalamin
3. Lipase
4. Mucus

28.

Which of the following is correctly matched?

1.	Gross calorific value of proteins	5.65 kcal/g
2.	Physiologic calorific value of fats	9.45 kcal/g
3.	Kwashiorkor	Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories
4.	Marasmus	Extensive edema and swelling

29.

The maximum amount of air that a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration, under normal physiological conditions, would be about:

1.	1600 ml	2.	2300 ml
3.	4500 ml	4.	5600 ml

30.

A person can receive blood only from a donor of his/her blood group if the blood group of this person is:
1. O
2. AB
3. A or B
4. A, B, AB or O

31.

Which of the following types of synovial joints is not correctly matched with its location in the human body?

	Type of joint	Example
1.	Saddle	Between metacarpals of the thumb
2.	Gliding	Between carpal bones
3.	Pivot	Between atlas and axis
4.	Hinge	Knee joint

32.

Both nose and tongue:
1. have bipolar neurons
2. detect dissolved chemicals
3. send afferent neurons to same part of the cerebrum
4. are innervated only by sympathetic neurons

33.

Which of the following hormones does not act on its target cells through a second messenger?
1. Adrenocorticotropin
2. Thyrocalcitonin
3. Follicle stimulating hormone
4. triiodothyronine

34.

Identify the correctly matched pair:

1.	Asexual reproductive structure in Chlamydomonas	Zygospores
2.	Vegetative propagule in Agave	Offset
3.	Chromosome number in meiocyte of Ophioglossum	630
4.	Marchantia	Dioecious plant

35.

The layers in the walls of the microsporangium that helps in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen include:

I:	Epidermis
II:	Endothecium
III:	Middle layers
IV:	Tapetum

1.	I and II only	2.	I, II, and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, III, and IV

36.

How many nuclei in embryosac of an angiosperm are surrounded by cell walls?

1.	3	2.	6
3.	7	4.	8

37.

In the hormonal regulation of the male reproductive system:

1.	Spermatogenesis starts due to a significant decrease in the secretion of GnRH
2.	LH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors required for effective spermiogenesis
3.	FSH acts on Leydig cells and stimulates the synthesis and secretion of androgens
4.	Androgens stimulate the process of spermatogenesis

38.

During a menstrual cycle, which of the following hormones reaches its maximum peak secretion level during the luteal phase of the cycle?

1.	FSH	2.	LH
3.	Estrogen	4.	Progesterone

39.

Both Intra-Uterine Contraceptive Devices and the Combination Pill can:
1. Prevent ovulation
2. Provide protection against STI
3. Prevent implantation
4. Act as spermicidal agents

40.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

A	Codominance	P	Progeny resembles both parents
B	Incomplete dominance	Q	Progeny does not resemble either of the parents
C	Sex determination in Drosophila	R	Haplo-diploidy
D	Sex determination in Honey bee	S	Genic balance

Codes :

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	Q	P	R	S
4.	Q	P	S	R

41.

Regarding Mendelian disorders :

1.	Color blindness is more common in the females of the species.
2.	Sickle cell anemia occurs due to the substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the globin chain of haemoglobin.
3.	Individuals affected by phenylketonuria lack an enzyme that converts tyrosine to phenylalanine.
4.	Thalassemia is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

42.

Given below in Column I are the criteria for a molecule that can act as a genetic material and the corresponding inferences drawn are given in Column II. Identify the criteria that is not correctly matched to the inference drawn:

	Criteria	Inference drawn
1.	It should be able to replicate	Protein cannot be the genetic material
2.	It should be stable structurally and chemically	DNA is a better genetic material than RNA
3.	It should provide the scope for slow changes	RNA evolves faster than DNA
4.	It should be able to express in the form of Mendelian characters	The protein synthesizing machinery has evolved around DNA

43.

Normally the process of DNA fingerprinting does not involve:
1. Southern blot
2. Elution
3. Radiolabelled VNTR probes
4. Autoradiography

44.

All the following are examples of analogous organs except:

1.	Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
2.	Sweet potato and Potato
3.	Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
4.	Eye of the Octopus and of Mammals

45.

Identify the correct statement amongst the following:

1.	Monocots evolved later than dicots.
2.	Mammals evolved from extinct reptiles called thecodonts.
3.	Dryopithecus was more man-like while Ramapithecus was more ape-like.
4.	Homo erectus had a cranial capacity of about 800 cc and probably ate meat.

46.

All the following diseases of mankind are vector-borne except:

1.	Dengue	2.	Chikungunya
3.	Ascariasis	4.	Filariasis

47.

Match the drugs in Column I with their correct attributes given in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Drug		Attribute
A	Opioids	P	Hallucinogenic at high doses
B	Cannabinoids	Q	Highly effective painkiller
C	Cocaine	R	Can cause cardiovascular side effects
D	Nicotine	S	Stimulates adrenal medulla

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	S	P
2.	R	Q	P	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	R	Q	S	P

48.

How many of the given statements are correct?

I.	Inbreeding depression can be overcome by a single cross-breed
II.	Out-crossing is the best method for animals that are below average in productivity in milk production
III.	Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using artificial insemination
IV.	Mule has been produced by cross-breeding between a female horse and a male donkey

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

49.

Identify the incorrectly matched row:

	Crop	Variety	Resistant to
1.	Karan rai	Brassica	White rust
2.	Pusa sawani	Okra	Shoot and fruit borer
3.	Himgiri	Wheat	Leaf and stripe rust
4.	Pusa sadabahar	Cowpea	Bacterial blight

50.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	The use of biocontrol measures totally eliminates the use of chemical pesticides by an organic farmer.
II:	In organic farming, the pests are completely eliminated by biocontrol.

Of the two statements:
1. Both I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

51.

In a typical sewage treatment plant:

1.	The primary treatment of waste treatment uses microbes
2.	The BOD of waste water is enhanced during purification
3.	Activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic digesters
4.	Biogas, consisting of methane and ammonia, may be produced as an additional benefit

52.

What is true for the plasmids used as cloning vectors in recombinant procedures?

1.	Ori is responsible for controlling the copy number of linked DNA
2.	The bacteria lacking R plasmids are resistant to antibiotics
3.	The vector must have many sites for the same restriction enzyme
4.	They can carry largest inserts amongst the available cloning vectors

53.

Corn borer in cotton can be controlled by the proteins encoded by the gene:
1. cryIAc
2. cryIIAb
3. cryIAb
4. cryIIAc

54.

At present transgenic animals cannot be used for:

1.	Harvesting biological products
2.	Testing vaccine safety
3.	Study of human diseases
4.	Xenotransplantation

55.

Identify the biome that is not correctly matched with its mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation:

	Biome	Mean annual temperature [⁰C]	Mean annual precipitation [cm]
1.	Desert	0 – 25	25 – 100
2.	Temperate Forest	10 – 22	50 – 220
3.	Tropical forest	20 – 25	150 – 425
4.	Coniferous forest	0 – 15	50 – 250

56.

The relationship between cattle egret and grazing cattle can be best described as:

1.	Mutualism	2.	Commensalism
3.	Parasitism	4.	Competition

57.

Which of the following will lead to decreased rate of decomposition of detritus?
1. Anaerobiosis
2. High temperature
3. Moist environment
4. High nitrogen content in detritus

58.

The correct sequence in primary hydrarch succession in early seral stages would be:

1.	Submerged plant – Submerged free-floating plant – Reed swamp – Marsh meadow
2.	Submerged free-floating plant – Submerged plant – Reed swamp – Marsh meadow
3.	Submerged plant – Submerged free-floating plant – Marsh meadow – Reed swamp
4.	Submerged free-floating plant – Reed swamp – Submerged plant – Marsh meadow

59.

The now extinct thylacine was a native of:

1.	Mauritius	2.	Africa
3.	Australia	4.	Russia

60.

Which of the following is not an ex-situ method for biodiversity conservation?
1. Botanical gardens
2. Seed banks
3. Cryopreservation
4. Biosphere reserves

61.

Match the legislation in Column I with the corresponding year in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Legislation		Year
A	Air [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act	P	1974
B	Environment [Protection] Act	Q	1981
C	Water [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act	R	1986
D	National Forest Policy	S	1988

Codes

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	R	Q	S	P
2.	Q	R	P	S
3.	Q	R	S	P
4.	R	Q	P	- S

62.

Ozone hole develops over Antarctica each year between:
1. Early January and late April
2. Early March and late July
3. Late August and early October
4. Late September and early December

63.

Based on your knowledge regarding viruses, viroids, bacteria and archaea, can you say which of the following will definitely NOT be true?
1. The viroid RNA contains no protein encoding genes
2. There are no known pathogens in domain Archaea
3. Most plant pathogenic bacteria are gram negative
4. Like animal viruses, plant viruses also enter the cell through receptor mediated endocytosis

64.

Which of the following cell type of vascular tissue system of plants is not correctly matched with its function?

	Cell type	Function
1.	Tracheid	Chief water conduction element in gymnosperms
2.	Vessel element	Chief water conduction element in angiosperms
3.	Sieve cell	Food conduction element in angiosperms
4.	Albuminous cell	Delivery of substances to sieve cells

65.

Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis in plants is NOT true?

1.	C₄ plants need 5 ATP molecules to fix one molecule of CO₂
2.	Rubisco uses CO₂ while PEP carboxylase uses $\mathrm{HCO}_3^{-}$ as its substrate
3.	Amongst C₃, C₄ and CAM plants, for every gram of CO₂ gained, the least water is lost by a C₄ plant
4.	CAM plants grow slowly and compete poorly with C₃ and C₄ species under conditions other than extreme aridity

66.

The steps of the cardiac cycle in sequence are:
1. isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
2. isovolumic relaxation, isovolumic contraction, ejection, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
3. isovolumic contraction, isovolumic relaxation, ejection, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
4. isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, active ventricular filling, passive ventricular filling.

67.

The amount of urine produced is generally increased when there is:
1. increased ADH secretion
2. increased atrial natriuretic hormone secretion
3. increased aldosterone secretion
4. sympathetic stimulation of the renal arteries

68.

Given these events:
I. active sites on actin myofilament are exposed
II. actin myofilament slides over myosin myofilament
III. ${Ca}^{2 +}$ ion binds to troponin
IV. myosin heads move
V. cross bridges form
Choose the arrangement that lists the correct order in which they occur during a single simulation of a skeletal muscle.
1. IV, III, II, I, V
2. III, I, V, IV, II
3. III, II, V, IV, I
4. II, IV, III, V, I

69.

Control of several homeostatic functions including breathing, heart and blood vessel activity is largely the function of:
1. The cerebrum
2. The cerebellum
3. The diencephalon
4. The brain stem

70.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the development of the embryo in a typical angiosperm:
1. At the two-cell stage, the polarity is established with the basal cells producing most of the mature embryo and the apical cell forming the suspensor.
2. The development stages of early embryo sequentially are – globular form – heart-shaped – torpedo stage.
3. During its short life, the suspensor supports early development of the embryo proper.
4. Plumule is the embryonic shoot and radical is the embryonic root.

71.

The first hormone ever produced by you in your life would be:

1.	Androgen-like testosterone
2.	Progesterone which is a precursor of both estrogen and testosterone
3.	Testes determining factor
4.	Human chorionic gonadotropin

72.

The inheritance of colour in wheat Kernel shown below is explained by:

1.	Polygenic inheritance	2.	Pleiotropy
3.	Epistatic interaction	4.	Multiple allelism

73.

The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing and recovering from a disease is:

1.	naturally acquired active immunity
2.	artificially acquired active immunity
3.	artificially acquired passive immunity
4.	naturally acquired passive immunity

74.

You are inserting your gene of interest into the Lac Z gene in a plasmid also containing a tetracycline-resistant gene. You plate your transformed bacteria on media containing tetracycline and X-gal. Which of the following results would indicate a clone with recombinant plasmids?

1.	A clone which did not grow on the tetracycline plates
2.	A white colony on the tetracycline plates
3.	A blue colony on the tetracycline plates
4.	A red colony on the tetracycline plates

75.

Match plants in Column I with their Ecological adaptations in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Plants		Ecological adaptation
A.	Mangroves	P.	High-temperature optima for photosynthesis
B.	Heliophytes	Q.	Deep root systems
C.	Water hyacinth	R.	Viviparity
D.	Prosopis	S.	Inflated petiole

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	S	Q
2.	S	P	R	Q
3.	R	P	Q	S
4.	P	Q	R	S

76.

Which of the following ecosystem characteristics that changes during succession is not correctly matched?

	Characteristics	Seral stages	Climax
1.	Size of individuals	Small	Large
2.	Ecological niches	Few, generalized	Many, specialized
3.	Food chains and webs	Simple	Complex
4.	Efficiency of energy use	High	Low

77.

Photochemical smog does not contain:

1.	O₃	2.	PAN
3.	NO_x	4.	CO₂

78.

What can be said about the shape of the membrane that surrounds an oil droplets as seen in cells of plant seeds?

1.	It would be a phospholipid bilayer as in other cell membranes but would lack sterols
2.	It would be a phospholipid bilayer with hydrophobic ends on the outside and hydrophilic ends on the inside
3.	It would most likely be a single layered membrane
4.	No membrane can surround an oil droplet

79.

When a cell in the M phase is fused with a cell in the $G_{1}$ phase:
1. The $G_{1}$ nucleus immediately enters the S phase and replicates DNA
2. The cell in the M phase undergoes aopotosis or programmed cell death
3. The $G_{1}$ nucleus immediately begins mitosis
4. The two nuclei fuse to produce a polyploidy nucleus and undergo meiosis

80.

Discarding the theoretical yields of aerobic cellular respiration, we now know that 1 NADH results in __ $H^{+}$ being transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane and the number of $H^{+}$ that must re-enter the nitochondrial matrix via ATP synthase to generate 1 ATP is __.
1. 12, 4
2. 10, 4
3. 9, 3
4. 6, 2

81.

What adaptation would be seen in the kidneys of a mammal living in desert when compared to the kidneys in aquatic mammals?

1.	A higher percentage of cortical nephrons with short loop of Henle extending slightly into the medulla
2.	A higher percentage of cortical nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla
3.	A higher percentage of juxtamedullary nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla
4.	Presence of only juxtamedullary nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla

82.

Identify the incorrectly matched effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation on different organs in the human body:

	ORGAN	SYMPATHETIC STIMULATION	PARASYMPATHETIC STIMULATION
1.	Heart	Positive chronotropic, negative ionotropic	Negative chronotropic, positive ionotropic
2.	GIT	Decreased peristalsis and secretions	increased peristalsis and secretion
3.	EYE	Pupil dilation and decreased refractory power of lens	Pupil constriction and increased refractory power of lens
4.	Urinary system	Retention of urine	Voiding of urine

83.

The hormone that is antagonist to insulin in all of its metabolic function would be:
1. Glucagon
2. Cortisol
3. Adrenaline
4. Growth hormone

84.

The cleavage divisions in the human embryo may be best described as:

1.	Holoblastic, Equal, Indeterminate, Radial
2.	Holoblastic, Unequal, Indeterminate, Radial
3.	Holoblastic, Equal, Indeterminate, Spiral
4.	Meroblastic, Equal, Indeterminate, Spiral

85.

What causes shortening of telomeres during cell division?
1. DNA synthesis
2. Exonuclease removal of primers
3. Ligation of DNA fragments
4. Telomerase activity

86. The smallest units of natural selection and evolution respectively are:
1. Population, Species
2. Individual, Species
3. Family, Population
4. Individual, Population

87.

The HIV protein that is involved in attachment of the virus to host cells is:
1. reverse transcriptase.
2. gp120.
3. CD4.
4. CCR-5.

88.

Which of a women's grandparents could not be the source of any of the genes on either of her X-chromosomes?

1.	Mother's Father.	2.	Father's Mother.
3.	Mother's Mother.	4.	Father's Father.

89.

Which of the following is a human recombinant product that has not replaced products harvested from animal or human sources?

1.	Humulin	2.	Erythropoietin
3.	FSH	4.	r HGH [growth hormone]

90.

COP 25 will be organized by:
1. Chile
2. Brazil
3. Poland
4. Germany

Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get FREE ACCESS for 2 days of ANY NEETprep course

Please be patient as the PDF generation may take up to a minute.

Fill OMR Sheet*