Full Test - NEET PYQs

Botany - Section A

1.

Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as a 'start' or 'stop' codon:
1. UCG – Start
2. UUU – Stop
3. UGU – Leucine
4. UAC – Tyrosine

2.

Select the incorrect statement with respect to inbreeding of animals.

1.	It is used for evolving pure lines in cattle.
2.	It helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of less desirable genes.
3.	It decreases homozygosity.
4.	It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.

3.

Which one of the following statements is not true?

1.	Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
2.	Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
3.	Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in crop breeding programs
4.	Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

4.

Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during?
1. 1970s
2. 1980s
3. 1990s
4. 1960s

5.

In the somatic cell cycle:

1.	DNA replication takes place in S-phase
2.	A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
3.	$G_2$ phase follows the mitotic phase
4.	In the $G_1$ phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell

6.

Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?

1.	Endemic	2.	Vulnerable
3.	Threatened	4.	Keystone

7.

Natality refers to:
1. Death rate
2. Birth rate
3. Number of individuals leaving the habitat
4. Number of individuals entering the habitat

8.

Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called?

1.	subsidiary cells	2.	bulliform cells
3.	lenticels	4.	complementary cells

9. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their:

1.	Family	2.	Order
3.	Division	4.	Genus

10.

Which one of the following is the correct statement?

1.	Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage
2.	In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living
3.	Antheridiophores and protonema are present in pteridophytes
4.	Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

11.

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Offspring produced by asexual reproduction is called clone
2.	Microscopic motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores
3.	In potatoes, bananas, and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem
4.	Water hyacinth growing in standing water drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fish

12.

Role of microtubules is:

1.	To help in cell division
2.	Cell membrane formation
3.	Respiration
4.	Pinocytosis

13. Given below are two statements:

I:	The process of translocation through phloem is unidirectional but through xylem, it is bidirectional
II:	The most readily mobilized elements are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and potassium.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

14. Which hormone promotes internode / petiole elongation in deep water rice?

1.	2, 4-D	2.	GA₃
3.	Kinetin	4.	Ethylene

15.

A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype in crossed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called:
1. Back cross
2. Test cross
3. Dihybrid cross
4. Monohybrid cross

16.

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol-lowering agent?

1.	Lipase	2.	Cyclosporin A
3.	Statin	4.	Streptokinase

17.

One of the major compound of cell wall of most fungi is?

1.	peptidoglycan	2.	cellulose
3.	hemicelluloses	4.	chitin

18.

The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called:
1. glycolysis
2. fermentation
3. aerobic respiration
4. photorespiration

19.

During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by?
1. Leghaemoglobin
2. Xanthophylls
3. Carotene
4. Cytochrome

20.

Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in the mustard plant is:

1.	Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated below it.
2.	Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other parts arise below the ovary.
3.	Gynoecium is present in the center and other parts cover it partially.
4.	Gynoecium is situated in the center, and other parts of the flower are located at the rim of the thalamus, at the same level.

21.

Which pair is wrong:

1.	C₃ – Maize
2.	C₄ – Kranz anatomy
3.	Calvin cycle - PGA
4.	Hatch and Slack cycle – O.A.A

22.

The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to the following factors, except:

1.	Detritus rich in sugars
2.	Warm and moist environment
3.	Presence of aerobic soil microbes
4.	Detritus richer in lignin and chitin

23.

DNA fingerprinting refers to:

1.	Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
2.	Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
3.	Techniques used for the identification of fingerprints of individuals
4.	Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

24.

Select the incorrect statement regarding inbreeding:

1.	Inbreeding helps in elimination of deleterious alleles from the population
2.	Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure-line in any animal
3.	Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and leads to inbreeding depression.
4.	Inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing.

25. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is:
1. Cuticle
2. Sporopollenin
3. Lignin
4. Cellulose

26.

Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increase of skin cancers:
1. ozone
2. ammonia
3. methane
4. nitrous oxide

27. Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes place in:

1.	G₂Phase
2.	M phase
3.	S phase
4.	G₁ phase

28.

Reason for elimination of wild life is:
1. Deforestation
2. Forest fire
3. Floods
4. Less Rain fall

29.

The formula for exponential population growth is:
1. dt/dN= rN
2. dN/rN= dt
3. rN/dN= dt
4. dN/dt= rN

30. Consider the following plant tissues:
(A) Axillary buds
(B) Fascicular vascular cambium
(C) Interfascicular cambium
(D) Cork cambium
(E) Intercalary meristem
Identify the lateral meristems among the above:

1.	(A), (C) and (D) only	2.	(B), (C) and (D) only
3.	(A), (B), (C) and (E) only	4.	(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

31.

Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Family	(i)	Diptera
B.	Order	(ii)	Arthropoda
C.	Class	(iii)	Muscidae
D.	Phylum	(iv)	Insecta

1. A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii)
2. A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
3. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
4. A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)

32. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1. Spirogyra -Motile gametes
2. Sargassum - Chlorophyll C
3. Basidiomycetes - Puffballs
4. Nostoc- Water blooms

33.

In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through:

1. rhizome
2. offsets
3. bulbils
4. runners

34.

Extranuclear DNA is found in:

1.	Lysosome and chloroplast
2.	Chloroplast and mitochondria
3.	Mitochondria and lysosome
4.	Golgi and E.R.

35.

Which one of the following elements in plants not re-mobilized?

1.	Calcium	2.	Potassium
3.	Sulphur	4.	Phosphorus

Botany - Section B

36.

In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of phases is
1. S, $G_{1}$ , $G_{2}$ , M
2. $G_{1}$ , S, $G_{2}$ , M
3. M, $G_{1}$ , $G_{2}$ , S
4. $G_{1}$ , $G_{2}$ , S, M

37.

Heartwood differs from sapwood in:
1. presence of rays and fibres
2. absence of vessels and parenchyma
3. having dead and non-conducting elements
4. being susceptible to pests and pathogens

38. When a man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which has eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is:

1.	Small plants	2.	Fish
3.	Man	4.	Zooplankton

39.

Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micro propagation?
1. Bark
2. Vascular tissue
3. Meristem
4. Node

40. Identify the correct statements regarding Mass flow hypothesis.

A:	Mass flow is faster than diffusion.
B:	Mass flow is the result of pressure difference between the end points.
C:	Different substances involved in mass flow move at different paces.
D:	Mass flow can result through either a positive or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A), (C), (D) only	2.	(B), (C), (D) only
3.	(A), (B), (C) only	4.	(A), (B), (D) only

41.

Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
1. Brinjal
2. Apple
3. Jackfruit
4. Banana

42.

Variations in proteins are due to:
1. Sequence of amino acids
2. Number of amino acids
3. R–group
4. None

43.

Which one of the following structures is haploid in its ploidy level?
1. Primary Endospore Nucleus
2. Microspore Mother cell
3. Protonemal cell of a moss
4. Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot

44.

Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

(a)	A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(b)	Predator starfish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(c)	Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(d)	Production of chemicals such as nicotine and strychnine by plants is metabolic disorder

The two correct statements are:
1. a and d
2. a and b
3. b and c
4. c and d

45.

Which arrangement is in correct ascending order?

1.	Species < genus < order < family
2.	Genus < species < family < order
3.	Order < family < genus < species
4.	Species < genus < family < order

46. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Phase of cell elongation of plant cells is characterized by increased vacuolation.
2.	Cells in the meristematic phase of growth exhibit abundant plasmodesmatal connections
3.	Plant growth is generally determinate
4.	Plant growth is measurable

47.

Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?

1. Rhizobium
2. Nostoc
3. Mycorrhiza
4. Agrobacterium

48.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
2.	Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
3.	Both ATP and NADPH + H⁺ are non-cyclic synthesized during photophosphorylation.
4.	Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.

49.

Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(a)	ETS complex-I	(i)	Cyt bc1
(b)	ETS complex-II	(ii)	Cyt a,a3 and 2 copper centres
(c)	ETS complex-III	(iii)	NADH dehydrogenase
(d)	ETS complex-IV	(iv)	Ubiquinone and FADH₂ dehydrogenase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

50. Sweet potato is a modified:
1. Stem
2. Adventitious root
3. Tap root
4. Rhizome

Zoology - Section A

51.

The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs:

1.	Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
2.	until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
3.	until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
4.	in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

52.

Impulse of heartbeat originates from:
1. S.A. Node
2. A. V. Node
3. Vagus Nerve
4. Cardiac Nerve

53.

Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to?

1.	Humanol immune response
2.	Cell-mediated immune response
3.	Passive immune response
4.	Innate immune response

54.

When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

1.	Molecular diagnosis	2.	Safety testing
3.	Biopiracy	4.	Gene therapy

55.

In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by-
1. Bioprocess engineering
2. Restriction digestion
3. Electrophoresis
4. Polymerase chain reaction

56.

Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function:

	A	B	C
1.	Cerebellum	Mid brain	Controls respiration and gastric secretions
2.	Hypothalamus	Fore brain	Controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking
3.	Blind spot	Near the place where optic nerve leaves the eye	Rods and cones are present but inactive here
4.	Eustachian tube	Anterior part of internal ear	Equalizes air pressure on either sides of tympanic membrane

57.

If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen:

1.	The pH of the stomach will fall abruptly
2.	Steapsin will be more effective
3.	Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
4.	The pancreatic enzymes, and especially trypsin and lipase, will not work efficiently

58.

Erythropoietin, hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation, is produced by:

1.	The cells of bone marrow
2.	Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
3.	Alpha cells of the pancreas
4.	The cells of the rostral adenohypophysis

59.

In which of the following, the notochord is present in the embryonic stage?

1.	All chordates	2.	Some chordates
3.	Only Vertebrates	4.	Non-chordates

60.

Match the following parts of a nephron with their function:

(a)	Descending limb of Henle's loop	(i)	Reabsorption of salts only
(b)	Proximal convoluted tubule	(ii)	Reabsorption of water only
(c)	Ascending limb of Henle's loop	(iii)	Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions
(d)	Distal convoluted tubule	(iv)	Reabsorption of ions, water, and organic nutrients

Select the correct option from the following:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	i	iii	ii	iv
2.	ii	iv	i	iii
3.	i	iv	ii	iii
4.	iv	i	iii	ii

61.

The name of the joint between the ribs and sternum is:
1. Cartilaginous joint
2. Angular joint
3. Gliding joint
4. Fibrous joint

62.

Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is:

1.	permanent but unstable
2.	transient and unstable
3.	permanent and stable
4.	transient but stable

63.

Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking?
1. asthma
2. respiratory acidosis
3. respiratory alkalosis
4. emphysema

64. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled s Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason (R):	Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

65. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II:	Cartilage is dense regular tissue.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
4.	Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

66.

On Galapagos island, Darwin observed variation in beaks of birds (Darwin's finches) and he concluded:
1. Inter species variation
2. Intraspecies variation
3. Natural selection according to food
4. Inheritance of acquired characters

67.

The signals for parturition originate from:
1. placenta only
2. placenta as well as developed foetus
3. oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
4. fully developed foetus only

68.

The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because 'O' in it refers to having:

1.	other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
2.	over dominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
3.	one antibody only- either anti A or anti-B on the RBCs
4.	no antigens A and B on RBCs

69.

Widal test is carried out to test:

1.	Malaria	2.	Diabetes mellitus
3.	HIV/AIDS	4.	typhoid fever

70.

In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to:

1. alkaline pH of the insect gut
2. acidic pH of the insect gut
3. action of gut microorganisms
4. presence of conversion factors in the insect gut

71. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?

1.	Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
2.	The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.
3.	The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
4.	The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.

72.

Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics:

1.	B-blind spot has only a few rods and cones
2.	C-aqueous chamber reflects the light which does not pass through the lens
3.	D-choroid- its anterior part forms the ciliary body
4.	A-retina - contains photoreceptors rods and cones

73.

Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface:
1. Zymogen granules
2. Pinocytic vesicles
3. Phagocytic vesicles
4. Microvilli

74. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption
Statement II:	Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

75.

Which one of the following features are not true for chordates?
(a) Heart is dorsal.
(b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
(c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and single.
(d) Post-anal tail is present.
(e) Notochord is present.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

1.	(e) only	2.	(a), (d) and (c) only
3.	(b) and (c) only	4.	(a) and (c) only

76.

Select the correct statement:

1.	Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pressure.
2.	Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator.
3.	Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed in vasa recta.
4.	Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG cells to release renin.

77.

Number of bones in hind limb of man:

1.	14	2.	24
3.	26	4.	30

78.

Which of the following bond is formed as a result of reaction of carboxyl group of one amino acid with amino group of other amino acids with elimination of water?
1. Phosphodiester Bond
2. Hydrogen Bond
3. Glycosidic Bond
4. Peptide Bond

79.

In the regulation of respiration, a chemosensitive area adjacent to the rhythm centre in the medulla region of the brain, is highly sensitive to:
1. $HCO^-_3$
2. $CO_2$
3. $O_2$
4. $N_2$

80.

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases:

1.	Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
2.	AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
3.	Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
4.	Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

81.

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

1.	Neuroglia	2.	Blood
3.	Adipose tissue	4.	Cartilage

82.

Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men?

1.	Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.
2.	The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago, walked like men.
3.	Homo habilis probably ate meat.
4.	Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 100000 and 40000 years back.

83.

After ovulation, follicles convert into:
1. Corpus luteum
2. Corpus albicans
3. Corpus cavernosa
4. Corpus callosum

84. Figure shows blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Select the option which gives correct identification of label and functions of the part:

1.	B - Capillary - thin without muscle layers and wall two-cell layer thick
2.	C - Vein - thin-walled and blood flows in jerks/spurts
3.	D - Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated blood to heart PO₂=95 mm Hg
4.	A - Artery- thick-walled and blood flows evenly

85. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Cytokine barriers	(I)	Mucus coating of respiratory tract
(B)	Cellular barriers	(II)	Interferons
(C)	Physiological barriers	(III)	Neutrophils and Macrophages
(D)	Physical barriers	(IV)	Tears and Saliva

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(II)	(III)	(IV)	(I)
2.	(III)	(I)	(IV)	(II)
3.	(III)	(I)	(II)	(IV)
4.	(II)	(III)	(I)	(IV)

Zoology - Section B

86.

Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
1. Digestion of disaccharides
2. Control bacterial population in mouth
3. Digestion of complex carbohydrates
4. Lubrication of oral cavity

87.

Which one of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroaches?

1.	In females, 7^th - 9^th sterna together form a genital pouch.
2.	10^th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
3.	A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
4.	Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.

88.

Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

1.	Pre-synaptic membrane	2.	Tips of axons
3.	Post-synaptic membrane	4.	Membrane of synaptic vesicles

89.

Which of the following is correct statement ?

1.	Actin and regulatory proteins are located in thin filament.
2.	Z-lines anchor myosin (thick) filament to the ends of the sarcomere.
3.	Sarcoplasmic reticulum stores acetylcholine.
4.	Myosin cross bridges contain calcium binding sites.

90. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
A.	P-wave	I.	Beginning of systole
B.	Q-wave	II.	Repolarisation of ventricles
C.	QRS complex	III.	Depolarisation of atria
D.	T-wave	IV.	Depolarisation of ventricles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	I	II	III	IV
2.	III	I	IV	II
3.	IV	III	II	I
4.	II	IV	I	II

91. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Contractile vacuole	(I)	Asterias
(B)	Water vascular system	(II)	Amoeba
(C)	Canal system	(III)	Spongilla
(D)	Flame cells	(IV)	Taenia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	(IV)	(II)	(I)	(III)
2.	(I)	(III)	(II)	(IV)
3.	(III)	(II)	(I)	(IV)
4.	(II)	(I)	(III)	(IV)

92.

Which part of the ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation?

1.	Graafian follicle	2.	Stroma
3.	Germinal epithelium	4.	Vitelline membrane

93. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

1.	Organs in the body like the gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones.
2.	Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amounts that act as intercellular messengers are known as hormones.
3.	Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
4.	Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.

94.

Match the following techniques or instruments with their usage:

(a)	Bioreactor	(i)	Separation of DNA fragments
(b)	Electrophoresis	(ii)	Production of large quantities of products
(c)	PCR	(iii)	Detection of pathogen, based on antigen-antibody reaction
(d)	ELISA	(iv)	Amplification of nucleic acids

Select the correct option from the following:

1.	(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3.	(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

95.

Humans have acquired an immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it:

1.	is very specific and uses different macrophages
2.	produces memory cells for mounting a fast secondary response
3.	has natural killer cells that can phagocytose and destroy microbes
4.	provides passive immunity

96.

A phosphoglyceride is always made up of:

1.	only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
2.	a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
3.	a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
4.	only a saturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.

97.

Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
1. Syphilis
2. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
3. Trichomoniasis
4. Encephalitis

98.

Which of the following is not true for a species:

1.	Members of a species can interbreed
2.	Variations occur among members of a species
3.	Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
4.	Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species

99.

Match the items in Column - I with those in Column - II:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Podocytes	(i)	Crystallised oxalate
(b)	Protonephridia	(ii)	Annelids
(c)	Nephridia	(iii)	Amphioxus
(d)	Renal calculi	(iv)	Filtration slits

Select the correct option from the following:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
2.	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)

100.

The figure shows a diagrammatic view of the human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D. Select the option that gives the correct identification, main function, and/or characteristics:

1.	B-pleural membrane- surrounds ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing.
2.	C-alveoli-thin walled vascular bag-like structures for the exchange of gases.
3.	D-lower end of the lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration.
4.	A trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air.

Chemistry - Section A

101.

The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is:
1. $L i^{+} > N a^{+} > K^{+} > R b^{+}$
2. $N a^{+} > K^{+} > R b^{+} > L i^{+}$
3. $K^{+} > R b^{+} > N a^{+} > L i^{+}$
4. $R b^{+} > K^{+} > N a^{+} > L i^{+}$

102. Identify the statement that is incorrect regarding chirality:

1.	A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
2.	S_N1 reaction yields a 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers
3.	The product obtained by S_N2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows the inversion of configuration
4.	Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other

103.

The most reactive compound among the following toward electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

104.

Consider the reversible exothermic reaction:

N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) $\rightleftharpoons$ 2NH₃(g) + heat

Under which of the following conditions will the equilibrium shift in the forward direction (towards the formation of ammonia)?

1. Increasing the concentration of $N H_3 ( g )$
2. Decreasing the pressure
3. Decreasing the concentration of $N_2(g) ~and~H_2(g)$
4. Increasing the pressure and decreasing the temperature

105.

The correct order of ionic radii is:
1. $H^{-} > H^{+} > H$
2. $N a^{+} > F^{-} > O^{2 -}$
3. $F^{-} > O^{2 -} > N a^{+}$
4. $N^{3 -} > M g^{2 +} > A l^{3 +}$

106.

Which of the following represents the correct increasing order of stability of the +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In, and Tl?
1. Ga < ln < Al < Tl
2. Al < Ga < ln < Tl
3. Tl < ln < Ga < Al
4. ln < Tl < Ga < Al

107.

Which one of the following compounds is most acidic:

1.		2.
3.		4.	$\mathrm{Cl}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{OH}$

108.

Which of the following is not a correct statement?

1.	α-carbon of α-amino acid is asymmetric except for glycine.
2.	Some proteins of the human body are found in L-form.
3.	The human body can synthesize all proteins it needs.
4.	At pH = 7, both amino and carboxylic groups exist in ionized form.

109.

The largest freezing point depression among the following 0.10 m solutions is shown by:

1.	$\mathrm{KCl}$	2.	$\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6}$
3.	$\mathrm{Al}_2(\mathrm{SO_4})_3$	4.	$\mathrm{K_2SO_4}$

110.

Mark the correct reaction among the following to convert acetamide to methenamine:
1. Hoffmann bromamide reaction
2. Stephens reaction
3. Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
4. Carbylamine reaction

111.

The change in oxidation number of chlorine when Cl₂ gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is:
1. Zero to +1 and Zero to –5
2. Zero to –1 and Zero to +5
3. Zero to –1 and Zero to +3
4. Zero to +1 and Zero to –3

112.

The compound responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer in the upper strata of the atmosphere is:
1. Ferrocene
2. Fullerenes
3. Freons
4. Polyhalogens

113.

The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral, due to:

1.	The π-bonding involves the overlap of d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
2.	The π-bonding involves the overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of manganese.
3.	Absence of π-bonding.
4.	The π-bonding involves the overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of manganese.

114. An isostructural compound with XeF₂among the following is:

1.	ICl₂^–	2.	SbCl₃
3.	BaCl₂	4.	TeF₂

115.

Nitrogen form $N_{2}$ , but phosphorous form $P_{2}$ , it's at a time convert in $P_{4}$ , reason is:
1. Triple bond present between phosphorous atoms.
2. $p π - p π$ bonding is weak in phosphorous.
3. $p π - p π$ bonding is strong in phosphorous.
4. Multiple bonds easily form phosphorous.

116.

The incorrect statement among the following regarding food preservatives is:

1.	sorbic acid and propanoic acid are good food preservatives.
2.	antioxidants used in a wine are SO₂and sulphites.
3.	antioxidants help in preserving the food longer.
4.	antioxidants react with oxygen with a slower rate than food.

117. The correct option in which the density of argon (Atomic mass =40) is highest:

1.	STP	2.	0°C, 2 atm
3.	0°C, 4 atm	4.	273°C, 4 atm

118.

Which of the following is correct:
1. Cycloheptane is an aromatic compound
2. Diastase is an enzyme
3. Acetophenone is an ether
4. All the above

119.

What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in $K_{4}FeCN_{6}$ based on crystal field theory:

1.	$e^{4} t_{2 g}^{ 2}$	2.	$t_{2 g}^{ 4} e_{g}^{2}$
3.	$t_{2 g}^{ 6} e_{g}^{0}$	4.	$e^{3} t_{2 g}^{ 3}$

120.

Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared by:

1.
2.
3.
4.

121.

Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

1.
2.
3.
4.

122. The conductivity of centimolar solution of KCl at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm^–1cm^–1and the resistance of the cell containing the solution at 25°C is 60 ohm. The value of the cell constant is:

1.	3.34cm^–1	2.	1.34cm^–1
3.	3.28cm^–1	4.	1.26cm^–1

123.

Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by:
1. Oxidation
2. Cracking
3. Distillation under reduced pressure
4. Hydrolysis

124.

Maximum impurity in Pig iron is:
1. Mn
2. Phosphorous
3. Graphite
4. Sulphur

125. The mass of a 2.5 mL solution (the density of the solution is 2.15 g/mL) in the correct significant figures is:

1.	5375 × 10^–3 g	2.	5.4 g
3.	5.38 g	4.	53.75 g

126.

The half-life of a certain enzyme catalysed reaction is 138 s, that follow the 1st order kinetics. The time required for the concentration of the substance to fall from 1.28 mg L^–1 to 0.04 mg L^–1, is:
1. 276 s
2. 414 s
3. 552 s
4. 690 s

127.

A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is: [speed of light, $c = 3.0 \times 10^{8}$ ${ms}^{- 1}$ ]

1.	2192 m	2.	21.92 cm
3.	219.3 m	4.	219.2 m

128.

Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?
1. Gamma $(γ)$
2. Neutron (n)
3. Beta $(β^{-})$
4. Alpha $(α)$

129.

Under the isothermal condition, a gas at $300 \mathrm{~K}$ expands from $0.1 \mathrm{~L}$ to $0.25 \mathrm{~L}$ against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work done by the gas is:

1.	$30 ~\mathrm {J} $	2.	$-30 ~\mathrm{J} $
3.	$5~ \mathrm{kJ}$	4.	$25~ \mathrm{J}$

130.

Match list-I with list-II:

	List-I (Monomers)		List-II (Polymers)
(a)	Caprolactam	(i)	Bakelite
(b)	Ethylene glycol and Benzene-1, 4-dicarboxylic acid	(ii)	Nylon 6, 6
(c)	Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid	(iii)	Nylon-6
(d)	Phenol and Formaldehyde	(iv)	Terylene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

131.

Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close-packed (CCP). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One-fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is:
1. A₂BO₂
2. A₂B₃O₄
3. AB₂O₂
4. ABO₂

132.

Solubility of alkaline earth metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence:
1. Mg > Ca > Sr >Ba
2. Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg
3. Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba
4. Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca

133.

The product formed in the following reaction sequence is:

1.
2.	$CH_3-CH=CH-CH_3 ~$
3.	$CH_3 -CH_2 -CH = CH_2 ~$
4.	$CH_3 -CH_2 -CH_2 -CH_2 -OH ~$

134. Given below are two statements:

I:	The product of the reaction of phenol with bromine depends on the nature of the solvent.
II:	The reaction of phenol with bromine in CHCl₃ gives a monosubstituted bromo derivative whereas the reaction of phenol with bromine water yields a trisubstituted bromo derivative of phenol.

1.	I is correct and II is incorrect
2.	I is incorrect and II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

135. The equilibrium concentration of the species in the reaction $A+B \rightleftharpoons C+D$ are 2, 3, 10 and 6 mol L^–1, respectively at 300 K. $\Delta G^o$ for the reaction is:
(R = 2 cal/mol K)

1.	–13.73 cal	2.	1372.60 cal
3.	–137.26 cal	4.	–1381.80 cal

Chemistry - Section B

136.

A cube of a crystal has an A-atom placed at every corner and B-atom placed at every centre of face. The formula of the compound is:
1. AB
2. AB₃
3. A₂B₂
4. A₂B₃

137. Consider the following reaction:

Identify products A and B:

1.
2.
3.
4.

138.

The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C₃H₉N are:

1.	Four (4)	2.	Five (5)
3.	Two (2)	4.	Three (3)

139. The element used for welding metals with high melting points is:
1. Cl₂
2. H₂
3. Ne
4. He

140. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

1. 6-Bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
2. 1-Bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
3. 6-Bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhaxan-4-ol
4. 1-Bromo-4-methyl-5-chorohexan-3-ol

141.

Which of the following hormones contains iodine?
1. Insulin
2. Testosterone
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine

142.

A solid compound 'X' on heating gives CO₂ gas and a residue. The residue mixed with water forms 'Y'. On passing an excess of CO₂ through 'Y' in water, a clear solution, 'Z' is obtained. On boiling 'Z', compound 'X' is reformed. The compound 'X' is:
1. ${CaCO}_{3}$
2. ${Na}_{2} {CO}_{3}$
3. $K_{2} {CO}_{3}$
4. $Ca {({HCO}_{3})}_{2}$

143.

The freezing point depression constant for water is 1.86 ^oC m^-1. If 5.00 g Na₂SO₄is dissolved in 45.0 g H₂O, the freezing point is changed by -3.82 ^oC. The Van’t Hoff factor for Na₂SO₄ is:

1.	2.63	2.	3.11
3.	0.381	4.	2.05

144.

Which of the following reactions is an example of a nucleophilic substitution reaction?
1. RX + KOH → ROH + KX
2. 2RX + 2Na →R — R + 2NaX
3. RX + H₂→RH + HX
4. RX + Mg →RMg X

145. Which of the following is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?

1.
2.	Benzene, Cl₂, anhydrous FeCl₃
3.	Phenol, NaNO₂, HCl, CuCl
4.

146.

The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane is:

1.	The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
2.	The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has a torsional strain.
3.	The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.
4.	The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation because staggered conformation has a torsional strain.

147.

The moles of lead (II) chloride that will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g of HCl are:
1. 0.044
2. 0.333
3. 0.011
4. 0.029

148.

The artificial sweetener stable at cooking temperature that does not provide calories is-
1. Saccharin
2. Aspartame
3. Sucralose
4. Alitame

149. Among the following oxoacids of phosphorus, the strongest reducing property is for:
1. H₄P₂O₇
2. H₃PO₃
3. H₃PO₂
4. H₃PO₄

150.

Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them.
1. O₂^– < NO < C₂^2–< He₂⁺
2. C₂^2–< He₂⁺ < O₂^–< NO
3. He₂⁺ < O₂^–< NO < C₂^2–
4. NO < O₂^– < C₂^2– < He₂⁺

Physics - Section A

151.

A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift that is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5m/s². What would be the reading on the scale? (g = 10 m/s²)
1. Zero
2. 400 N
3. 800 N
4. 1200 N

152.

A wheel with $20$ metallic spokes, each $1$ m long, is rotated with a speed of $120$ rpm in a plane perpendicular to a magnetic field of $0.4~\text{G}$. The induced emf between the axle and rim of the wheel will be:
$(1~\text{G}=10^{-4}~\text{T})$
1. $2.51 \times10^{-4}$ V
2. $2.51 \times10^{-5}$ V
3. $4.0 \times10^{-5}$ V
4. $2.51$ V

153. A wire of resistance $4~\Omega$ is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of a stretched wire would be:
1. $4~\Omega$
2. $8~\Omega$
3. $16~\Omega$
4. $2~\Omega$

154.

For which one of the following Bohr models is not valid?

1.	Singly ionised helium atom $\big(\mathrm{He}^{+}\big).$
2.	Deuteron atom.
3.	Singly ionised neon atom $\big(\mathrm{Ne}^{+}\big).$
4.	Hydrogen atom.

155.

Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is $-e,$ the other is $(e+\Delta e).$ If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance $d$ (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then $\Delta e$ is of the order of?
(Given the mass of hydrogen $m_h = 1.67\times 10^{-27}~\text{kg}$)
1. $10^{-23}~\text{C}$
2. $10^{-37}~\text{C}$
3. $10^{-47}~\text{C}$
4. $10^{-20}~\text{C}$

156.

If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material are denoted by $\mu_d,~\mu_p,~\text{and}~\mu_f$ respectively, then:
1. $\mu_p= 0 ~\text{and}~\mu_f \ne0$
2. $\mu_d\neq 0 ~\text{and}~\mu_p=0$
3. $\mu_d\ne 0 ~\text{and}~\mu_f \ne0$
4. $\mu_d= 0 ~\text{and}~\mu_p \ne0$

157. After passing through a polarizer, a linearly polarized light of intensity $I$ is incident on an analyser making an angle of $30^\circ$ with the axes of the polariser. The intensity of light emitted from the analyser will be:

1.	$\dfrac{I}{2}$	2.	$\dfrac{I}{3}$
3.	$\dfrac{3I}{4}$	4.	$\dfrac{2I}{3}$

158.

A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with amplitude of $3~\text{cm}$. When the particle is at $2~\text{cm}$ from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is:
1. $\dfrac{\sqrt5}{2\pi}$
2. $\dfrac{4\pi}{\sqrt5}$
3. $\dfrac{4\pi}{\sqrt3}$
4. $\dfrac{\sqrt5}{\pi}$

159.

Three liquids of densities $\rho_1,\rho_2$ and $\rho_3$ $(\rho_1>\rho_2>\rho_3)$ having the same value of the surface tension $T,$ rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact $\theta_1,\theta_2$ and $\theta_3$ obey:
1. $ \frac{\pi}{2}>\theta_1>\theta_2>\theta_3 \geq 0 $
2. $ 0 \leq \theta_1<\theta_2<\theta_3<\frac{\pi}{2} $
3. $ \frac{\pi}{2}<\theta_1<\theta_2<\theta_3<\pi $
4. $ \pi>\theta_1>\theta_2>\theta_3>\frac{\pi}{2} $

160.

A concave lens with a focal length of $-25~\text{cm}$ is sandwiched between two convex lenses, each with a focal length of $40~\text{cm}.$ The power (in diopters) of the combined lens system would be:

1.	$55$	2.	$9$
3.	$1$	4.	$0.01$

161. Vectors $\vec {\mathrm{A}}, \vec{\mathrm{B}} $ and $\vec{\mathrm{C}}$ are such that $\vec{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \vec{\mathrm{B}}=0 \text { and } \vec{\mathrm{A}} \cdot \vec{\mathrm{C}}=0$. Then the vector parallel to $\vec A$ is:

1.	$\vec{A} \times \vec{B} $	2.	$\vec{B}+\vec{C} $
3.	$\vec{B} \times \vec{C} $	4.	$\vec{B}~\text{and} ~\vec{C}$

162. The rms value of the potential difference $V$ shown in the figure is:

1.	$\dfrac{V_{0}}{\sqrt{3}}$	2.	$V_{0}$
3.	$\dfrac{V_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}$	4.	$\dfrac{V_{0}}{2}$

163.

Which one of the following statements is false?

1.	Pure Si doped with trivalent impurities gives a p-type semiconductor.
2.	The majority of carriers in an n-type semiconductor are holes.
3.	The minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are electrons.
4.	The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decreases with an increase in temperature.

164.

Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is increased to 100 kV, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would:

1. decrease by 2 times
2. decrease by 4 times
3. increase by 4 times
4. increase by 2 times

165.

The universal gravitational constant is dimensionally represented as:
1. $\left[ML^2T^{-1}\right]$
2. $\left[M^{-2}L^3T^{-2}\right]$
3. $\left[M^{-2}L^2T^{-1}\right]$
4. $\left[M^{-1}L^3T^{-2}\right]$

166. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is:

1.	gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves.
2.	microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet.
3.	infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays.
4.	microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays.

167. An organ pipe filled with a gas at $27^\circ \text{C}$ resonates at $400~\text{Hz}$ in its fundamental mode. If it is filled with the same gas at $90^\circ \text{C},$ the resonance frequency at the same mode will be:

1.	$420~\text{Hz}$	2.	$440~\text{Hz}$
3.	$484~\text{Hz}$	4.	$512~\text{Hz}$

168. A particle of mass $4M$ at rest splits into two particles of mass $M$ and $3M.$ The ratio of the kinetic energies of mass $M$ and $3M$ would be:

1.	$3:1$	2.	$1:4$
3.	$1:1$	4.	$1:3$

169.

A beam of cathode rays is subjected to cross Electric (E) and magnetic fields(B). The fields are adjusted such that the beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by:
1. $\frac{B^{2}}{2 V E^{2}}$
2. $\frac{2 V B^{2}}{E^{2}}$
3. $\frac{2V E^{2}}{B^{2}}$
4. $\frac{E^{2}}{2 V B^{2}}$
(where V is the potential difference between cathode and anode)

170.

Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has a cross-sectional area $A$ and the second wire has a cross-sectional area $3A$. If the length of the first wire is increased by $\Delta l$ on applying a force $F$, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?

1.	$9F$	2.	$6F$
3.	$4F$	4.	$F$

171.

A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A₁ and A₂ with half-lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially, the mixture has 40 g of A₁ and 160 g of A₂. The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal after:
1. 60 s
2. 80 s
3. 20 s
4. 40 s

172. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the equation,

$\theta(t)=2t^{3}-6t^{2}$
The torque on the wheel becomes zero at:

1.	$t=0.5$ s	2.	$t=0.25$ s
3.	$t=2$ s	4.	$t=1$ s

173. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is:

1.	$\theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)$	2.	$\theta = \tan^{-1}(4)$
3.	$\theta = \tan^{-1}(2)$	4.	$\theta = 45^{\circ}$

174.

A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are ($2$ m, $3$ m) at time $t=0,$ ($6$ m,$7$ m) at time $t=2$ s, and ($13$ m, $14$ m) at time $t=$ $5$ s. The average velocity vector $\vec{v}_{avg}$ from $t=$ 0 to $t=$ $5$ s is:
1. ${1 \over 5} (13 \hat{i} + 14 \hat{j})$
2. ${7 \over 3} (\hat{i} + \hat{j})$
3. $2 (\hat{i} + \hat{j})$
4. ${11 \over 5} (\hat{i} + \hat{j})$

175.

The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge $Q$ coulomb is $Q\times10^{11}~\text{V}$. The electric field at that point is:
1. $4\pi \varepsilon_0 Q\times 10^{22}~\text{V/m}$
2. $12\pi \varepsilon_0 Q\times 10^{20}~\text{V/m}$
3. $4\pi \varepsilon_0 Q\times 10^{20}~\text{V/m}$
4. $12\pi \varepsilon_0 Q\times 10^{22}~\text{V/m}$

176. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine $A$ receives heat from the source at temperature $T_1$ and rejects the heat to the sink at temperature $T.$ The second engine $B$ receives the heat at temperature $T$ and rejects to its sink at temperature $T_2$. For what value of $T$ the efficiencies of the two engines are equal?

1.	$\dfrac{T_1-T_2}{2} $	2.	$T_1 T_2 $
3.	$\sqrt{T_1 T_2} $	4.	$\dfrac{T_1+T_2}{2}$

177. The density of water at $20^\circ \text{C}$ is $998~\text{kg/m}^3$ and at $40^\circ \text{C}$ is $992~\text{kg/m}^3.$ The coefficient of volume expansion of water is:

1.	$3 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$	2.	$2 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$
3.	$6 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$	4.	$10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C$

178.

The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be: (where R is the gas constant)
1. PV = 5 RT
2. PV = (5/2) RT
3. PV = (5/16) RT
4. PV = (5/32) RT

179.

Two spherical bodies of masses $M$ and $5M$ and radii $R$ and $2R$ are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to $12R.$ If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before the collision is:

1.	$2.5R$	2.	$4.5R$
3.	$7.5R$	4.	$1.5R$

180.

A 1 kg stationary bomb explodes in three parts having mass 1 : 1 : 3 respectively. If parts having the same mass move in a perpendicular direction with a velocity of 30 m $s^{- 1}$ , then the velocity of the bigger part will be:
1. $10$ $\sqrt{2}$ $m s^{- 1}$
2. $\frac{10}{\sqrt{2}} m s^{- 1}$
3. $15$ $\sqrt{2}$ $m s^{- 1}$
4. $\frac{15}{\sqrt{2}} m s^{- 1}$

181.

A long solenoid has $500$ turns. When a current of $2 ~\text{A}$ is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is $4\times 10^{-3} ~\text{Wb}$. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:
1. $2.5 ~\text{H}$
2. $2.0 ~\text{H}$
3. $1.0 ~\text{H}$
4. $4.0 ~\text{H}$

182.

A current of $3~\text{A}$ flows through the $2~\Omega$ resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the $5~\Omega$ resistor is:

1.	$4~\text{W}$	2.	$2~\text{W}$
3.	$1~\text{W}$	4.	$5~\text{W}$

183. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from the third excited state to the second excited state and then from the second excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelengths $\lambda_1:\lambda_2$ emitted in the two cases is:
1. $\dfrac{7}{5}$
2. $\dfrac{20}{7}$
3. $\dfrac{27}{5}$
4. $\dfrac{27}{20}$

184.

Twelve point charges each of charge $q~\text C$ are placed at the circumference of a circle of radius $r~\text{m}$ with equal angular spacing. If one of the charges is removed, the net electric field (in $\text{N/C}$) at the centre of the circle is:
($\varepsilon_0\text- $permittivity of free space)

1.	$\dfrac{13q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0r^2}$	2.	zero
3.	$\dfrac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0r^2}$	4.	$\dfrac{12q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0r^2}$

185.

Above Curie temperature:
1. a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic.
2. a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic.
3. a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic.
4. a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic.

Physics - Section B

186.

Two particles $A$ and $B$ are moving in a uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii $r_A$ and $r_B$ with speeds $v_A$ and $v_B$ respectively. Their time periods of rotation are the same. The ratio of the angular speed of $A$ to that of $B$ will be:

1.	$ 1: 1 $	2.	$r_A: r_B $
3.	$v_A: v_B $	4.	$r_B: r_A$

187.

Resistance of a Galvanometer coil is $8~\Omega$ and $2~\Omega$ shunt resistance is connected with it. If main current is $1$ A then the current flow through $2~\Omega$ resistance will be:
1. $0.2$ A
2. $0.8$ A
3. $0.1$ A
4. $0.4$ A

188.

The acceleration due to gravity at a height $1~\text{km}$ above the earth's surface is the same as at a depth $d$ below the surface of the earth. Then:

1.	$d= 1~\text{km}$	2.	$d= \frac{3}{2}~\text{km}$
3.	$d= 2~\text{km}$	4.	$d= \frac{1}{2}~\text{km}$

189. Match List I with List II.

List - I (Electromagnetic waves)		List - II (Wavelength)
(a)	AM radio waves	(i)	$10^{-10}~\text{m}$
(b)	Microwaves	(ii)	$10^{2} ~\text{m}$
(c)	Infrared radiation	(iii)	$10^{-2} ~\text{m}$
(d)	$X$-rays	(iv)	$10^{-4} ~\text{m}$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)

190.

Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be $3.57~\text{V}$. The threshold frequency of the material is:
1. $4\times10^{15}~\text{Hz}$
2. $5\times10^{15}~\text{Hz}$
3. $1.6\times10^{15}~\text{Hz}$
4. $2.5\times10^{15}~\text{Hz}$

191.

A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of an electron microscope. This is because:

1.	the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope.
2.	the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200-350 nm compared to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope.
3.	electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections.
4.	the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons that has a wavelength much longer than that of photons.

192.

$\overrightarrow{A}$ and $\overrightarrow B$ are two vectors and $\theta$ is the angle between them. If $\left|\overrightarrow A\times \overrightarrow B\right|= \sqrt{3}\left(\overrightarrow A\cdot \overrightarrow B\right),$ then the value of $\theta$ will be:

1.	$60^{\circ}$	2.	$45^{\circ}$
3.	$30^{\circ}$	4.	$90^{\circ}$

193. An electric dipole of dipole moment ${p}$ is aligned parallel to a uniform electric field ${E}.$ The energy required to rotate the dipole by $90^\circ$ is:
1. $ p^2 E$
2. $ p E$
3. infinite
4. $ {pE}^2$

194. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is:

1.	$180^\circ$	2.	$0^\circ$
3.	$45^\circ$	4.	$90^\circ$

195. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases $A$ and $B$ at the same temperature, the pressure of $A$ being twice that of $B.$ Under such conditions, the density of $A$ is found to be $1.5$ times the density of $B.$ The ratio of molecular weight of $A$ and $B$ is:

1.	$\dfrac{2}{3}$	2.	$\dfrac{3}{4}$
3.	$2$	4.	$\dfrac{1}{2}$

196. The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius $2~\text{cm}$ from a soap solution is nearly:
$($the surface tension of soap solution $0.03~\text{Nm}^{-1})$
1. $50.1 \times 10^{-4}~\text{J}$
2. $30.16 \times 10^{-4}~ \text{J}$
3. $5.06 \times 10^{-4} ~\text{J}$
4. $3.01\times 10^{-4} ~\text{J}$

197.

When the light of frequency $2\nu_0$ (where $\nu_0$ is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is $v_1.$ When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to $5\nu_0,$ the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is $v_2.$ What will be the ratio of $v_1$ to $v_2?$

1.	$1:2$	2.	$1:4$
3.	$4:1$	4.	$2:1$

198.

What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass $m$ must enter a vertical loop of radius $R$ so that it can complete the loop?
1. $\sqrt{2 g R}$
2. $\sqrt{3 g R}$
3. $\sqrt{5 g R}$
4. $\sqrt{ g R}$

199. In a series ${LCR}$ circuit, the inductance ${L}$ is $10~\text{mH}$, capacitance ${C}$ is $1~\mu\text{F}$ and resistance ${R}$ is $100~\Omega$. The frequency at which resonance occurs is:

1.	$1.59~\text{kHz}$	2.	$15.9~\text{rad/s}$
3.	$15.9~\text{kHz}$	4.	$1.59~\text{rad/s}$

200.

A round disc of the moment inertia $I_{2}$ about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is placed over another disc of moment of inertia $I_{1}$ rotating with an angular velocity ω about the same axis. The final angular velocity of the combination of discs is:
1. ω
2. $\frac{I_{1} ω}{I_{1} + I_{2}}$
3. $\frac{(I_{1} + I_{2}) ω}{I_{1}}$
4. $\frac{I_{2} ω}{I_{1} + I_{2}}$

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1.	DNA replication takes place in S-phase
2.	A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
3.	\(G_2\) phase follows the mitotic phase
4.	In the \(G_1\) phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell

1.		2.
3.		4.	\(\mathrm{Cl}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{OH}\)

1.	\(\mathrm{KCl}\)	2.	\(\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6}\)
3.	\(\mathrm{Al}_2(\mathrm{SO_4})_3\)	4.	\(\mathrm{K_2SO_4}\)

1.	\(e^{4} t_{2 g}^{ 2}\)	2.	\(t_{2 g}^{ 4} e_{g}^{2}\)
3.	\(t_{2 g}^{ 6} e_{g}^{0}\)	4.	\(e^{3} t_{2 g}^{ 3}\)

1.	\(30 ~\mathrm {J} \)	2.	\(-30 ~\mathrm{J} \)
3.	\(5~ \mathrm{kJ}\)	4.	\(25~ \mathrm{J}\)

1.
2.	\(CH_3-CH=CH-CH_3 ~\)
3.	\(CH_3 -CH_2 -CH = CH_2 ~\)
4.	\(CH_3 -CH_2 -CH_2 -CH_2 -OH ~\)

1.	Singly ionised helium atom \(\big(\mathrm{He}^{+}\big).\)
2.	Deuteron atom.
3.	Singly ionised neon atom \(\big(\mathrm{Ne}^{+}\big).\)
4.	Hydrogen atom.

1.	\(\dfrac{I}{2}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{I}{3}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{3I}{4}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{2I}{3}\)

1.	\(\vec{A} \times \vec{B} \)	2.	\(\vec{B}+\vec{C} \)
3.	\(\vec{B} \times \vec{C} \)	4.	\(\vec{B}~\text{and} ~\vec{C}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{V_{0}}{\sqrt{3}}\)	2.	\(V_{0}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{V_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{V_{0}}{2}\)

1.	\(420~\text{Hz}\)	2.	\(440~\text{Hz}\)
3.	\(484~\text{Hz}\)	4.	\(512~\text{Hz}\)

1.	\(\theta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)\)	2.	\(\theta = \tan^{-1}(4)\)
3.	\(\theta = \tan^{-1}(2)\)	4.	\(\theta = 45^{\circ}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{T_1-T_2}{2} \)	2.	\(T_1 T_2 \)
3.	\(\sqrt{T_1 T_2} \)	4.	\(\dfrac{T_1+T_2}{2}\)

1.	\(3 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C\)	2.	\(2 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C\)
3.	\(6 \times 10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C\)	4.	\(10^{-4} / ^\circ\text C\)

1.	\(4~\text{W}\)	2.	\(2~\text{W}\)
3.	\(1~\text{W}\)	4.	\(5~\text{W}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{13q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0r^2}\)	2.	zero
3.	\(\dfrac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0r^2}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{12q}{4\pi \varepsilon_0r^2}\)

1.	\(d= 1~\text{km}\)	2.	\(d= \frac{3}{2}~\text{km}\)
3.	\(d= 2~\text{km}\)	4.	\(d= \frac{1}{2}~\text{km}\)

1.	\(60^{\circ}\)	2.	\(45^{\circ}\)
3.	\(30^{\circ}\)	4.	\(90^{\circ}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{2}{3}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{3}{4}\)
3.	\(2\)	4.	\(\dfrac{1}{2}\)

1.	\(1.59~\text{kHz}\)	2.	\(15.9~\text{rad/s}\)
3.	\(15.9~\text{kHz}\)	4.	\(1.59~\text{rad/s}\)

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