Biology Prodigy Test #16 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1.

Match the plants in Column-I with the description of anatomy of vascular bundles in them in Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Dicot stem	a.	Collateral, closed and scattered in ground tissue
B.	Monocot stem	b.	Conjoint, collateral endarch and open
C.	Dicot root	c.	Radial, exarch and polyarch [usually more than 6]
D.	Monocot root	d.	Radial, exarch and 2 to 6 in number

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	b	a	d	c
3.	a	b	d	c
4.	b	a	c	d

2.

Cyanobacteria:

I:	are eubacteria
II:	have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
III:	can fix atmospheric nitrogen

1. Only III is correct
2. Only I and II are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

3.

Consider the following statements:
In a monocot stem-

I:	Hypodermis is collenchymatous.
II:	Vascular bundle are collateral and closed.
III:	Trichomes are usually absent.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

4.

Potato Spindle Tuber Disease is caused by a pathogen that is:

1.	A nucleocapsid
2.	A low molecular weight free RNA
3.	An abnormally folded protein
4.	A protozoan

5. What would be true for Alternaria but not for Puccinia?

1.	Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
2.	Sexual stage is unknown
3.	Lack of vegetative reproduction
4.	Called as bracket fungi

6.

Coralloid roots in Cycas are associated with nitrogen fixing:

1.	Rhizobium	2.	Frankia
3.	Azospirillum	4.	Cyanobacteria

7.

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

1.	Glutamic Acid	2.	Lysine
3.	Valine	4.	Tyrosine

8.

Identify the correct statements amongst the following:

I:	When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary
II:	In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne in basipetal order
III:	In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in basipetal order

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only I and III	4.	Only II and III

9. All the following are examples of secondary or lateral meristems except:
1. Fascicular vascular cambium
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Interfascicular meristem
4. Cork cambium

10. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II regarding double helix model of B-DNA and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Pitch	P	2.0 nm
B	Diameter	Q	3.4 nm
C	AT base pair	R	Two hydrogen bonds
D	GC base pair	S	Three hydrogen bonds

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	R	S
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

11. Identify the incorrect match:

	Angiosperm	Economic importance
1.	Indigofera	Dye
2.	Sunhemp	Fibre
3.	Colchicum	Fumigatory
4.	Belladonna	Medicine

12. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Primary CO₂ fixation product in C₃ plants	P	Mesophyll
B	Primary CO₂ fixation product in C₄ plants	Q	3-PGA
C	Cell type in which Calvin cycle takes place in C₃ plants	R	OAA
D	Cell type in which Calvin cycle takes place in C₄ plants	S	Bundle sheath

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	Q	S	P
2.	R	Q	P	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	Q	R	S	P

13. All the following are limitations of ecological pyramids except:

1.	It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
2.	It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature.
3.	It does not accommodate a food web.
4.	Saprophytes are given the most important place in ecological pyramids even though they do not play a vital role in the ecosystem.

14. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called for the conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its beneﬁts.
Statement II:	The World Summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa pledged for a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss at global, regional and local levels by 2010.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

15.

In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid, and triploid structures are:

1.	Synergid, zygote, and primary endosperm nucleus
2.	Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
3.	Antipodal, synergid, and primary endosperm nucleus
4.	Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.

16.

Similar biological structures or sequences in different taxa are homologous if they:

1.	always perform the same function
2.	result from convergent evolution
3.	do not serve any known function
4.	are derived from a common ancestor

17. In Mendelian inheritance, a recessive allele for a character is the one that:

1.	is least frequent in the population
2.	was the original allele, from which other alleles have been formed by mutation
3.	expresses itself only in homozygous condition
4.	does not segregate during gamete formation

18.

A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?

1.	C₄	2.	CAM
3.	Nitrogen –fixer	4.	C₃

19. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Alkaloid	P.	Ricin
B.	Toxin	Q.	Vinblastin
C.	Lectin	R.	Morphine
D.	Drug	S.	Concanavalin A

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	R	P	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

20. Identify the correct match:

1.	Racemose inflorescence	Main axis terminates in a flower
2.	Cymose Inflorescence	Flowers borne in basipetal succession
3.	Hypogynous flower	Ovary is inferior
4.	Epigynous flower	Ovary is superior

21. Spraying sugarcane crops with which of the following plant growth regulators increases the stem's length, thus increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre?

1.	Auxins	2.	Gibberellins
3.	Cytokinins	4.	ABA

22. Which of the following statement is correct?

1.	Ovules are enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms
2.	Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous
3.	Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess xylem and phloem.
4.	Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Pinus

23.

Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:

1.	Tegmen	2.	Chalaza
3.	Perisperm	4.	Hilum

24.

What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes when viewed under an electron microscope?
1. Nucleotides
2. Nucleosomes
3. Base pairs
4. Uracil

25.

Crossing over or recombination can be defined as:

1.	exchange of segments between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
2.	exchange of segments between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
3.	exchange of segments between sister chromatids of heterologous chromosomes
4.	exchange of segments between non sister chromatids of heterologous chromosomes

26. Four genes A, B, C and D are linked to the same chromosome in an organism. The distance between the gene pairs is as given below:

[a]	between A and B = 28 map units,
[b]	between B and C = 15 map units
[c]	between C and D = 25 map units
[d]	between B and D = 10 map units
[e]	between A and D = 38 map units
[f]	between A and C = 13 map units

What is the order of these four genes?
1. ABCD
2. ACBD
3. ABDC
4. BADC

27.

A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is:

1.	malonate	2.	oxaloacetate
3.	α-ketoglutarate	4.	malate

28. Floridean starch is a form of:

1.	stored food in red algae that resembles the structure of amylopectin and glycogen
2.	stored food in brown algae that resembles the structure of agarose and agaropectin
3.	carbohydrate found in cell wall of brown algae that resembles the structure of amylopectin and glycogen
4.	carbohydrate found in cell wall of red algae that resembles the structure of agarose and agaropectin

29.

Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?

1. Rice
2. Maize
3. Mango
4. Groundnut

30.

The only type of pollination which during pollination brings a genetically different type of pollen grains to the stigma is:

1.	Chasmogamy	2.	Cleistogamy
3.	Geitonogamy	4.	Xenogamy

31.

Analogous structures are results of?

1.	convergent evolution	2.	shared ancestry
3.	stabilizing selection	4.	divergent evolution

32. The reaction centres in PSI and PSII in higher plants are respectively called as:

1.	P680 and P700	2.	P700 and P680
3.	P870 and P700	4.	P680 and P870

33.

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which:

1.	make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
2.	recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
3.	restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
4.	remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule

34.

The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:
1. Mitochondria
2. Vacuoles
3. Plastids
4. Ribosomes

35. Pollen grains can persist in the fossil record for hundreds of millions of years because of the presence of:
1. Sporopollenin
2. Lignin
3. Cellulose
4. Suberin

Botany - Section B

36.

When a threatened plant needs urgent measures to save it from extinction, the desirable approach is:

1.	in-situ conservation	2.	ex-situ conservation
3.	cryopreservation	4.	biopreservation

37. A ‘protonema’ stage in the life cycle of a moss is the:

1.	first stage in gametophyte generation
2.	second stage in gametophyte generation
3.	first stage in sporophyte generation
4.	second stage in sporophyte generation

38.

Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents via:

I. Complex I

II. Complex II

III. Complex III

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only I and III	4.	I, II and III

39.

Nicotine, caffeine, quinine and opium produced by plants are actually:

1.	Primary metabolites needed in reproduction
2.	Secondary metabolites needed for growth
3.	Alkaloids that are present in seeds
4.	Defenses against grazers and browsers

40.

The chromosomes in which the centromere is situated close to one end are:

1. metacentric
2. acrocentric
3. telocentric
4. sub-metacentric

41.

In a strand of nucleic acid, two nucleotides are linked together by:
1. 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond
2. 5’ – 3’ phosphodiester bond
3. 2’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond
4. 3’ – 1’ phosphodiester bond

42.

Consider the two statements:

I:	It is desirable to use restriction enzymes produce 'sticky ends' for cloning experiments in genetic engineering.
II:	If the donor DNA and the vector DNA are cut by such same restriction endonuclease, ligation of the two is easy.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	Only I is correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

43.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	Plant cells undergo cytokinesis in a different manner than the animal cells.
II:	Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively inextensible cell wall.

Of the two statements:

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct

44.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen-nectar robbers.
2.	Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical compounds of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
3.	Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
4.	Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

45.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding true bacteria?

1.	As a group, they exhibit maximum metabolic diversity.
2.	Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur.
3.	Heterotrophic bacteria are the most abundant in nature.
4.	Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission but sometimes under favourable conditions, they produce spores.

46.

The mass of living material at a tropic level at a particular time is called:

1. gross primary productivity
2. standing state
3. net primary productivity
4. standing crop

47.

Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are characteristic features of:
1. Asteraceae
2. Brassicaceae
3. Solanaceae
4. Liliaceae

48.

During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include:
1. methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
2. hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
3. hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
4. methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide

49. The most critical requirement for any DNA molecule to be able to act as a cloning vector during rDNA procedures will be:
1. Ori
2. MCS
3. More than one selectable marker
4. A silent promoter

50.

Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of the following mRNA?
5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3'

1.	Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th positions
2.	Insertion of G at the 5th position
3.	Deletion of G from the 5th position
4.	Insertion of A and G at the 4th and the 5th positions respectively

Zoology - Section A

51. The correct taxonomic position of Rana tigrina would be:

I:	Phylum	Chordata
II:	Subphylum	Vertebrata
III:	Superclass	Gnathostomata
IV:	Class	Tetrapoda

1.	I and II only	2.	III and IV only
3.	I and III only	4.	II and IV only

52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A):	All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
Reason (R):	Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2.	Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4.	(A) is correct but (R) is not correct

53.

What acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism?

1.	ANF	2.	ADH
3.	Aldosterone	4.	Erythropoietin

54.

In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until?

1.	Puberty	2.	Fertilization
3.	Uterine implantation	4.	Birth

55.

Chorionic villi are derived from:

1.	Trophoblast cells	2.	Granulosa cells
3.	Theca cells	4.	Maternal tissue

56.

The most active phagocytic white blood cells are:

1.	neutrophils and eosinophils
2.	lymphocytes and macrophages
3.	eosinophils and lymphocytes
4.	neutrophils and monocytes

57.

Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function:

	A	B	C
1.	Cerebellum	Mid brain	Controls respiration and gastric secretions
2.	Hypothalamus	Fore brain	Controls body temperature, urge for eating and drinking
3.	Blind spot	Near the place where optic nerve leaves the eye	Rods and cones are present but inactive here
4.	Eustachian tube	Anterior part of internal ear	Equalizes air pressure on either sides of tympanic membrane

58.

Frogs respire on land and in water by two different methods:

Statement I:	In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration).
Statement II:	On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.

1.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is incorrect

59. During the contraction of skeletal muscle, the length of which of the following does not get reduced?

1.	A band	2.	Sarcomere
3.	H-zone	4.	I band

60.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding emphysema?

1.	Alveolar walls are damaged
2.	There is an increase in the respiratory surface
3.	Major cause is cigarette smoking
4.	Can be caused by deficiency of Alpha-1-antitrypsin enzyme

61.

Human Genome Project was launched in the year:

1.	1990	2.	2003
3.	2006	4.	2011

62. The plasma of a person has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. The blood type of this person will be:

1.	Type O	2.	Type AB
3.	Type A	4.	Type B

63. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the:

1.	mother between 20 weeks and 24 weeks of pregnancy
2.	mother early in pregnancy
3.	mother immediately after the delivery of the child
4.	new-born immediately after the delivery

64.

Select the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane:

1.	Na⁺ and K⁺ ions move across cell membranes by passive transport
2.	Proteins make up 60% to 70% of the cell membrane
3.	Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part
4.	Fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson

65.

Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct matching from the four options that follow:

	Method		Mode of action
A.	The pill	1.	Prevents sperms from reaching cervix
B.	Condom	2.	Prevents implantation
C.	Vasectomy	3.	Prevents ovulation
D.	Copper-T	4.	Semen contains no sperms

1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
3. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
4. A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

66.

As a part of their reproductive strategy, pelagic fishes:

1.	Produce a large number of small-sized offspring
2.	Produce a small number of small-sized offspring
3.	Produce a large number of large-sized offspring
4.	Produce a small number of large-sized offspring

67. The pineal gland:

I:	helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wakefulness cycle and body temperature.
II:	influences metabolism, pigmentation and the menstrual cycle.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

68. The T-cells:

I:	themselves do not secrete antibodies
II:	help B cells to produce antibodies

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

69.

The animals with bilateral symmetry in the young stage and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the phylum:

1.	Mollusca	2.	Cnidaria
3.	Echinodermata	4.	Annelida

70. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Multipolar neuron	P.	Embryonic stage
B.	Bipolar neuron	Q.	Retina
C.	Unipolar neuron	R.	Cerebral cortex

Code:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	R	P
3.	R	Q	P
4.	R	P	Q

71.

The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from:
1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta
4. Fetal pituitary

72.

Uricotelism is found in:
1. Fishes and freshwater protozoans
2. Birds, reptiles, and insects
3. Frogs and toads
4. Mammals and birds

73.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Population interaction	Species A	Species B
1.	Mutualism	+	+
2.	Predation	+	-
3.	Parasitism	-	-
4.	Commensalism	+	0

74. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [mRNA codon]		Column II [Role]
A	AUG	P	Initiator codon
B	GUG	Q	Stop codon
C	GAG	R	Codes for valine
D	UAG	S	Codes for glutamic acid

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	Q	S
2.	P	R	S	Q
3.	R	P	S	Q
4.	P	R	Q	S

75.

What neurotransmitter is released by the anterior motor neuron at the neuro-muscular junction?

1.	Dopamine	2.	Norepinephrine
3.	Acetylcholine	4.	Adrenaline

76.

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to newborn infants because it contains:

1.	Immunoglobulin A	2.	Natural killer cells
3.	Monocytes	4.	Macrophages

77. All of the following are a part of biotechnology except:

1.	in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby
2.	synthesising a gene and using it
3.	developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a defective gene
4.	insertion of an IUD for contraception

78. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
1. Cockroach
2. House ﬂy
3. Fire ﬂy
4. Grasshopper

79.

Feeling the tremors of an earthquake, a scared resident of the seventh floor of a multi-storey building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this act?
1. Thyroxine
2. Adrenaline
3. Glucagon
4. Gastrin

80.

Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of?

1.	Vitamin D	2.	Vitamin A
3.	Vitamin B12	4.	Vitamin E

81.

Which of the following techniques is banned by law in India for pre-natal sex determination?

1.	Laparoscopy	2.	Amniocentesis
3.	Hysteroscopy	4.	MRI and CT scan

82. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl with:

1.	adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
2.	alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
3.	phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
4.	homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency

83.

A person with an unknown blood group under the ABO system, has suffered significant blood loss in an accident and needs an immediate blood transfusion. His friend who has a valid certificate of his blood type, offers blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?

1. Type AB
2. Type O
3. Type A
4. Type B

84. The given pedigree shows the inheritance pattern of a rare mutant phenotype (filled-in symbols) in humans. What is the most likely mode of inheritance of the trait?

1. Autosomal recessive
2. Sex-linked recessive
3. Autosomal dominant
4. Sex-linked dominant

85. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Tubular secretion helps in the maintenance of ionic and acid-base balance of body fluids.
Reason (R):	During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete substances like H⁺, K⁺ and ammonia into the filtrate.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

Zoology - Section B

86. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	An adapter molecule, that on one hand can read the genetic code and on the other hand can bind to specific amino acids, is required for the translation of proteins.
Reason (R):	Amino acids have no structural specialties to read the code uniquely.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

87. Identify the correct information regarding the genetics of ABO blood group system in humans:

A:	The three alleles are all co-dominant
B:	The number of possible genotypes is 6
C:	The number of possible phenotypes is 4

1. A and B are correct
2. A and C are correct
3. B and C are correct
4. A, B and C are correct

88.

Consider the following statements:

I:	HIV is a retrovirus.
II:	It infects and destroys the CD4 T-lymphocytes.
III:	The newer antiretroviral drugs are a cure for HIV infection.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

89. PCT and DCT of a nephron are respectively lined with:

1.	Columnar brush-bordered epithelium and simple cuboidal epithelium
2.	Cuboidal brush-bordered epithelium and simple cuboidal epithelium
3.	Cuboidal brush-bordered epithelium and simple columnar epithelium
4.	Columnar brush-bordered epithelium and simple columnar epithelium

90. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration is called as:
1. Functional residual capacity
2. Vital capacity
3. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Residual volume

91. Besides the basic chordate characters, vertebrates have:

I:	a dorsal muscular heart with two, three or four chambers
II:	kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
III:	paired appendages which may be fins or limbs

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

92.

Which of the following would not be a feature seen in a patient with the following karyotype?

1. Many loops on fingertips
2. Congenital heart disease
3. Big and wrinkled tongue
4. Mucus clogging of airways

93. In an area where Biston betularia is found, environmental pollution is controlled after strict law enforcement. What do you expect should happen to the colour of moths found in the area?

1.	dark-colored moths should change to light-colored
2.	light-colored moths should change to dark-colored
3.	dark-colored moths should become more common
4.	light-colored moths should become more common

94.

Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

Select the correct option from the following:

1.	A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone receptor Complex; C = Protein
2.	A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP
3.	A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second Messenger
4.	A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor Complex

95.

Antivenom injection contains performed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
1. harvested antibodies
2. gamma globulin
3. attenuated pathogens
4. activated pathogens

96. Match each item in Column I [duration of pregnancy] with one in Column II [major features of embryonic development] and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	By the end of the second month	P	most of the major organ systems are formed
B	By the end of 12 weeks	Q	the foetus develops limbs and digits
C	By the end of 24 weeks	R	the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are formed

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	P	R
3.	R	Q	P
4.	R	P	Q

97.

The genotypes of a husband and wife are I^AI^B and I^Ai respectively. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
1. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
2. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
3. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes
4. 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

98. Study the given two statements:

Statement I:	The eye of the octopus and the eye of mammals are homologous.
Statement II:	Sweet potato and potato are an example of homology.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

99.

Assertion (A):	A xenograft, a transplant of organs or tissue from one species to another, is often an extremely dangerous type of transplant.
Reason (R):	The chances of rejection of the graft by the immune system of the host are very high.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

100.

Unlike human brain, which of the following structure is not a feature of a frog’s brain?

1.	Cerebellum	2.	Pons varolii
3.	Medulla oblongata	4.	Olfactory lobes

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