Biology Prodigy Test #14 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1.

Consider the following statements about dicot leaf:

I:	The epidermis which covers both the upper surface (adaxial epidermis) and lower surface (abaxial epidermis) of the leaf has a conspicuous cuticle.
II:	More stomata present on upper surface.
III:	Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

2. Regarding red algae:

I:	Majority are fresh water with greater concentrations found in the colder areas.
II:	They occur in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of water and also at great depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

3. In pea:

1.	Flower is zygomorphic, aestivation is vexillary, stamens are diadelphous and placentation is marginal.
2.	Flower is actinomorphic, aestivation is vexillary, stamens are diadelphous and placentation is axile.
3.	Flower is zygomorphic, aestivation is twisted, stamens are monodelphous and placentation is parietal.
4.	Flower is actinomorphic, aestivation is imbricate, stamens are diadelphous and placentation is marginal.

4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding guard cells in the epidermal tissue system?

1.	They enclose stomata.
2.	They are bean shaped in grasses.
3.	The outer walls are thin and the inner walls are highly thickened.
4.	They possess chloroplasts.

5.

In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip upward, the four zones occur in the following order:

1.	Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement
2.	Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap
3.	Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, root cap
4.	Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation

6.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in:

1.	Only in 3’ – 5’ direction
2.	Only in 5’ – 3’ direction
3.	In both directions
4.	In neither directions

7.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Accessory pigments enable a wider range of light to be utilized for photosynthesis.
II:	The reaction center of PSI is P680 and that of PSII is P 700.
III:	The stroma lamellae membranes lack both PSII and NADP reductase.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

8.

Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by:
1. Parasite
2. Consumer
3. Decomposer
4. Producer

9.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent homology.
II:	Sweet potato and potato exhibit analogy.
III:	Homologous organs are the result of divergent evolution & analogous organs are the result of convergent evolution.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

10.

In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
1. Wheat
2. Papaya
3. Castor
4. Maize

11.

According to Robert May, global species diversity is about:
1. 20 Million
2. 50 Million
3. 7 Million
4. 1.5 Million

12. Who coined the term linkage to describe physical association of genes on a chromosome?
1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Bateson and Punnet
3. T. H. Morgan
4. Watson and Crick

13.

In the diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack pathway, A and B respectively represent:

1.	Mesophyll cells and Bundle sheath cells
2.	Bundle sheath cells and Mesophyll cells
3.	Bundle sheath cells and Palisade cells
4.	Mesophyll cells and Guard cells

14.

Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Citric acid	1.	Trichoderma
B.	Cyclosporin	2.	Clostridium
C.	Statins	3.	Aspergillus
D.	Butyric Acid	4.	Monascus

1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
3. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
4. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

15.

Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct:

1.	Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
2.	Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
3.	Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site on the enzyme
4.	Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amounts of substrate

16.

The sheath covering the plumule in monocotyledonous seeds is called as:

1.	Coleorrhiza	2.	Coleoptile
3.	Testa	4.	Tegmen

17.

Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:

1.	Plasticity	2.	Maturity
3.	Elasticity	4.	Flexibility

18.

For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism, it needs to be part of a chromosome that has a specific:

1.	Telomeric sequence	2.	Multiple cloning sites
3.	Ori	4.	Selectable marker

19. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Cell]		Column II [Ploidy]
A	PEC	P	N
B	Zygote	Q	2N
C	Megaspore	R	3N

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	R	P
3.	R	Q	P
4.	R	P	Q

20.

All the following statements regarding the importance of algae are correct except:

1.	Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
2.	Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are marine algae used as food.
3.	Algin and carrageen are both obtained from brown algae.
4.	Chlorella is rich in proteins and is used as a food supplement even by space travellers.

21. Match the stage of Prophase I given in Column I with the corresponding event in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Zygotene	P	Terminalisation of chiasmata
B	Pachytene	Q	Appearance of chiasmata
C	Diplotene	R	Crossing over
D	Diakinesis	S	Pairing of homologues

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	P	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	Q	S	R	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

22. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Phycomycetes	P	Ustilago and Puccinia
B	Ascomycetes	Q	Alternaria and Trichoderma
C	Basidiomycetes	R	Rhizopus and Albugo
D	Deuteromycetes	S	Aspergillus and Neurospora

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	S	P	Q
2.	R	S	Q	P
3.	S	R	P	Q
4.	S	R	Q	P

23.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
II:	Arachidonic acid has 20 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

24.

The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is

1.	PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS I, ferredoxin
2.	PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II, ferredoxin
3.	PSI, ferredoxin, PS II,
4.	PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II, ferredoxin

25. If one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector:

1.	that is a single-stranded DNA molecule
2.	whose origin [ori] supports a high copy number
3.	that carries two selectable markers
4.	whose cloning sites are all clustered at one place

26.

Gene cloning occurs:

1.	when a phage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another.
2.	when a bacterium takes up DNA from the surrounding fluid.
3.	when a bacterium carrying a recombinant plasmid reproduces, thus allowing for the production of multiple copies of the recombinant plasmid.
4.	when DNA is produced from an RNA template.

27.

Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of:

1.	water	2.	insects or wind
3.	birds	4.	bats

28. In the classification of plants, the taxonomic unit ‘Division’ is equivalent to which taxonomic unit in the classification of animals?

1.	Order	2.	Class
3.	Phylum	4.	Genus

29.

The chief ‘producers’ in the oceans are:
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Diatoms
4. Lichens

30. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Amoebic dysentery	P.	Sporozoan
B.	Sleeping sickness	Q.	Flagellated protozoan
C.	Filaria	R.	Roundworm
D.	Malaria	S.	Amoeboid protozoan

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	Q	R	P
2.	S	Q	P	R
3.	Q	S	P	R
4.	Q	S	R	P

31.

Companion cells are closely associated with:

1.	Sieve elements	2.	Vessel elements
3.	Trichomes	4.	Guard cells

32. Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape. Identify the incorrect match:

1.	Coccus	Spherical
2.	Bacillus	Rod-shaped
3.	Vibrium	Icosahedron
4.	Spirillum	Spiral

33.

Which one of the following growth regulators is known as the stress hormone?

1.	Abscisic acid	2.	Ethylene
3.	GA₃	4.	Indole acetic acid

34. A transgenic tobacco plant was created to make it resistant to:

1.	a nematode, Meloidogyne incognita.
2.	a nematode, Caenorhabditis elegans.
3.	a trematode, Clonorchis sinensis.
4.	a cestode, Taenia sloium.

35. In the female gametophyte of angiosperms, filiform apparatus is a part of:
1. Synergids
2. Antipodals
3. Central cell
4. Egg

Botany - Section B

36. Consider the given statements:

Statement I:	The most important cause today for animals and plants being driven to extinction is over-exploitation by human beings.
Statement II:	Conserving biodiversity hotspots is an Ex-situ method of conservation of threatened animals and plants.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

37. In a test cross:

Statement I:	If any of the offspring produced, expresses the recessive trait, the individual in question is homozygous for the dominant allele.
Statement II:	If all of the offspring produced express the dominant trait, the individual in question is heterozygous for the dominant allele.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

38.

Read the following five statements (I to V) and select the option with all correct statements.

I:	Mosses and lichens are the first organisms to colonise bare rock.
II:	Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
III:	Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
IV:	Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
V:	In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophytes.

1.	I, III and IV	2.	II, III and IV
3.	I, IV and V	4.	II, III and V

39.

The beginning of diplotene is recognized by:

I:	dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
II:	the tendency of recombined homologues of bivalents to separate
III:	tetrads becoming clearly visible

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II, and III

40. How many of the given statements regarding a eukaryotic cell are correct?

I:	The outer nuclear membrane usually remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum but does not bear ribosomes on it.
II:	Nucleolus is a single membrane-bound structure.
III:	Chromatin contains DNA and some acidic proteins called histones, but does not contain non-histone proteins and RNA.
IV:	Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction or the centromere on the sides of which disc-shaped structures called kinetochores are present.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

41. The repressor of the lac operon is synthesised:

1.	all the time
2.	only when lactose is present
3.	only when lactose is absent
4.	only when glucose is present in high amount

42. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Component of mitochondrial ETS]		Column II [Location]
A	Ubiquinone	P	On the matrix side
B	Cytochrome c	Q	Within the membrane
C	F₁ component of ATP synthase	R	Outer surface of the inner membrane
		S	Inner surface of the outer membrane

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	S
2.	P	Q	R
3.	Q	R	P
4.	Q	P	R

43.

Which one of the following is categorized as a parasite in a true sense?

1.	Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
2.	Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
3.	The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in a crow's nest
4.	The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

44.

A true-breeding plant is:

1.	one that is able to breed on its own
2.	produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants
3.	near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind
4.	always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

45.

The detritus food chain:

I:	begins with dead organic matter
II:	is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

46. During the formation of the embryo sac in angiosperms, cell walls are laid:

1.	from the first nuclear division
2.	between the 2-nucleate and 4-nucleate stage
3.	before the 8-nucleate stage
4.	after the 8-nucleate stage

47. The first amino acid in the primary structure of a protein is termed as:
1. C – terminus amino acid
2. N – terminus amino acid
3. An imino acid
4. Alpha amino acid

48.

Cymose inflorescence is present in:
1. Solanum
2. Sesbania
3. Trifolium
4. Brassica

49.

Casparian strips are:

1.	waxy deposition of suberin on only the tangential walls of the endodermal cells
2.	waxy deposition of suberin on only the radial walls of the endodermal cells
3.	waxy deposition of suberin on both tangential and radial walls of the endodermal cells
4.	waxy deposition of lignin on both tangential and radial walls of the endodermal cells

50.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding nucleolus:

1.	Their content is continuous with nucleoplasm
2.	It is site for active rRNA synthesis
3.	Their number is always one per nucleus
4.	Larger nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis

Zoology - Section A

51. Which of the following statements are NOT true for the phylum-Chordata?

(a)	In Urochordata, notochord extends from head to tail and is present throughout their life
(b)	In Cephalochordata, notochord is present only in larval tail
(c)	Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
(d)	Anus is terminal
(e)	Heart, if present, is ventral

1. Only (c) and (d)
2. Only (a) and (b)
3. Only (b) and (e)
4. Only (c) and (e)

52.

The cell junctions in animal tissues that perform the function of cementing to keep neighbouring cells together are known as:

1.	Tight junctions	2.	Adhering junctions
3.	Gap junctions	4.	Desmosomes

53.

What argument will be most potent to discard proteins as possible molecules for genetic information storage in humans?
1. They have very limited diversity
2. They are not macromolecules
3. They do not replicate
4. They are unstable biomolecules

54.

Match each item in Column I with ONLY one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	P wave	P	Ventricular repolarisation
B	QRS complex	Q	Atrial depolarisation
C	T wave	R	Atrial repolarisation
		S	Ventricular depolarisation

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	S	R
3.	Q	R	S
4.	Q	S	P

55. Identify A-F in the figure showing the representative evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological periods:

	A	B	C	D	E	F
1.	Thecodonts	Sauropsids	Therapsids	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Dinosaurs
2.	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Sauropsids	Dinosaurs	Therapsids	Thecodonts
3.	Sauropsids	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Thecodonts	Therapsids	Dinosaurs
4.	Therapsids	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Dinosaurs	Sauropsids	Thecodonts

56.

The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are:

1.	Homologous structures, represent divergent evolution
2.	Analogous structures, represent convergent evolution
3.	Phylogenetic structures, represent divergent evolution
4.	Homologous structures, represent convergent evolution

57. All the following cells are expected to be haploid except:
1. first polar body
2. spermatid
3. secondary polar body
4. primary oocyte

58.

The major mode of transport of carbon dioxide in human body is:

1.	in combination with hemoglobin
2.	in dissolved state in plasma
3.	as carboxyhemoglobin
4.	as bicarbonate

59. The human skull is composed of two sets of bones – cranial and facial, that count to:
1. 8 bones
2. 14 bones
3. 22 bones
4. 29 bones

60.

At puberty:

1.	about 30,000-40,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary
2.	about 30,000-40,000 primary follicles are left in both ovaries
3.	about 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary
4.	about 1,00,000 primary follicles are left in both ovaries

61. What organelles present in animal cells are absent in almost all plant cells?
1. Plastids
2. A large central vacuole
3. Ribosomes
4. Centrioles

62. Which of the following is an example of mutualism?
1. Cuckoo laying eggs in nest of a crow
2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
3. Sea Anemone and Clownﬁsh
4. Female wasp and ﬁg species

63.

ART in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum is known as:

1.	ZIFT	2.	GIFT
3.	SUZI	4.	ICSI

64. The functions of hormones of Fight or Flight do not include:

1.	pupillary dilation
2.	piloerection
3.	increase in the strength of heart contraction
4.	storage of glucose into glycogen resulting in a decreased concentration of glucose in the blood

65. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Dodo	P	Australia
B	Thylacine	Q	Mauritius
C	Quagga	R	Russia
D	Stellar’s sea cow	S	Africa

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	S	R
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	Q	P	R	S
4.	P	Q	R	S

66. In a resting axonal membrane:

1.	The outer surface possesses a positive charge while its inner surface becomes negatively charged.
2.	The outer surface possesses a negative charge while its inner surface becomes positively charged.
3.	Both the outer and the inner surface are positively charged.
4.	Both the outer and the inner surface are negatively charged.

67.

Malignant tertian malaria is caused by Plasmodium:

1.	vivax	2.	ovale
3.	falciparum	4.	malariae

68. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Ramapithecus was more man-like.
Statement II:	Dryopithecus was more ape-like.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

69.

A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is:

1.	15	2.	05
3.	zero	4.	10

70.

Match the items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct option given below:

	Column-I		Column-II
a.	Glycosuria	i.	Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b.	Gout	ii.	Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney
c.	Renal calculi	iii.	Inflammation in glomeruli
d.	Glomerulonephritis	iv.	Presence of glucose in urine

Options:

	a	b	c	d
1.	iii	ii	iv	i
2.	i	ii	iii	iv
3.	ii	iii	i	iv
4.	iv	i	ii	iii

71. Unicellular organisms are capable of:

I:	independent existence
II:	performing the essential functions of life

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

72. Which of the following organism is not uricotelic?
1. Land snails
2. Reptiles
3. Insects
4. Aquatic amphibians

73. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Mechanism of sex determination]		Column II [Example]
A	Haplo-diploidy	P	Birds
B	XX-XO male heterogamety	Q	Humans
C	XX-XY male heterogamety	R	Grasshoppers
D	ZZ-ZW female heterogamety	S	Honey bees

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	R	Q	P
2.	S	R	P	Q
3.	R	S	Q	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

74. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Gliding joint	P	Base of thumb
B	Saddle joint	Q	Between atlas and axis
C	Pivot joint	R	Suture in skull
D	Fibrous joint	S	Between carpal bones

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

75. Darwin Finches are an excellent example of:
1. Adaptive radiation
2. Sewall Wright effect
3. Saltation
4. Stabilising natural selection

76. Identify whether the given statements are true [T] or false [F] regarding frog:

I:	Bile emulsifies fat.
II:	Pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.
III:	Digested food is absorbed by the numerous finger-like folds in the inner wall of intestine called villi and microvilli.
IV:	The undigested solid waste moves into the rectum and passes out through cloaca.

	I	II	III	IV
1.	T	T	F	T
2.	F	T	T	F
3.	T	T	T	T
4.	T	F	F	T

77. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Blood type]		Column II [Can receive blood from]
A	A	P	A and O
B	B	Q	Only O
C	AB	R	A, B, AB and O
D	O	S	B and O

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	P	Q	R
2.	P	S	R	Q
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	S	P	R	Q

78. In 1953, S.L. Miller created conditions similar to those suggested by Oparin and Haldane in a laboratory where he created electric discharge in a closed flask containing:

1.	CH₄, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C
2.	CH₄, H₂, HCN and hydrogen sulphide at 400°C
3.	CO₂, H₂, NH₃ and water vapour at 800°C
4.	CO₂, H₂, HCN and hydrogen sulphide at 400°C

79.

Large holes in Swiss cheese are the result of fermentation by:
1. Streptococcus salivarius
2. Propionibacterium shermanii
3. Lactobacillus helveticus
4. Lactobacillus delbrueckii

80.

What is the figure given below showing in particular?

1.	Ovarian cancer	2.	Uterine cancer
3.	Tubectomy	4.	Vasectomy

81. The sobriquet "Lungs of the planet Earth” is used for:

1.	Western Ghats in India	2.	Alpine tundra
3.	Amazon rainforest	4.	Khasi and Jaintia Hills

82.

The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is:

1.	escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
2.	providing more space for a large epididymis
3.	providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
4.	maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

83.

Assertion (A):	AIDS patients suffer from infections that could have been otherwise easily overcome by a non-infected person.
Reason (R):	HIV is a virus that targets T cells of the immune system and, as a result, HIV infection can lead to progressively worsening immunodeficiency, a condition ideal for the development of such infections.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

84. Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason (R):	Juxta medullary nephrons have short-loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False, (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4.	(A) is True, (R) is False.

85. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	An increase in pulmonary volume will cause inspiration.
Reason (R):	An increase in pulmonary volume increases the intra-pulmonary pressure to more than the atmospheric pressure.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

Zoology - Section B

86. Lac operon is basically:
1. a negative inducible operon
2. a positive inducible operon
3. a negative repressible operon
4. a positive repressible operon

87.

Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

1.	HIV is an enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase
2.	HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
3.	HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus
4.	HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

88. The type of epithelium shown in the given figure is not found in the lining of:

1. Blood capillaries
2. Loop of Henle
3. Fallopian tubes
4. Alveoli

89.

Homoiothermy and a four chambered muscular heart is seen in:

I:	Mammals
II:	Crocodiles
III:	Birds

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

90. Match the pulmonary volume/capacity given in Column-I with the corresponding description in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Expiratory reserve volume	P.	Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration.
B.	Inspiratory reserve volume	Q.	Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.
C.	Residual volume	R.	Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration.
D.	Functional residual capacity	S.	Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration.

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	P	Q	S	R
3.	Q	P	R	S
4.	Q	P	S	R

91. Working independently, who reached conclusions similar to those reached by Darwin on evolution of life forms?

1.	T R Malthus	2.	Hugo de Vries
3.	Alfred Russell Wallace	4.	Jean Baptist Lamarck

92.

Plasmid pUC18 carries lacZ gene that confers the host cells to convert white X-gal into blue indole. A gene is inserted within the lacZ gene of the plasmid. Bacterial cells transformed with this rDNA, if provided with X-gal in the medium, will produce:

1.	Blue colonies
2.	White colonies
3.	No colonies
4.	Orange colonies if seen through UV light

93.

Addison’s disease is caused by:
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperadrenalism
4. Hypoadrenalism

94.

The number of correct statements in the given statements is:

I:	Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells and Sertoli cells.
II:	Sertoli cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
III:	Leydig cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
IV:	The testis is covered by a dense covering.
V:	Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

95.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Cancer is essentially a genetic disease caused by multiple mutational events.
II:	Cancerous cells are rapidly dividing cells that exhibit contact inhibition.
III:	Metstatsis is the most feared complication of any cancer.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

96.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Myaesthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction.
II:	Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder.
III:	Tetany is rapid spasms in muscle due to high Ca++ in body fluid.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

97. How many of the given statements regarding Mendelian disorders are correct?

I:	Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene.
II:	Sex-linked recessive disorders are common in the males of the species than in the females.
III:	If a female whose father was colour blind marries a normal male, none of her sons are expected to be affected by the disorder.
IV:	Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism and also an example of pleiotropy.
V:	For a female to be affected with haemophilia, her father must have haemophilia and her mother at least be a carrier for the condition.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

98. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory structures in Aschelminthes.
Statement II:	Reptiles, birds, land snails, and insects are uricotelic animals.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

99.

Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because:

1.	Bacterial cells can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
2.	The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3.	The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4.	The genetic code is universal

100.

In the given diagram, what would be the value of osmolality of fluid at points A and B respectively?

1.	1000 and 1000	2.	1200 and 1000
3.	1000 and 1200	4.	1200 and 1200

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