Biology Prodigy Test #10 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to:

1.	megasporangium	2.	megasporophyll
3.	megaspore mother cell	4.	megaspore

2.

The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join:

1.	One nucleoside with another nucleoside
2.	One nucleotide with another nucleotide
3.	One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
4.	One DNA strand with the other DNA strand

3.

Moss peat is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because:
1. it is easily available
2. it is hygroscopic
3. it reduces transpiration
4. it serves as a disinfectant

4.

The difference in gram ⊕ and gram $Θ$ bacteria is due to:

1.	Cell wall	2.	Cell membrane
3.	Ribosome	4.	Cytoplasm

5.

The NADP reductase enzyme is located:

1.	within the thylakoid membrane
2.	on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane
3.	on the lumen side of the thylakoid membrane
4.	in the thylakoid lumen

6. All the following are floral characters of members of family Solanaceae except:
1. Zygomorphic flower
2. Valvate aestivation
3. Epipetalous stamens
4. Endospermous seeds

7.

In a dorsiventral [dicotyledonous] leaf:

I:	The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis.
II:	The palisade parenchyma is adaxially placed.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

8.

Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of a false septum in:

1.	Mustard and Argemone	2.	Argemone and Dianthus
3.	Mustard and Primrose	4.	Argemone and Primrose

9.

Phloem fibers [bast fibers] are:

1.	made up of collenchyma and generally not seen in primary phloem
2.	made up of collenchyma and generally not seen in secondary phloem
3.	made up of sclerenchyma and generally not seen in primary phloem
4.	made up of sclerenchyma and generally not seen in secondary phloem

10.

Match the class of fungi in Column-I with representative examples in Column-II and select the correct option:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Phycomycetes	P.	Morels and truffles
B.	Ascomycetes	Q.	Alternaria, Trichoderma
C.	Basidiomycetes	R.	Bread mould and Albugo
D.	Deuteromycetes	S.	Smut and rust fungi

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	S	Q
2.	R	S	P	Q
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	R	P	S	Q

11.

Select the correct group of biocontrol agents:
1. Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
2. Bacillus thuringiensis. Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
3. Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Oscilatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma

12.

According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:

1.	Multiple-step mutations	2.	Saltation
3.	Phenotypic variations	4.	Minor mutations

13. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:
1. Monoecy
2. Dioecy
3. Chasmogamy
4. Cleistogamy

14.

Viruses are no more "alive" than isolated chromosomes because:

1.	They require both RNA and DNA
2.	They both need food molecules
3.	They both require oxygen for respiration
4.	Both require the environment of a cell to replicate

15.

Identify the correct fact regarding the biodiversity hot spots in the world:

1.	The current total number is 25 and 3 of these cover India
2.	The current total number is 25 and 2 of these cover India
3.	The current total number is 34 and 3 of these cover India
4.	The current total number is 34 and 2 of these cover India

16. Which of the given figures shows the aestivation of corolla as seen in Calotropis?

1.		2.
3.		4.

17. If two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome:

1.	they will assort independently
2.	the proportion of recombinants formed will be higher than the parental types
3.	the proportion of recombinants formed will be much lower than the parental types
4.	the proportion of recombinants formed will be equal to that of the parental types

18. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA.
Statement II:	There is a single RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

19. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Despite great morphological difference between eucaryotic cells and prokaryotes, they are remarkably similar metabolically.
2.	The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are made up of 50S and 30S subunits.
3.	The rough part of rough endoplasmic reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes in the process of synthesizing ER proteins.
4.	The nucleolus is where the structural RNA for the cells ribosomes is transcribed from DNA.

20. Identify the amino acid:

1.	Glycine	2.	Serine
3.	Alanine	4.	Lysine

21. Which of the following is not correct regarding differences between liverworts and mosses in general?

		Liverworts	Mosses
1.	Rhizoids	Unicellular	Multi-cellular
2.	Sporophyte	Less elaborate	More elaborate
3.	Asexual reproduction	Gemmae	Budding in secondary protonema
4.	Dominant generation	Gametophyte	Sporophyte

22. Onion root tip cells have 16 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in this cell at the end of S phase?

1.	4	2.	8
3.	16	4.	32

23. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	PGR	Chemical nature
1.	IAA	Indole compounds
2.	Kinetin	Adenine derivatives
3.	ABA	Carotenoid derivatives
4.	GA	Fatty acids

24.

What is true regarding A, B and C in the given diagrammatic representation of rDNA technology?

I:	At A, same restriction enzyme is used to cut both foreign and vector DNA
II:	The enzyme used at B is DNA ligase
III:	Step C can be called as transformation

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

25. A dikaryophase of fungus is commonly seen in the sexual reproduction of:

I:	Phycomycetes
II:	Ascomycetes
III:	Basidiomycetes

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

26. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I [Population Interaction]		Column-II [Example]
A.	Mutualism	P.	An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch
B.	Commensalism	Q.	Chthamalus and Balanus
C.	Parasitism	R.	Fig trees and wasp species
D.	Competition	S.	Cuscuta growing on hedge plants

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	Q	S
2.	R	P	S	Q
3.	P	R	S	Q
4.	P	R	Q	S

27. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Algal class]		Column II [Feature of flagella]
A	Chlorophyceae	P	2, unequal, lateral
B	Phaeophyceae	Q	Absent
C	Rhodophyceae	R	2-8, equal, apical

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	R	P	Q
2.	R	Q	P
3.	P	R	Q
4.	Q	R	P

28.

Geitonogamy is:

1.	Functionally cross–pollination but genetically autogamy
2.	Functionally autogamy but genetically cross-pollination
3.	Functionally and genetically autogamy
4.	Functionally and genetically cross-pollination

29. The taxonomic category ‘family’ in plants is identified by the following ‘suffix’:

1.	- ales	2.	- onae
3.	- aceae	4.	- ae

30.

Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
1. Alanine
2. Asparagine
3. Glycine
4. Tyrosine

31.

Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because:

1.	a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
2.	cambium is absent
3.	there are no vessels with perforations
4.	xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

32. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	C₃ plants	P	Formation of C₄ acids at night and C₃ cycle during day in same cells
B	C₄ plants	Q	Formation of C₄ acids in mesophyll cells and C₃ cycle in bundle sheath cells
C	CAM plants	R	Only Calvin cycle

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	R	P	Q
2.	R	Q	P
3.	Q	R	P
4.	Q	P	R

33. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is known as:
1. Autogamy
2. Geitonogamy
3. Cleistogamy
4. Xenogamy

34.

The coconut water from tender coconut represents?
1. fleshy mesocarp
2. free - nuclear proembryo
3. free - nuclear endosperm
4. endocarp

35.

Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:

1.	Vitamin-B	2.	Vitamin-C
3.	Omega 3	4.	Vitamin-A

Botany - Section B

36. What process in aerobic respiration generates maximum ATP?
1. substrate-level phosphorylation
2. chemiosmosis
3. Krebs cycle
4. Pyruvate decarboxylation

37. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Agar gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
Reason (R):	Restriction enzyme digestion is performed by incubating purified DNA molecules with the restriction enzymes, at the optimal conditions for that specific enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

38.

Consider three genes: X, Y, and Z. The recombination frequency between X-Y, X-Z, and Y-Z gene pairs was found to be 50%, 25%, and 50%, respectively. What would be the right inference?

1.	genes X and Y are on the same chromosome
2.	genes X and Z are on different chromosomes
3.	genes Y and Z are on different chromosomes
4.	All three genes are located on the same chromosome

39.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called as gross primary productivity of an ecosystem.
II:	The available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs is called secondary productivity.
III:	The low productivity of the oceans can mainly be attributed to the limited availability of nitrogen.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

40.

The underlying basis of the Polymerase Chain Reaction is:

1.	DNA synthesis and hence amplification can occur in a template independent manner.
2.	DNA, being thermostable, can be amplified during the thermal cycle in PCR.
3.	DNA polymerase I can synthesize large amounts of DNA.
4.	PCR allows the direct amplification of DNA even if it is present in minute quantities.

41.

The size of Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organism (PPLO) is:
1. 0.02 $μ$ m
2. 1-2 $μ$ m
3. 10-20 $μ$ m
4. 0.1 $μ$ m

42. A cell has 2 pg DNA at G₁ phase. What would be the amount of DNA in this cell at the end of anaphase I of meiosis I?
1. 2 pg
2. 4 pg
3. 6 pg
4. 8 pg

43. What would not be true for nucleic acids?

1.	They are polynucleotides.
2.	Together with polysaccharides and polypeptides, these comprise the true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell.
3.	A nucleotide has three chemically distinct components: a heterocyclic compound, a monosaccharide, and a phosphoric acid or a phosphate.
4.	The hexose sugar found in polynucleotides is either ribose or 2’deoxyribose.

44.

The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are:

1.	vessels	2.	fibres
3.	transfusion tissue	4.	tracheids

45. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds are slender and spirally coiled and help plants to climb such as in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
Statement II:	Axillary buds of stems may get modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns found in many plants such as gourds and grapevines.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

46.

Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

(a)	A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(b)	Predator starfish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(c)	Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(d)	Production of chemicals such as nicotine and strychnine by plants is metabolic disorder

The two correct statements are:
1. a and d
2. a and b
3. b and c
4. c and d

47.

All the following statements regarding enzymes are correct except:

1.	Almost all enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
2.	Almost all enzymes are substrate specific.
3.	Enzymes provide activation energy for reactions.
4.	Enzymes may be used many times for a specific reaction.

48. Which law is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending and that both the characters are recovered as such in the F₂ generation though one of these is not seen at the F₁ stage?
1. Law of blending Inheritance
2. Law of dominance
3. Law of segregation
4. Law of independent assortment

49. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the floral characters of family Liliaceae:

1.	Flower is bisexual; zygomorphic
2.	Perianth tepal six (3+3), often united into a tube; valvate aestivation
3.	Androecium: stamen six, 3+3, epitepalous
4.	Gynoecium: tri carpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, trilocular with many ovules

50.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	BOD is an indirect measure of the organic matter present in the water.
II:	The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by microorganisms in a sample of water.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	Only II is correct.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

Zoology - Section A

51. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Conserving the biological diversity of the ecological hotspots is very important component of efforts to safeguard the world’s biological heritage.
Reason (R):	The hotspots of biodiversity cover a large percentage of the land area of earth.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

52. Identify the option where all given animals belong to the same phylum:

1.	Squid, Devil fish, Flying fish, Dogfish
2.	Apple snail, Pearl oyster, Brittle star, Brain coral
3.	Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Sea horse
4.	Cuttlefish, Sea-hare, Tusk shell, Chiton

53.

The duration of inspiration can be reduced by:

1.	an increase of carbon dioxide in blood
2.	a chemical signal from aortic and carotid bodies
3.	a neural signal from pneumotaxic center
4.	an increase in hydrogen ion concentration in CSF

54.

The single ventricle in the heart of a frog:

1.	opens into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the dorsal side of the heart.
2.	opens into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the ventral side of the heart.
3.	opens into a dilated chamber sinus venosus on the ventral side of the heart.
4.	opens into a dilated chamber sinus venosus on the dorsal side of the heart.

55. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Convergent evolution	P	Eye of vertebrate and eye of mollusc
B	Divergent evolution	Q	Darwin finches
C	Industrial melanism	R	Vertebrate hearts
D	Adaptive radiation	S	Peppered moth

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	S	Q
2.	P	R	Q	S
3.	P	R	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

56.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	Not all copulations lead to fertilization and pregnancy
II:	Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the sperms are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes.

1. Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. I is incorrect but II is correct.

57. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA which include all the following except:
1. A promoter
2. An operator
3. Structural gene
4. A terminator

58.

In Amphibia:

I:	Skin is moist without scales
II:	A tympanum represents the ear
III:	Fertilization is external

1.	Only I and II are correct	2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct	4.	I, II, and III are correct

59.

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer: 120 g
Primary consumer: 60 g
Primary producer: 10 g
1. Inverted pyramid of biomass
2. Pyramid of energy
3. Upright pyramid of numbers
4. Upright pyramid of biomass

60.

During relaxation of a skeletal muscle:

1.	Calcium ions that are bound to troponin C now bind to troponin A
2.	Cross bridge formation between myosin head and actin takes place
3.	The A band of the sarcomere lengthens
4.	Calcium ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae

61. Which of the following events is usually not seen in a standard ECG?
1. Depolarisation of atria
2. Depolarisation of ventricles
3. Repolarisation of ventricles
4. Repolarisation of atria

62.

At the birth of the female child, the follicles in her ovaries contain:

1.	Primary oocytes that have been arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
2.	Primary oocytes that have been arrested at prophase I of meiosis I
3.	Secondary oocytes that have been arrested prophase I of meiosis I
4.	Secondary oocytes that have been arrested at metaphase II of meiosis II

63. Second messengers, employed in the action on target cells in case of some hormones, include all the following except:
1. cAMP
2. Calcium
3. IP₃
4. Catabolite Activator Protein

64.

Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable.
Statement II:	DNA being double stranded and having complementary strands further resists changes by evolving a process of repair.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

65.

Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Filariasis	(i)	Haemophilus influenzae
(b)	Amoebiasis	(ii)	Trichophyton
(c)	Pneumonia	(iii)	Wuchereria bancrofti
(d)	Ringworm	(iv)	Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

66. When compared to the initial filtrate formed, human kidneys can produce urine nearly:
1. 2 times concentrated
2. 4 times concentrated
3. 8 times concentrated
4. 10 times concentrated

67. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	T H Morgan	P.	Linkage
B.	Sturtevant	Q.	Rediscovery of Mendel laws
C.	De Vries, Correns and Tschermak	R.	Cell free system for deciphering genetic code
D.	Marshall Nirenberg	S.	Mapping the position of genes on chromosomes

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	P	S	R	Q
3.	S	P	Q	R
4.	S	P	R	Q

68.

The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs is to

1.	inhibit gametogenesis
2.	make uterus unsuitable for implantation
3.	inhibit ovulation
4.	suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms

69. The Earth Summit was held in:

1.	Montreal, 1987	2.	Kyoto, 1997
3.	Rio de Janeiro, 1992	4.	Johannesburg, 2002

70.

Analogous organs arise due to:

1.	divergent evolution	2.	artificial selection
3.	genetic drift	4.	convergent evolution

71.

As the distance from Z line to Z line decreases, which bands shorten in a sarcomere?

1.	the I band and H band	2.	the I band and A band
3.	the A band and H band	4.	all bands shorten

72. Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism comes under:
1. Bioprocess engineering
2. Genetic engineering
3. Bioinformatics
4. Biomedical technology

73.

The Golgi complex plays a major role:

1.	in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
2.	as energy transferring organelles
3.	in post-translational modification of proteins and glycosylation of lipids
4.	in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

74. The electrical event represented by P wave in an ECG leads to:

1.	the contraction of both the atria
2.	the contraction of both the ventricles
3.	the relaxation of both the atria
4.	the relaxation of both the ventricles

75. Consider the given two statements regarding frogs:

Statement I:	In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration).
Statement II:	On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

76.

Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

	Microbe	Product	Application
1.	Monascus purpureus	Statins	Lowering of blood cholesterol
2.	Streptococcus	Streptokinase	Removal of clot from blood vessel
3.	Clostridium butylicum	Lipase	Removal of oil stains
4.	Trichoderma polysporum	Cyclosporin-A	Immunosuppressive

77. Histones are:
1. positively charged basic proteins
2. negatively charged basic proteins
3. positively charged acidic proteins
4. negatively charged acidic proteins

78.

Emergency contraceptive methods must be employed within:

1.	72 hours of ovulation
2.	72 hours of the onset of menstrual flow
3.	72 hours of unprotected coitus
4.	72 hours of cessation of menstrual flow

79.

The first form of milk produced by the mammary glands of humans immediately following delivery of the newborn is rich in:
1. IgA antibodies
2. IgG antibodies
3. IgM antibodies
4. IgE antibodies

80.

During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in:

1.	S phase	2.	G₁phase
3.	G₂ phase	4.	M phase

81. What percent of the human DNA actually codes for proteins?
1. Less than 2%
2. Around 20%
3. Between 35% and 40%
4. More than 98%

82.

Widal test is used for the diagnosis of:
1. malaria
2. pneumonia
3. tuberculosis
4. typhoid

83. Osteoporosis is a type of disorder which leads to:

1.	Inﬂammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
2.	Weakening of bones due to decreased bone mass
3.	Inﬂammation of joints due to cartilage degeneration
4.	Weakening of bones due to low calcium level

84.

A pleiotropic gene:

1.	Is expressed only in primitive plants
2.	Is a gene that evolved during Pliocene
3.	Controls a trait only in combination with another gene
4.	Controls multiple traits in an individual

85. The parts of the human brain that help in the regulation of sexual behavior, expression of excitement, pleasure, rage, fear, etc. are:
1. Corpus callosum and thalamus
2. Limbic system & hypothalamus
3. Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
4. Brain stem & epithalamus

Zoology - Section B

86. If the adenohypophysis fails to stop producing growth hormone (GH) after body growth is completed, the person may suffer from:
1. Cretinism
2. Dwarfism
3. Acromegaly
4. Gigantism

87.

Consider the following diagram showing the working of the lac operon in E.coli in the presence of an inducer and choose the correct statement from the ones given below:

1.	A is the inducer and can be either lactose or cAMP.
2.	B is the enzyme that will metabolize glucose, the preferred energy source.
3.	Some amount of C will be present in the cell even if lactose is absent.
4.	The absence of D will stop lactose from entering the cell.

88.

Anal styles are borne on the:

1.	9th segment only in female cockroach
2.	9th segment only in male cockroach
3.	10th segment only in female cockroach
4.	10th segment only in male cockroach

89. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

1.	Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
2.	Mutations inactivate the cell control
3.	Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
4.	Mutations inhibit production of telomerase

90.

In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as:

1.	Adaptive Radiation	2.	Divergent Evolution
3.	Cyclical Evolution	4.	Convergent Evolution

91.

Pneumotaxic center:

1.	moderates the function of the rhythm center
2.	establishes the respiratory rhythm
3.	is located in medulla oblongata
4.	reduces the duration of expiration and thereby alters the respiratory rate

92.

The number of correct statements regarding hemichordates from the given is:

I:	A stomochord is present in the collar region
II:	Circulation is of open type
III:	Excretory organ is proboscis gland
IV:	Development is indirect

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

93.

Nowadays, it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing the radioactive probe to hybridise its complementary DNA in clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:

1.	mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it.
2.	mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it.
3.	mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
4.	mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.

94. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec. This delay allows:
1. blood to enter aorta.
2. the ventricles to empty completely.
3. blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
4. the atria to empty completely.

95. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	Juxtamedullary nephrons are key adaptation for water conservation in mammals.
Reason (R):	Juxtamedullary nephrons constitute about 85% of all nephrons in the mammalian kidney.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

96.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Acetylcholine is released at the electrical synapse.
II:	Electrical synapses are faster.
III:	It is more difficult to regulate an electrical synapse with respect to a chemical synapse.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

97.

The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is:

1.	tropomyosin	2.	myosin
3.	α-actinin	4.	troponin

98. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through the rete testis.
2.	The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into the epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis.
3.	The epididymis leads to the vas deferens that ascend to the abdomen and loop over the urinary bladder.
4.	The epididymis receives a duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into the urethra as the ejaculatory duct.

99.

Consider the given statements:

I:	The crop in the alimentary canal of cockroach is also known as proventriculus, has six highly chitinous plates called teeth and helps in grinding food particles.
II:	The gizzard is sac-like structure used for storing food in cockroach.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

100. Sex determination is based on the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives in:

1.	Honeybees	2.	Grasshoppers
3.	Fruit fly	4.	Birds

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