Biology Prodigy Test #9 (Full Syllabus)

Botany - Section A

1.

Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

1.	ATP	2.	NADH
3.	NADPH	4.	Oxygen

2. What would be the number hybrid density DNA molecules, if Meselson and Stahl's experiment was continued for 60 minutes?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8

3.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

1.	The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
2.	Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.
3.	Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
4.	Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.

4.

If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?

1.	Types of pigments present in the cell
2.	Nature of stored food materials in the cell
3.	Structural organisation of thallus
4.	Chemical compositions of the cell wall

5.

Which arrangement is in correct ascending order?

1.	Species < genus < order < family
2.	Genus < species < family < order
3.	Order < family < genus < species
4.	Species < genus < family < order

6. Vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts belong to the family:

1.	Gramineae	2.	Malvaceae
3.	Cruciferae	4.	Leguminosae

7.

Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:
1. Both sieve tubes and companion cells
2. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
3. Sieve tubes only
4. Companion cells only

8. Which of the following shows opposite phyllotaxy?

1.	Mustard	2.	China rose
3.	Alstonia	4.	Calotropis

9.

Select the wrong statement:

1.	The viroids were discovered by D.J lvanovsky.
2.	W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized.
3.	The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was coined by MW Beijerinck.
4.	Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human beings are caused by viruses.

10. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedures requires a vector.
Reason (R):	The vectors provide the origin of replication.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

11.

‘Toddy’, a traditional drink of some parts in southern India, is made by fermenting sap from:

1.	Soyabean	2.	Bamboo shoots
3.	Palms	4.	Sugarcane

12. Regarding double fertilization in angiosperms:

I:	syngamy requires one male gamete and one egg cell
II:	triple fusion requires one male gamete, one egg cell and one polar nucleus

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

13.

Consider three sample areas with the following composition:

Sample area I:	has three species of birds, two are represented by one individual each and the third by four individuals
Sample area II:	has three species of birds, each represented by two individuals
Sample area III:	has a species of insects, a species of mammals and a species of birds, each with two individuals

Which area will be considered as the most diverse?
1. Sample area I
2. Sample area II
3. Sample area III
4. Sample area II and Sample area III are equally diverse

14.

Viroids differ from viruses in having;

1.	DNA molecules without protein coat
2.	RNA molecules with protein coat
3.	RNA molecules without protein coat
4.	DNA molecules with protein coat

15. Which of the following are correct regarding decomposition of wastes?

(a)	Low temperature inhibits decomposition
(b)	Warm and moist environment favours the process
(c)	The process is anaerobic
(d)	It is slower if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars
(e)	Detritus is degraded into simpler inorganic substance by fungal and bacterial enzymes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (b) and (c) only
2. (c) (a) and (d) only
3. (c) and (d) only
4. (a) (b) and (e) only

16. The floral diagram describes the members of angiosperms belonging to the family:

1.	Brassicaceae	2.	Fabaceae
3.	Liliaceae	4.	Solanaceae

17.

Which of the following structures performs the function of mitochondria in a bacteria?

1.	Nucleoid	2.	Ribosomes
3.	Cell wall	4.	Mesosomes

18.

Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon:

(a)	Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(b)	In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
(c)	The z-gene codes for permease.
(d)	It was explained by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.

The correct statements are:
1. (b) and (c)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (d)
4. (a) and (b)

19.

The given compound:

1.	is a storage product in archaea
2.	is the source of energy in fungi
3.	is present in the cell walls of gram negative bacteria
4.	is a structural component of plasma membrane

20.

Match the following Column-I with Column-II.

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes	(i)	Anaphase II
B.	Synthesis of RNA and protein	(ii)	Zygotene
C.	Action of enzyme recombinase	(iii)	G₂ - phase
D.	Centromeres do not separate, but chromosomes move towards opposite poles	(iv)	Anaphase I
		(v)	Pachytene

1.	A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)	2.	A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(iv)
3.	A-(i), B-(ii), C-(v), D-(iv)	4.	A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(v)

21.

Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to Gibberellins?
1. Ethylene
2. ABA
3. IAA
4. Zeatin

22.

Match the following techniques or instruments with their usage:

(a)	Bioreactor	(i)	Separation of DNA fragments
(b)	Electrophoresis	(ii)	Production of large quantities of products
(c)	PCR	(iii)	Detection of pathogen, based on antigen-antibody reaction
(d)	ELISA	(iv)	Amplification of nucleic acids

Select the correct option from the following:

1.	(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3.	(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

23. Identify the correct statement regarding Euglenoids:

1.	Majority of them are marine water organisms found in running water.
2.	The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
3.	They have only one flagellum.
4.	Though they are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, when deprived of sunlight they behave like heterotrophs.

24.

Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the?

1.	connective	2.	placenta
3.	thalamus or petal	4.	anther

25. Thallus level of organisation, rhizoids, dominant gametophyte and dependence on water to complete its life are the characteristics seen in:

1.	Pteridophytes	2.	Gymnosperms
3.	Angiosperms	4.	Bryophytes

26. In Whittaker’s five Kingdom classification, organisms with eukaryotic cell type and cellular body organisation are kept under:

1.	Kingdom Monera	2.	Kingdom Protista
3.	Kingdom Fungi	4.	Kingdom Plantae

27. Identify the simple tissue of plants shown in the given figure:

1.	Parenchyma	2.	Collenchyma
3.	Sclereids	4.	Sclerenchyma fibres

28.

Which of the following represents maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
1. Lichens
2. Fungi
3. Mosses and Ferns
4. Algae

29.

In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have:

1.	thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
2.	thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
3.	thick walls, no intercellular spaces and a large number of chloroplasts
4.	thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts

30. In angiosperms, the only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:
1. Chasmogamy
2. Cleistogamy
3. Xenogamy
4. Geitonogamy

31.

Fruit juices can be clarified with the use of:

1.	Lipases	2.	Papain
3.	Pectinase and protease	4.	Glucoamylase

32. Study the given figure and select the correct statements:

I:	In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled stage.
II:	In 40 per cent of angiosperms, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-celled stage).

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

33. The best explant for regenerating virus free plantlets would be:

1.	Embryo	2.	Meristem
3.	Anther	4.	Endosperm

34.

Chargaff's rule states that in an organism:

1.	The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to that of cytosine (C).
2.	The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of cytosine (C).
3.	The amount of adenine (A) is equal to that of cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to that of guanine (G).
4.	Amounts of all bases are equal.

35. What features shown in the given figure can be used to justify that the floral diagram belongs to members of Brassicaceae?

I:	The flower is four petaled.
II:	The flower has six stamens, two outer and four inner.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Botany - Section B

36. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In aerobic cellular respiration, the complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in the cytoplasm.
Statement II:	The apparatus for passing electrons to molecular oxygen with simultaneous synthesis of ATP is located in the inter-membrane space

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

37.

DNA is structurally and chemically more stable than RNA because of the following except:

1.	It has thymine instead of uracil
2.	2’ –OH is absent in DNA
3.	It replicates itself based on complementary base pairing
4.	It does not have any catalytic role

38. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The axoneme of cilia and flagella usually has nine triplets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules, and a centrally located proteinaceous hub.
Statement II:	Each of the peripheral fibrils in a centriole is a doublet and the centriole also has a pair of centrally located microtubules.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

39. Which family is regarded as the most advanced & highly evolved and is considered to occupy the highest position in the plant kingdom?

1.	Compositae	2.	Gramineae
3.	Cruciferae	4.	Orchidaceae

40.

Bioprocessing engineering deals with:

1.	the search for plant and animal species from which medicinal drugs and other commercially valuable compounds can be obtained.
2.	developing methods and software tools for understanding biological data.
3.	production of active pharmaceutical substances in genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
4.	maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes.

41.

Populations at genetic equilibrium [Hardy Weinberg equilibrium]:

1.	are very small
2.	are not experiencing any natural selection
3.	have individuals frequently going out and coming in
4.	are mating randomly

42.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	In most ecosystems, all the ecological pyramids are largely upright.
II:	Pyramid of energy can be a notable exception to the above rule.

1. Both I and II are correct.
2. Both I and II are incorrect.
3. Only II is correct.
4. Only I is correct.

43. In a plant, the protoxylem lies next to the phloem. This arrangement of xylem will be called:

1.	Stelar	2.	Extrastelar
3.	Endarch	4.	Exarch

44.

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation in prokaryotes is a part of:

1.	the larger subunit of the bacterial ribosome
2.	the smaller subunit of the bacterial ribosome
3.	the 5’ UTR of the mRNA
4.	the 3’ UTR of the mRNA

45. Identify the incorrect statement/s:

Statement I:	Stamens are epipetalous in the flowers of lily.
Statement II:	Diadelphous stamen are seen in citrus.
Statement III:	A sterile stamen is called as staminate.

1. Only Statement I and Statement II
2. Only Statement III
3. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III
4. Only Statement I and Statement III

46.

A phosphoglyceride is always made up of:

1.	only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
2.	a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
3.	a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
4.	only a saturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.

47. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In every species, there are trade- offs between survival and reproductive traits.
Reason (R):	Natural selection favors traits that improve an organism’s chances of survival and reproductive success.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

48.

The physiological basis of pleiotropy is:

1.	lack of independent assortment in linked genes
2.	separation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase I in meiosis I
3.	dominance is not an autonomous feature of an allele
4.	inter-relationships of many metabolic pathways in the living organisms

49.

An organism used as a bio-fertilizer for raising soybean crop is:

1.	Azospirillum	2.	Rhizobium
3.	Nostoc	4.	Azotobacter

50.

What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?

1.	Pollination occurs in submerged conditions by water.
2.	Flowers emerge above the surface of water and pollination occurs by insects.
3.	Flowers emerge above the water surface and pollen is carried by the wind.
4.	Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at the surface of the water.

Zoology - Section A

51. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In the first phase of translation, it is important that the charging of tRNA in the presence of ATP takes place.
Reason (R):	The formation of a peptide bond requires energy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

52.

Regarding birds, the number of correct statements from the statements given will be:

I:	The forelimbs are modified into wings.
II:	Flightless birds do not have feathers.
III:	Skin is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail.
IV:	Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic).
V:	The hind limbs generally have scales.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

53.

Consider the following statements:

I:	People affected by phenylketonuria are unable to convert tyrosine to phenylalanine.
II:	Alzheimer’s disease results from the accumulation of amyloid protein plaques in the brain.
III:	Klinefelter’s and Turner’s syndromes are the result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes in either of the sexes.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

54.

The efficiency of a respiratory system is enhanced by all the following except:

1.	increasing the surface area available for diffusion of gases
2.	decreasing the distance over which the gases must diffuse
3.	increasing the concentration differences of gases inside and outside the system
4.	drying the system out so the gases do not have to diffuse through water

55. How many of the given statements are true?

I:	More than 70 percent of all the species recorded are animals.
II:	Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group.
III:	The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

56. The biological relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of mammals is an argument in favour of evolution. What will be true for the forelimbs of the different mammals shown below?

Statement I:	They evolved in a similar environment, rather than inherited from a recent common ancestor.
Statement II:	They have a common descent and have evolved from a shared ancestor.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

57. A pair of oviducts arising from the ovaries in female frogs:

1.	join to form a single median duct that opens into the cloaca.
2.	opens into the cloaca separately.
3.	opens separately to the exterior through the skin.
4.	join to form a single median duct that opens into Bidder’s canal.

58. The primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation during the:

1.	menstrual phase of the menstrual cycle
2.	follicular phase of the menstrual cycle
3.	ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle
4.	luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

59. Chondrichthyes:

1.	are marine animals and have cartilaginous endoskeleton
2.	have a mouth located dorsally
3.	have teeth that are modified cycloid or ctenoid scales directed backwardly
4.	have the capacity to regulate their body temperature

60.

Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as:

1.	Adaptive radiation	2.	Natural selection
3.	Migration	4.	Divergent evolution

61.

Which one of the following conditions in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage?

1.	Klinefelter's syndrome-44 autosomes + XXY
2.	Colourblindness – Y-linked
3.	Erythroblastosis foetalis-- X-linked
4.	Down syndrome--44 autosomes + XO

62. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Myasthenia gravis	An auto-immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
2.	Muscular dystrophy	Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to a genetic disorder.
3.	Tetany	Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to high Ca²⁺ in body fluid.
4.	Gout	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.

63.

In a field experiment, when all Pisaster starfish were removed from an enclosed intertidal area, the result was:

1.	Increase in diversity of invertebrates
2.	Extinction of many invertebrate species
3.	Inability of the Pisaster to enter the area again
4.	Replacement of Pisaster by other starfish

64.

The second heart sound [dub] is associated with simultaneous closure of:

1.	Right AV and pulmonary semilunar valve
2.	Left AV and aortic semilunar valve
3.	Right and left AV valves
4.	Right and left semilunar valves

65. Essential for the maintenance of the endometrium, what hormone is secreted in large amounts by the corpus luteum in a non-pregnant female?
1. hCG
2. Progesterone
3. Estrogen
4. LH

66.

The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for:

1.	detecting sex of the unborn foetus
2.	artificial insemination
3.	transfer of the embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
4.	detecting any genetic abnormality

67.

Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom:

	Endocrine gland	Hormone	Function/deficiency symptom
(A)	Posterior Pituitary	Growth Hormone (GH)	Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth
(B)	Thyroid gland	Thyroxine	Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
(C)	Corpus luteum	Testosterone	Stimulates spermatogenesis
(D)	Anterior pituitary	Oxytocin	Stimulates uterus contraction during childbirth

1. (A)
2. (B)
3. (C)
4. (D)

68. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Enzyme class]		Column II [Reaction catalysed]
A	Lyases	P	Enzymes catalysing the hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide, glycosidic, C-C, C-halide or P-N bonds.
B	Ligases	Q	Enzymes catalysing the linking together of 2 compounds, e.g., enzymes which catalyze the joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O, etc. bonds.
C	Hydrolases	R	Enzymes that catalyze the removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	Q	P	R
2.	P	Q	R
3.	R	Q	P
4.	R	P	Q

69. The glomerular ultrafiltrate will contain:
1. water, nitrogenous wastes, nutrients, and salts
2. blood cells, platelets and proteins
3. albumin, fats and other proteins
4. mainly blood cells

70. Which of the following acts as a ribozyme for peptide bond formation in bacteria?
1. 5s rRNA
2. 23s rRNA
3. 16s rRNA
4. 5.1s rRNA

71.

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish between self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self–cells, then it leads to:
1. graft rejection
2. auto-immune disease
3. active immunity
4. allergic response

72.

The number of autosomes in a human egg would be:

1.	22	2.	23
3.	1	4.	2

73. Identify the correct statement:

1.	Both Hugo de Vries and Darwin believed that it was mutation that caused evolution.
2.	Both Hugo de Vries and Darwin believed that it was minor variations that caused evolution, not mutation.
3.	Mutations are small and directional, while Darwinian variations are random and directionless.
4.	Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de Vries believed mutation caused speciation and hence called it saltation (single-step large mutation).

74.

How does the bacterium protects its own DNA from the action of restriction endonucleases present in its cytoplasm?

1.	its DNA lacks active sites for the restriction endonucleases
2.	its DNA is protected within a nuclear envelope
3.	it adds methyl groups to the active sites of restriction endonucleases on its DNA
4.	the DNA gets heterochromatised to prevent the action of restriction enzymes

75.

Which of the following diseases is an auto-immune disorder?

1.	Myasthenia gravis	2.	Arthritis
3.	Osteoporosis	4.	Gout

76. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	Frogs help maintain ecological balance.
Reason (R):	Frogs serve as an important link in the food chain and food web in the ecosystem.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true, but (R)) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

77.

Which of the following statements would not be applicable to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in a eukaryotic cell?

1.	Frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion
2.	Bear ribosomes on their surface
3.	Continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus
4.	Sites of synthesis of steroidal hormones

78. A person with type O blood group can receive blood from a person with:

1.	type A and type B blood group
2.	type A, type B and type O blood group
3.	type O blood group only
4.	type AB blood group only

79. The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA include all the following except:

1.	It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate, and the bases project inside.
2.	The two chains have anti-parallel polarity.
3.	The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds (H-bonds) forming base pairs (bp).
4.	The two chains are coiled in a left-handed fashion.

80.

In ZIFT:

1.	zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) are transferred into the fallopian tube
2.	embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus
3.	ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of the recipient
4.	semen is artificially deposited in the uterus

81. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	PCR	P	E.coli plasmid
B	ELISA	Q	DNA amplification
C	Human insulin	R	Retrovirus
D	Gene therapy	S	Antigen-antibody interaction

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	S	R	P
2.	Q	S	P	R
3.	S	Q	P	R
4.	S	Q	R	P

82. Malignant malaria is caused by:
1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium ovale
3. Plasmodium falciparum
4. Plasmodium malariae

83.

Consider the following key events:

I:	Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
II:	Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.

The stage of mitosis characterized by these key events is:

1.	Prophase	2.	Metaphase
3.	Anaphase	4.	Telophase

84. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Radula	P.	Osteichthyes
B.	Operculum	Q.	Molluska
C.	Flame cell	R.	Flat worms
D.	Hair	S.	Mammalia

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	R	Q	S	P

85.

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

	Column-I		Column-II
(i)	Typhoid	(a)	Haemophilus influenzae
(ii)	Malaria	(b)	Wuchereria bancrofti
(iii)	Pneumonia	(c)	Plasmodium vivax
(iv)	Filariasis	(d)	Salmonella typhi

Options:	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1.	(d)	(c)	(a)	(b)
2.	(c)	(d)	(b)	(a)
3.	(a)	(c)	(b)	(d)
4.	(a)	(b)	(d)	(c)

Zoology - Section B

86.

Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones?

1.	Posterior pituitary lobe
2.	Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
3.	Hypothalamus
4.	Anterior pituitary lobe

87.

Assertion(A):	If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA with bacteriophage DNA, we can multiply its numbers much higher than the copy number of the bacteriophage.
Reason (R):	Bacteriophages, because of their high number per cell, have very high copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cells.

1.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is false and (R) is true.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

88. The mode of inheritance of the trait [shown by solid symbols] in the given pedigree is most likely:

1.	Autosomal recessive	2.	Autosomal dominant
3.	Sex linked recessive	4.	Sex linked dominant

89.

Sinus venosus in the heart of a frog:

I:	joins the left atrium
II:	pumps blood into the major arteries

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

90.

Assertion (A):	Cocaine has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy.
Reason (R):	Cocaine blocks the dopamine transporter, inhibiting reuptake of dopamine from the synaptic cleft into the pre-synaptic axon terminal.

1.	(A) is true but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

91.

Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because?

1.	there is a negative pressure in the lungs
2.	there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
3.	there is a positive intrapleural pressure
4.	pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

92. The number of correct statements from the given statements, regarding the members of Class Cyclostomata, is:

(a)	All living members are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(b)	The body bears 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.
(c)	They have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
(d)	Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
(e)	Cranium and vertebral column are bony.
(f)	Circulation is of open type.

1.	3	2.	4
3.	5	4.	6

93.

In animal cells, during the S phase:

I:	DNA replication begins in the cytoplasm
II:	The centriole duplicates in the nucleus

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

94. Which of the following recording of the blood pressure in a human adult will not be considered as abnormal?
1. 120/100 mm Hg
2. 110/70 mm Hg
3. 170/80 mm Hg
4. 150/95 mm Hg

95.

Read the following four statements (A-D) and find out certain mistakes in two of them:

A:	The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie, produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
B:	Restriction enzymes are used in the isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
C:	Downstream processing is one of the steps of r-DNA technology.
D:	Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in the transfer of r-DNA into the host.

Which of the two statements has mistakes?
1. Statements (A) and (B)
2. Statements (B) and (C)
3. Statements (C) and (D)
4. Statements (A) and (C)

96. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Peripheral neural system	P.	Comprises of all nerves associated with brain and spinal cord
B.	Somatic neural system	Q.	Relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles
C.	Visceral neural system	R.	Transmits impulse from CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles
D.	Autonomic neural system	S.	Part of PNS where impulses travel from CNS to the viscera and from the viscera to the CNS

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	S	R
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

97.

A motor neuron along with all the muscle fibers innervated by it constitute a:

1.	Fascicle	2.	Motor end plate
3.	Motor unit	4.	Myoneural junction

98.

On an average, roughly what percent of cardiac output is filtered by the kidneys per minute?

1.	5	2.	10
3.	20	4.	50

99.

The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called:

1.	Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
2.	Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
3.	Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
4.	Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days

100.

Which of the following statements regarding morphology of frog is not true?

I:	Above the mouth, a pair of nostrils is present.
II:	Eyes are bulged and covered by a nictitating membrane that protects them while on land.
III:	On either side of eyes, a membranous tympanum (ear) receives sound signals.

1. Only II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I
4. None, all statements are correct

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