Full Syllabus Test # 15 (Final Dash) (New NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

About what percent of all insects is phytophagus?

1.	1 %	2.	25 %
3.	65 %	4.	99 %

2.

Identify the correctly matched pairs:

I:	Sieve cell	Food conducting element in gymnosperms
II:	Sieve-tube element	Food conducting element in angiosperms
III:	Albuminous cells	Delivery of substances to sieve-tube element
IV:	Companion cell	Delivery of substances to sieve cells

1. Only I and II
2. Only III and IV
3. Only I and III
4. Only II and IV

3. In glycolysis [EMP pathway], the number of ATP molecules directly synthesized from one glucose molecule are:
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 10

4.

Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of :
i. $(kcal m^{- 3}) {yr}^{- 1}$
ii. $g m^{- 2} {yr}^{- 1}$
iii. $g m^{- 1} {yr}^{- 1}$
iv. $(kcal m^{- 2}) {yr}^{- 1}$

1.	ii	2.	iii
3.	ii and iv	4.	i and iii

5. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is called:

1.	Stratification	2.	Scarification
3.	Standing crop	4.	Standing state

6.

The number of molecules of oxygen gas used during the glycolysis of one glucose molecule is:

1.	0	2.	1
3.	6	4.	36

7. During secondary treatment of sewage water:

I:	vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs is allowed
II:	aerobic microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent.
III:	the BOD of the water sample gets significantly increased

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I is correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

8. Consider the given two statements:
I. Cyclosporin is used as an immunosuppressant medication.
II. It activates the T lymphocytes.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is incorrect but II is correct
4. I is correct but II is incorrect

9.

Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme:

1.	Sucrase	2.	Aldolase
3.	Invertase	4.	Zymase

10.

The outer hard layer of the pollen wall is made up of:

1.	Callose, which is easily digested by enzymes
2.	Sporopollenin, which is resistant to all enzymes
3.	Hemicellulose, which is difficult to digest by enzymes
4.	Calcium pectate, which is easily digested by enzymes

11.

During which stage of mitosis do the following events occur?

I:	Centromeres split and chromatids separate
II:	Chromatids move to opposite poles

1.	Prophase	2.	Metaphase
3.	Anaphase	4.	Telophase

12.

What percentage of total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere is produced by Amazon rainforest through photosynthesis?

1.	50	2.	40
3.	30	4.	20

13.

In some viruses, the flow of genetic information is from RNA to DNA. These viruses are:

1.	Reverse transcriptases	2.	Reoviruses
3.	Ribozymes	4.	Retroviruses

14.

Root hairs at the root tip are formed by:

1.	Epidermal cells in the region of maturation
2.	Cortical cells in the region of elongation
3.	Epidermal cells in the region of elongation
4.	Cortical cells in the region of maturation

15.

Ovary is one chambered but it becomes two chambered due to the formation of a false septum in:

1.	Mustard and Argemone	2.	Argemone and Dianthus
3.	Mustard and Primrose	4.	Argemone and Primrose

16.

Match each item in column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Monascus purpureus	P	Thrombolytic
B	Trichoderma polysporum	Q	Immunosuppressant
C	Streptococcus pyogenes	R	Antibiotics
D	Streptomyces griseus	S	Statins

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1	S	Q	R	P
2	Q	S	P	R
3	Q	S	R	P
4	S	Q	P	R

17. The European Federation of Biotechnology [EFB] defines biotechnology as:

1.	The use of living cells and bacteria in industrial and scientific processes.
2.	The integration of natural sciences and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and services.
3.	The use of biology to solve problems and make useful products.
4.	The use of biology to develop new products, methods and organisms intended to improve human health and society.

18. The correct chronological stages of the Calvin cycle will be:

1.	Carboxylation → Reduction → Regeneration
2.	Carboxylation → Regeneration → Reduction
3.	Regeneration → Reduction → Carboxylation
4.	Reduction → Regeneration → Carboxylation

19.

Casparian strips are:

1.	waxy deposition of suberin on only the tangential walls of the endodermal cells
2.	waxy deposition of suberin on only the radial walls of the endodermal cells
3.	waxy deposition of suberin on both tangential and radial walls of the endodermal cells
4.	waxy deposition of lignin on both tangential and radial walls of the endodermal cells

20. Identify the amino acid shown in the given figure:

1.	Glycine	2.	Alanine
3.	Serine	4.	Lysine

21.

The cell walls of diatoms are ‘indestructible’ as they are embedded with:

1.	Silica	2.	Chitin
3.	Calcium	4.	Raphides

22.

The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchical level in classification of plants?

1.	Class	2.	Order
3.	Division	4.	Family

23.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	As compared to the bryophytes, pteridophytes have sporophyte as the main plant body
2.	Pteridophyte sporophyte has well differentiated true roots, stem and leaves
3.	Selaginella has macrophylls like ferns
4.	In sporophyte of ferns, leaf-like appendages called sporophylls subtend sporangia

24. A transgenic tobacco plant was created to make it resistant to:

1.	a nematode, Meloidogyne incognita.
2.	a nematode, Caenorhabditis elegans.
3.	a trematode, Clonorchis sinensis.
4.	a cestode, Taenia sloium.

25. The following pie chart proportionates the number of species in various invertebrate taxa. A, B and C will represent:

	A	B	C
1.	Insects	Echinoderms	Molluscs
2.	Insects	Molluscs	Crustaceans
3.	Crustaceans	Insects	Molluscs
4.	Molluscs	Crustaceans	Insects

26. During post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA in eukaryotes:

I:	Capping is done at the 5’ end and tailing at the 3’ end
II:	Exons are removed from the split gene to form the cistron

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

27. Identify the incorrect statement:

I:	Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in root ecosystems.
II:	Baculoviruses belong to the Genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

28. When the ratio, CO₂: O₂ is nearly equal, RuBisCO:
1. has no affinity for oxygen
2. has a much greater affinity for carbon dioxide
3. has a much greater affinity for oxygen
4. has equal affinity for both carbon dioxide and oxygen

29.

In RNA splicing:

1.	Exons are removed and introns are joined together
2.	Introns are removed and exons are joined together
3.	Cistrons are removed and introns are joined together
4.	Introns are removed and Cistrons are joined together

30.

A basal body is a part of bacterial:

1.	Inclusion bodies	2.	Chromosomal DNA
3.	Flagellum	4.	Plasmid

31.

Match the following :

A.	IAA	i.	Herring sperm DNA
B.	ABA	ii.	Bolting
C.	Ethylene	iii.	Stomatal closure
D.	GA	iv.	Weed-free lawns
E.	Cytokinins	v.	Ripening of fruits

Options:

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	iv	iii	v	ii	i
2.	v	iii	iv	ii	i
3.	iv	i	v	iii	ii
4.	v	iii	ii	i	iv

32. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Apomixis is seed production without fertilization.
2.	Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
3.	Polyembryony is seen in many Citrus and Mango varieties.
4.	Apomixis in hybrid varieties makes the hybrid useless.

33.

In a test cross, the plant expressing the dominant phenotype is crossed with the plant:

1.	Which is heterozygous dominant
2.	Which is heterozygous recessive
3.	Which is homozygous recessive
4.	Which is homozygous dominant

34.

Pollens grains are long ribbon-like and are carried passively in water in:

1.	female plants remain submerged in water
2.	male plants remain submerged in water
3.	both male and female plants remain submerged in water
4.	both male and female plants reach the surface of the water.

35. The picture shows mutual relationship between the fig tree and the wasp.

I:	Many species of fig trees can only be pollinated by their ‘partner’ wasp species and no other species.
II:	The female wasp does not derive any benefit from this relationship.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Biology I - Section B

36. In the diagram identify A to D:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Synergid	Polar nuclei	Male gamete	Antipodal
2.	Synergid	PEN	Male gamete	Antipodal
3.	Antipodal	Polar nuclei	Egg cell	Synergid
4.	Antipodal	PEN	Egg cell	Synergid

37. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Conventional breeding is not the answer if we want to increase yield in the existing crop varieties.
Reason (R):	The existing crop varieties have evolved into new species and traditional hybridisation is not possible now.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

38. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Entire biosphere is regarded as a global ecosystem by many ecologists.
Statement II:	The global ecosystem is divided into terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem for convenience.

1.	Only Statement I is correct.
2.	Only Statement II is correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

39. The process through which ATP is synthesised by cells in chloroplast is called:

1.	Dark reaction
2.	Substrate level phosphorylation
3.	Oxidative photophosphorylation
4.	Photophosphorylation

40.

Consider the given statements:

Statement I:	In alcohol fermentation in yeast, pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase convert pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and ethanol.
Statement II:	In lactic acid fermentation, lactate dehydrogenase reduces pyruvic acid to lactic acid and carbon dioxide in muscle cells during exercise.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

41. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The root hairs are unicellular elongations of the epidermal cells and help absorb water and minerals from the soil.
Statement II:	The trichomes in the shoot system are usually multicellular, branched or unbranched, soft or stiff, may even be secretory and help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

42. Intracellular factors involved in the control of growth and development in plants will be:
1. Chemicals such as plant growth regulators
2. Physical factors like light temperature and oxygen.
3. Water
4. Genetic factors

43. A double-stranded DNA molecule globally has percentage base pair equality: A% = T% and G% = C%. One such DNA molecule is found to have 23 % Adenine. What is the expected % of Uracil in this DNA?

1.	0	2.	23
3.	27	4.	46

44. Consider the following statements about the different classes of algae:

I:	The members of Chlorophyceae have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose
II:	The members of Rhodophyceae do not have a flagellum
III:	Members of Phaeophyceae store food as floridean starch which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure

1.	Only I and III are correct
2.	Only I and II are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	All I, II and III are correct

45.

What limitation of traditional hybridization procedures used in plant and animal breeding can be overcome by recombinant DNA procedures?

I:	Inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes
II:	Inability of inclusion of desirable traits from other species

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

46. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	The distance between the two strands of the DNA helix is approximately uniform.
Reason (R):	Base pairing is complementary, where a purine always base pairs with a pyrimidine and a pyrimidine always base pairs with a purine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

47. Regarding the thylakoid membrane:

I:	Plastoquinone is located within the membrane
II:	Plastocyanin is located on the inner lumen side of the membrane
III:	NADP reductase is located on the stroma side of the membrane

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

48.

Match the fungi (Column-I) with the Class to which it belongs (Column-II) and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Ustilago tritici	P.	Phycomycetes
B.	Albugo candida	Q.	Ascomycetes
C.	Alternaria solani	R.	Basidiomycetes
D.	Claviceps purpurea	S.	Deuteromycetes

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	P	S	Q
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	Q	S	P	R

49.

The ecological pyramids that can never be inverted in a natural ecosystem include:

I:	pyramid of numbers
II:	pyramid of energy in any ecosystem
III:	pyramid of biomass in the sea

1. Only II
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. All can be inverted

50. The given Figure 1 shows a floral diagram and Figure 2 shows a floral formula. Identify the correct statement with respect to the given figures:

1.	The floral diagram is for Family Fabacea and the floral formula is for Family Solanaceae
2.	The floral diagram is for Family Solaneceae and the floral formula is for Family Fabaceae
3.	Both floral diagram and floral formula are for Family Liliaceae
4.	Both floral diagram and floral formula are for Family Solanaceae

Biology II - Section A

51.

Natural methods for contraception work on the principle of:

1.	Preventing fertilization
2.	Preventing implantation
3.	Preventing ovulation
4.	Preventing embryo development

52. Identify the incorrect statement regarding animals belonging to the Phylum Cnidaria:

1.	Gastrovascular cavity has a single opening, mouth on hypostome.
2.	Corals are cnidarians and have a skeleton of calcium carbonate.
3.	They exhibit tissue level of organization and are diploblastic.
4.	Digestion is exclusively intracellular.

53.

Communication junctions found at some fusion points that allow the cardiac muscle cells to contract as a unit are called as:
1. Intercalated discs
2. Sarcolemma
3. Nodes of Ranvier
4. Motor end plates

54. The only known carriers of the bacterium, Salmonella typhi, are the:

1.	Humans	2.	Bats
3.	Rodents	4.	House flies

55. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Peripheral neural system	P.	Comprises of all nerves associated with brain and spinal cord
B.	Somatic neural system	Q.	Relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles
C.	Visceral neural system	R.	Transmits impulse from CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles
D.	Autonomic neural system	S.	Part of PNS where impulses travel from CNS to the viscera and from the viscera to the CNS

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	S	R
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

56.

The correct sequence of mammalian mammary gland ducts beginning from the alveoli would be:

1.	Mammary tubules → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous ducts
2.	Lactiferous ducts → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules
3.	Lactiferous ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary ducts → Mammary tubules
4.	Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Mammary ducts → Lactiferous ducts

57. Which fact regarding the Human Genome Project is not correct?

1.	The Human Genome Project was a 13-year project coordinated by the U.S. Department of Energy and the National Institute of Health.
2.	Many non-human model organisms, such as bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis Elegans (a free-living non-pathogenic nematode), Drosophila (the fruit fly), plants (rice and Arabidopsis), etc., have also been sequenced.
3.	The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only in May 2016 (this was the last of the 24 human chromosomes – 22 autosomes and X and Y – to be sequenced).
4.	The fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that worked on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Sanger.

58.

All the following are parts of human axial skeleton except:

1.	Sternum	2.	Vertebrae
3.	Hyoid	4.	Scapula

59.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding nucleolus:

1.	Their content is continuous with nucleoplasm
2.	It is site for active rRNA synthesis
3.	Their number is always one per nucleus
4.	Larger nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis

60.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair regarding Plasmodium, the protozoan responsible for causing malaria in humans:

1.	Cause of malignant tertian malaria	Plasmodium falciparum
2.	Paroxysm [clinical features] of malaria	Release of hemozoin on rupture of RBCs
3.	Fertilization during the life cycle	Gut of female anopheles
4.	Infective stage to mankind	Trophozoites

61.

Which of the following stages of Prophase I of meiosis I can last for many months or years in certain vertebrate oocytes?

1.	Zygotene	2.	Pachytene
3.	Diplotene	4.	Diakinesis

62.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.
II:	Arachidonic acid has 20 carbons including the carboxyl carbon.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

63. The peptide thyroid hormone that lowers calcium and phosphate ion concentration in the blood is:
1. thyroxine
2. triiodothyronine
3. calcitonin
4. thyroid-stimulating hormone

64.

The figure given below shows the conversions of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4), the components of the reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly:

Options

	A	B	C	D
1.	Transition state	Potential energy	Activation energy without enzyme	Activation energy with enzyme
2.	Potential energy	Transition state	Activation energy with enzyme	Activation energy without enzyme
3.	Activation energy with enzyme	Transition state	Activation energy without enzyme	Potential energy
4.	Potential energy	Transition state	Activation energy without enzyme	Activation energy with enzyme

65.

On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship turns out to be a:

1.	Straight line	2.	Rectangular hyperbola
3.	Bell shaped	4.	U shaped

66. Leydig cells synthesize androgens under the direct influence of:

1.	FSH	2.	LH
3.	FSH and LH	4.	GnRH

67.

ELISA is based on the principle of:

1.	Complementary hybridization of nucleic acids
2.	Antigen-antibody interaction
3.	Clonal selection
4.	Southern blot

68. The extinct reptilian lineage that evolved into dinosaurs and later on the birds is:

1.	Pelycosaurs	2.	Synapsids
3.	Tuataras	4.	Thecodonts

69.

Consider the two statements:

I:	The process of filtration at Malpighian body is regarded as ultrafiltration.
II:	Blood is filtered so finely that all constituents of plasma pass into the lumen of Bowman’s capsule.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct

70. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The respiratory membrane has one layer - the simple squamous epithelium of the alveoli.
Statement II:	Oxygen diffuses faster from carbon dioxide across the respiratory membrane.

1. Statement I is correct: Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is correct: Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect: Statement II is incorrect

71.

The binding of oxygen with hemoglobin is primarily related to:

1.	Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
2.	Partial pressure of oxygen
3.	H⁺ ion concentration in body fluids
4.	Presence of 2,3-DPG in erythrocytes

72.

The nodal musculature of the heart has the capability to generate impulse:

1.	on stimulation by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
2.	on stimulation by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
3.	on stimulation by the somatic neural division of the peripheral nervous system
4.	without any external stimulus

73.

It is unfortunate that in our society women are blamed for producing female children and have been ostracised and ill-treated because:

1.	The sex is determined by the type of sperm fertilizing the egg
2.	The sex is determined by the type of egg fertilizing the sperm
3.	The sex is determined by the hormones produced by the fetus
4.	The sex is determined by God’s Will

74.

Match each item in Column I [Hormone] with one in Column II [Function] and select your answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	ADH	a.	Makes collecting duct permeable to water and urea
B.	PTH	b.	Stimulates osteoclasts
C.	LH	c.	Rupture of Graafian follicle leading to ovulation
D.	ANF	d.	Causes vasodilation

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	a	b	d	c
3.	b	a	d	c
4.	b	a	c	d

75. What would not be true regarding cartilaginous fishes?

1.	In males, pelvic fins bear claspers
2.	Some of them have electric organs [Torpedo]
3.	None of them is viviparous
4.	Some possess poison sting [Trygon]

76. The bacterium Escherichia coli was not used by:

1.	Fred Griffith, when he discovered bacterial transformation
2.	Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase, when they conclusively proved that DNA is the molecule that stores genetic information
3.	Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl, when they experimentally proved that DNA replicates semi-conservatively
4.	Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod, when they proposed the working of lactose operon

77. The two key concepts of the Darwinian Theory of Evolution are:

1.	Branching descent and natural selection
2.	Saltation and Catastrophism
3.	Use and disuse of organs and inheritance of acquired traits
4.	Reproductive isolation and Founder effect

78.

The "Southern" technique involves:

1.	the detection of DNA fragments on membranes by specific radioactive antibodies.
2.	the detection of proteins on membranes using a radioactive DNA probe.
3.	the detection of DNA fragments on membranes by a radioactive DNA probe.
4.	the detection of proteins on membranes using specific radioactive antibodies.

79.

A statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because:

1.	It is very expensive
2.	It can tell about chromosomal aberrations
3.	It is an invasive procedure and carries a high risk of abortions
4.	It can be used for pre-natal sex determination of the fetus leading to female feticides

80.

The second heart sound [dub] is associated with simultaneous closure of:

1.	Right AV and pulmonary semilunar valve
2.	Left AV and aortic semilunar valve
3.	Right and left AV valves
4.	Right and left semilunar valves

81.

A motor neuron along with all the muscle fibers innervated by it constitute a:

1.	Fascicle	2.	Motor end plate
3.	Motor unit	4.	Myoneural junction

82.

In the logistic growth equation given below, the carrying capacity is represented by:
$\frac{\mathrm{dN}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{rN}\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right)$

1.	N	2.	r
3.	K	4.	K – N / K

83.

Secondary lymphoid organs:

1.	Are those where immature lymphocytes differentiate
2.	Provide a site of interaction between lymphocytes and antigens
3.	Are formed after birth
4.	Are bone marrow and MALT

84.

A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made competent to do so. This is because:

1.	DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
2.	DNA is a very large molecule
3.	there are no receptors for DNA on the cell membrane
4.	DNA is an inert molecule

85.

When Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied, white-eyed females to brown-bodied, red-eyed males and intercrossed their F₁ progeny, the F₂ ratio deviated very significantly from the 9:3:3:1 ratio. This can be attributed to the fact that:

1.	The genes are located on the X and Y chromosomes.
2.	Fruit fly has abnormal chromosomes.
3.	The genes are located on the X chromosome.
4.	The genes exhibit incomplete dominance.

Biology II - Section B

86. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Pacific salmon and bamboo breed many times during their lifetimes.
II:	Birds and mammals breed many times during their lifetimes and produce a small number of large-sized offspring.
III:	Oysters and pelagic fishes produce a large number of small-sized offspring.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

87.

The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by a process called:

1.	Spermiation	2.	Spermatocytogenesis
3.	Spermiogenesis	4.	Spermatolysis

88. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In Avery, Macleod, and McCarty's experiment, digestion of heat-killed lysate with proteases and RNases did not affect transformation but digestion with DNase did.
Reason (R):	DNase will hydrolyse all biomolecules in the lysate except DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

89. Why is a nucleic acid probe required in many genetic engineering experiments?

1.	To clone genes
2.	To produce a large amount of DNA from a tiny amount of DNA
3.	To make DNA on the template of RNA
4.	To identify genes that have been separated by electrophoresis, or mRNA molecules through in-situ hybridization

90. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	There is a need for the recombinant DNA to be expressed in recombinant DNA technology procedures.
Reason (R):	In almost all recombinant DNA technologies, the ultimate aim is to produce a desirable protein.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

91.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	The skin of a frog is always kept moist and has a mucus covering.
Reason (R):	Frogs respire through the skin as well.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

92. The biological relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of mammals is an argument in favour of evolution. What will be true for the forelimbs of the different mammals shown below?

Statement I:	They evolved in a similar environment, rather than inherited from a recent common ancestor.
Statement II:	They have a common descent and have evolved from a shared ancestor.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

93.

Consider three genes: X, Y, and Z. The recombination frequency between X-Y, X-Z, and Y-Z gene pairs was found to be 50%, 25%, and 50%, respectively. What would be the right inference?

1.	genes X and Y are on the same chromosome
2.	genes X and Z are on different chromosomes
3.	genes Y and Z are on different chromosomes
4.	All three genes are located on the same chromosome

94.

Study the diagram given and choose the correct statement:

1.	A: Retrovirus replicates outside the cell
2.	B: Viral DNA is produced by the host's enzyme - reverse transcriptase
3.	C: Viral DNA incorporates into the host genome
4.	D: New viral DNA is produced by the infected cell

95. Vital capacity can be defined as:

I:	The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a normal expiration.
II:	The maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a normal inspiration.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

96.

The efficiency of a respiratory system is enhanced by all the following except:

1.	increasing the surface area available for diffusion of gases
2.	decreasing the distance over which the gases must diffuse
3.	increasing the concentration differences of gases inside and outside the system
4.	drying the system out so the gases do not have to diffuse through water

97.

Consider the given statements regarding the human vertebral column:

I:	In adults, it is differentiated into cervical [7], thoracic [12], lumbar [5], sacral [1-fused] and coccygeal [1-fused] regions.
II:	The first vertebra is called as axis and it articulates with the occipital condyles.
III:	The spinal cord runs through a neural canal.
IV:	It protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as the point of attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back.

The correct statements include:

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and IV
3.	Only II and III	4.	Only I, III, and IV

98. Identify the correct match for the lobes of cerebrum shown in the given figure:

A:	Frontal lobe	Planning, reasoning and problem solving
B:	Parietal lobe	Integrating sensory information, including touch, temperature, pressure and pain
C:	Occipital lobe	Location of the primary visual cortex which receives visual information from the eyes
D:	Temporal lobe	Contains the primary auditory cortex, which receives auditory information from the ears

1.	Only A and B	2.	Only A, B and C
3.	Only B, C and D	4.	A, B, C and D

99. Consider the given two statements:

Statement 1:	Hemichordates were earlier considered as a sub-phylum under Phylum Chordata but are now placed separately in a phylum under non-Chordata.
Statement 2:	Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called stomochord, a structure homologous to the notochord.

1.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1.
2.	Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
3.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
4.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1.

100. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.
2.	The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
3.	DCT is capable of reabsorption of bicarbonate ions and selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and ammonia to maintain the pH and electrolyte balance in the body.
4.	PCT does not play any role in reabsorption of bicarbonate ions and selective secretion of hydrogen and ammonia to maintain the pH and electrolyte balance in the body.

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