Biology I - Section A
1. In eukaryotes, during post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA:
1. |
methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end and
adenylate residues are added at the 3‘ end |
2. |
methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end and
adenylate residues are added at the 5‘ end |
3. |
methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end and
guanylate residues are added at the 3‘ end |
4. |
methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end and
guanylate residues are added at the 5‘ end |
2. Regarding red algae:
I: |
Majority are fresh water with greater concentrations found in the colder areas. |
II: |
They occur in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of water and also at great depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates. |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
3. The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment/regeneration of:
I: oxaloacetic acid
II: NADH
III: FADH2
1. Only I
2. Only II and III
3. I, II and III
4. Only I and II
4. A blood cholesterol lowering agent can be isolated from:
1. Trichoderma polysporum
2. Trichoderma harzianum
3. Monascus purpureus
4. Penicillium notatum
5. The best explant for regenerating virus free plantlets would be:
1. Embryo
2. Meristem
3. Anther
4. Endosperm
6. In angiosperms, the pollen tub, carrying male gametes, enters into the embryo sac through the:
1. chalaza
2. nucellus
3. micropyle
4. funiculus
7. Regarding double fertilization in angiosperms:
I: |
syngamy requires one male gamete and one egg cell |
II: |
triple fusion requires one male gamete, one egg cell and one polar nucleus |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
8. In Pisum sativum, Mendel studied:
1. 7 characters and 7 contrasting traits
2. 7 characters and 14 contrasting traits
3. 14 characters and 7 contrasting traits
4. 14 characters and 14 contrasting traits
9. Regarding ATP synthase involved in chemiosmosis in chloroplasts:
I: |
The component CF0 is embedded in the thylakoid membrane. |
II: |
The component CF1 protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma. |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
10. All the following plants exhibit difference in shape of leaves in juvenile and in mature phase of their life cycle except:
1. Cotton
2. Coriander
3. Larkspur
4. Buttercup
11. Pericarp is a derivative of:
1. integuments.
2. ovule wall.
3. ovary wall.
4. placenta.
12. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called as:
1. Gross primary productivity
2. Net primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Tertiary productivity
13. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen at:
1. 0°C
2. 4°C
3. -196°C
4. -273°C
14. The correct chronological sequence [beginning from the earliest] with respect to fungal sexual cycle will be:
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy
15. Classification system based on information like chromosome number, structure, behaviour is called as:
1. Numerical taxonomy
2. Cytotaxonomy
3. Chemotaxonomy
4. Cladistics
16. In Mendelian inheritance, a recessive allele for a character is the one that:
1. |
is least frequent in the population |
2. |
was the original allele, from which other alleles have been formed by mutation |
3. |
expresses itself only in homozygous condition |
4. |
does not segregate during gamete formation |
17. The bacteriophage φ X 174 has:
1. 5386 nucleotides
2. 48502 base pairs
3. 4.6 X 106 base pairs
4. 3.3 X 109 base pairs
18. Identify the correct statements:
I: |
Only green plants can prepare their own food. |
II: |
In green plants, all cells, tissues and organs photosynthesise. |
1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only II |
3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
19. The leafy stage in the life cycle of mosses:
1. |
is a stage of the sporophytic generation. |
2. |
is a creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage. |
3. |
develops directly from a spore. |
4. |
bears sex organs. |
20. Typically, drupes develop from:
1. |
monocarpellary inferior ovaries and are one seeded. |
2. |
monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded. |
3. |
multicarpellary superior ovaries and are many seeded. |
4. |
multicarpellary inferior ovaries and are many seeded. |
21. Which of the given figures shows the aestivation of corolla as seen in
Calotropis?
22. Assuming independent assortment, how many different phenotypes can appear in the offspring if individual plants with genotype AaBb are intercrossed?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 9
23. The taxonomic category ‘family’ in plants is identified by the following ‘suffix’:
1. - ales
2. - onae
3. - aceae
4. - ae
24. In Avery, MacLeod and McCarty experiment, the transformation was affected by the use of:
1. |
Protease |
2. |
DNase |
3. |
RNase |
4. |
Lipase |
25. The first restriction endonuclease whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence was:
1. EcoR I
2. Hind II
3. Hind I
4. Sma I
26. The name of Alexander von Humboldt is associated with:
1. the concept of competitive release
2. Rivet popper hypothesis
3. the concept of Species area relationship
4. Ecological sanitation
27. A dihybrid cross yields a phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in F2 progeny. Most likely, the two genes:
1. are assorting independently
2. are tightly linked on an autosome
3. are linked to a sex chromosome
4. control the same trait
28. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
ATP acts as the energy currency of the cell. |
Reason (R): |
ATP is a ribonucleoside triphosphate. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A). |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A). |
4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
29. Consider the two given statements:
Statement I: |
Gynoecium of Papaver is multicarpellary and apocarpous. |
Statement II: |
Gynoecium of Michelia is multicarpellary and syncarpous. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
2. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
30. Study the given diagram and select the correct statements:
I: It is racemose inflorescence.
II: A is older flower and B is younger flower.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
31. When the CO2 : O2 is nearly equal, the affinity of RuBisCO is:
1. equal for both
2. much higher for carbon dioxide
3. much higher for oxygen
4. slightly higher for oxygen
32. The glycolytic pathway has an investment of 2 ATP molecules. At which of the following steps is the debt paid off?
1. |
Conversion of Glucose into Glucose-6-phospahte |
2. |
Conversion of Fructose-6-phosphate into Fructose 1,6-biphospahte |
3. |
Conversion of 1,3 biphoshoglyceric acid into 3-phosphoglyceric acid |
4. |
Conversion of Phosphoenol pyruvate into Pyruvic acid |
33. Three options given below describe the same structure in an angiosperm. Identify the one that does not belong to the group?
1. Megagametophyte
2. Megasporangium
3. Female gametophyte
4. Embryo sac
34. All the following are known functions of the plant growth regulator auxins except:
1. Promotion of flowering in pineapples
2. Induction of parthenocarpy in tomatoes
3. Fruit ripening in tomatoes
4.`Initiation of rooting in stem cuttings
35. A gene is said to be polymorphic if it has more than one variant and the frequency of the least common variant is at least:
1. 0.01
2. 0.1
3. 0.5
4. 1.0
Biology I - Section B
36. The flower shown in the given figure represents the members of Family:
1. Leguminosae
2. Malvaceae
3. Cruciferae
4. Compositae
37. During diakinesis of prophase I:
I: |
Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place. |
II: |
Meiotic spindle is assembled. |
III: |
Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear membrane breaks down. |
The correct statements are:
1.
I,
II and
III
2.
I and
II only
3.
I and
III only
4.
II and
III only
38. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): |
In aerobic cellular respiration the presence of oxygen is vital. |
Reason (R): |
Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A) |
39. A bud is present in:
I: |
the axil of petiole in simple leaf |
II: |
the axil of petiole in compound leaf |
III: |
the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf |
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. Only II is correct
40. A typical angiosperm anther in transverse section will show:
1. |
two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each theca having two microsporangia |
2. |
two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each theca having four microsporangia |
3. |
two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each lobe having two microsporangia |
4. |
two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each lobe having four microsporangia |
41. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): |
The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions. |
Reason (R): |
Pteridophytes are terrestrial plants that possess vascular tissues – xylem and phloem. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A) |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A) |
42. A stable community in an ecosystem:
I: |
should show a considerable increase in productivity every year |
II: |
must be either resistant or resilient to occasional man-made and natural disturbances |
III: |
must be resistant to invasions by alien species |
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct
43. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: |
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA. |
Statement II: |
There is a single RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
2. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
44. Consider the two given statements:
Statement I: |
Association between mycobiont and phycobiont is found in Lichens. |
Statement II: |
An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called mycorrhiza. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
45. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): |
The cyclic flow hence, results only in the synthesis of ATP, but not of NADPH + H+. |
Reason (R): |
The excited electron does not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PS I complex through the electron transport chain.
|
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A) |
46. The sequence on the template strand of DNA which will be responsible for the insertion of the first amino acid into a protein will be:
1. TAC
2. AUG
3. CAT
4. ACT
47. During a turn of the Krebs cycle during aerobic cellular respiration, all the following will be produced:
I: |
carbon dioxide |
II: |
ATP |
III: |
water |
1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I and III |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II and III |
48. In the given diagram showing filamentous
Nostoc, the structure marked as A:
1. |
is a resting spore |
2. |
is involved in nitrogen fixation |
3. |
is gas vacuole |
4. |
is where carbon dioxide concentration mechanism is applied |
49. Regarding plant growth regulators:
I: |
Auxins are plant growth promoters |
II: |
ABA is a plant growth inhibitor |
III: |
Ethylene is largely an inhibitor of growth activities |
1. Only
I and
II are correct
2. Only
I and
III are correct
3. Only
II and
III are correct
4.
I,
II and
III are correct
50. A unicellular organism shows:
I: |
Eukaryotic cell type |
II: |
Absent cell wall |
III: |
Capability to act as a heterotroph when deprived of sunlight |
This organism must be classified under:
1. |
Kingdom Monera, as a mycoplasma |
2. |
Kingdom Protista, as a euglenoid |
3. |
Kingdom Protista, as a dinoflagellate |
4. |
Kingdom Animalia, as a sponge |
Biology II - Section A
51. Implantation of the developing embryo occurs on the uterine endometrium:
1. |
at the morula stage, within 24 – 48 hours of fertilisation |
2. |
at the morula stage, about 96 hours post fertilisation |
3. |
at the blastocyst stage, 7th – 8th day post fertilization |
4. |
at the gastrula stage, about 10 days post fertilization |
52. The number of autosomes expected in a human skin cell is:
1. 22
2. 23
3. 44
4. 46
53. All chordates have:
1. scales covering their skin
2. jaws
3. notochord
4. vertebral column
54. If a woman who is a known carrier for the gene of colour blindness marries a normal male, what percent of her male progeny are expected to be affected by the condition?
1. 0
2. 25
3. 50
4. 100
55. What neurotransmitter is released by the anterior motor neuron at the neuro-muscular junction?
1. Dopamine
2. Norepinephrine
3. Acetylcholine
4. Adrenaline
56. Which part of the human brain plays important roles in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory?
1. Amygdala
2. Septum
3. Hippocampus
4. Superior colliculi
57. Working independently, who reached conclusions similar to those reached by Darwin on evolution of life forms?
1. T R Malthus
2. Hugo de Vries
3. Alfred Russell Wallace
4. Jean Baptist Lamarck
58. The part of the nephron, that plays a major role in increasing medullary interstitial osmolarity during concentration of urine by human kidney, is:
1. Descending limb of loop of Henle
2. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
3. PCT
4. DCT
59. The members of which of the following animal phyla are not exclusively marine?
1. Porifera
2. Ctenophora
3. Echinodermata
4. Hemichordata
60. What was used to deliver the normal copy of gene in the gene therapy trials for ADA deficiency?
1. Microinjection
2. Biolistics
3. Retrovirus
4. Liposomes
61. Both tendons and ligaments:
I: are dense irregular connective tissues
II: connect muscle to bone
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
62. Unlike roundworms, flatworms:
1. are triploblastic
2. exhibit bilateral symmetry
3. do not have a coelom
4. reproduce only by sexual methods
63. Each time the sodium-potassium pump functions, it actively transports:
1. |
three sodium ions to the outside and two potassium ions to the inside of a cell. |
2. |
two sodium ions to the outside and three potassium ions to the inside of a cell. |
3. |
three sodium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell. |
4. |
three potassium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell. |
64. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): |
The alimentary canal in frogs is short. |
Reason (R): |
Frogs are carnivores. |
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
65. India’s share of world land area and global species diversity in percentages, respectively, is:
1. 2.4 and 8.1
2. 3.1 and 12
3. 3.3 and 9.6
4. 3.7 and 9.9
66. Which hypothalamic hormones are stored in and released from the posterior pituitary?
1. ADH and Prolactin
2. Oxytocin and Somatostatin
3. ADH and Oxytocin
4. Somatostatin and Somatomedin
67. What argument will be most potent to discard proteins as possible molecules for genetic information storage in humans?
1. They have very limited diversity
2. They are not macromolecules
3. They do not replicate
4. They are unstable biomolecules
68. The most critical requirement for any DNA molecule to be able to act as a cloning vector during rDNA procedures will be:
1. Ori
2. MCS
3. More than one selectable marker
4. A silent promoter
69. The risk of erythroblastosis foetalis exists when:
1. |
an Rh positive mother is carrying an Rh negative foetus |
2. |
an Rh negative mother is carrying an Rh positive foetus |
3. |
an Rh positive mother is carrying an Rh positive foetus |
4. |
an Rh negative mother is carrying an Rh negative foetus |
70. Regarding pulmonary volumes and capacities, which of the following will not hold true?
1. TLC – VC = RV
2. TLC – RV = FRC
3. IC = VC - ERV
4. ERV + RV = FRC
71. Consider the two statements:
Assertion(A): |
Adrenaline and noradrenaline are called emergency hormones or hormones of Fight or Flight. |
Reason(R): |
Adrenaline and noradrenaline are monoamine neurotransmitters. |
1. |
(A) is True; (R) is False |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A) |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) |
4. |
(A) is False; (R) is True |
72. Favourable conditions for the oxygenation of haemoglobin at alveoli include all the following except:
1. High pO2
2. Low pCO2
3. Low pH
4. Low temperature
73. ART stands for:
1. Assisted Reproductive Technologies
2. Assisted Reproductive Techniques
3. Artificial Reproductive Technologies
4. Artificial Reproductive Techniques
74. Glenoid cavity and acetabulum are parts, respectively, of:
1. Scapula and humerus
2. Coxal bone and femur
3. Scapula and coxal bone
4. Coxal bone and scapula
75. All the following cells are expected to be haploid except:
1. first polar body
2. spermatid
3. secondary polar body
4. primary oocyte
76. The human liver fluke:
1. |
is a cestode and requires two intermediate hosts – a cow and a pig |
2. |
is a trematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a chicken and a fish |
3. |
is a nematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a fish and a pig |
4. |
is a trematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a snail and a fish |
77. The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection is:
1. Humoral immunity
2. Cell mediated immunity
3. Innate immunity
4. Hyperimmunity
78. Widal test is done for the diagnosis of:
1. Pneumonia
2. Typhoid
3. Syphilis
4. AIDS
79. Addison’s disease is caused by:
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperadrenalism
4. Hypoadrenalism
80. Contraction of diaphragm:
1. |
increases the diameter of thorax in dorso-ventral axis and brings about inhalation |
2. |
decreases the diameter of thorax in dorso-ventral axis and brings about exhalation |
3. |
increases the diameter of thorax in antero-posterior axis and brings about inhalation |
4. |
decreases the diameter of thorax in antero-posterior axis and brings about exhalation |
81. Which of the following recording of the blood pressure in a human adult will not be considered as abnormal?
1. 120/100 mm Hg
2. 110/70 mm Hg
3. 170/80 mm Hg
4. 150/95 mm Hg
82. The Earth Summit was held in:
1. Montreal, 1987
2. Kyoto, 1997
3. Rio de Janeiro, 1992
4. Johannesburg, 2002
83. What percent of the human DNA actually codes for proteins?
1. Less than 2%
2. Around 20%
3. Between 35% and 40%
4. More than 98%
84. If a sample of single stranded DNA contains 23 % adenine bases of total, what is the expected percentage of guanine bases in this sample of DNA?
1. |
23 |
2. |
27 |
3. |
46 |
4. |
Cannot be determined on the basis of information given |
85. What is released at the time of ovulation?
1. Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
2. Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
3. Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
4. Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
Biology II - Section B
86. At about what partial pressure of oxygen [mm Hg] is the haemoglobin in blood 50% saturated?
1. 95
2. 75
3. 27
4. 15
87. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
Despite great morphological difference between eucaryotic cells and prokaryotes,
they are remarkably similar metabolically. |
2. |
The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are made up of 50S and 30S subunits. |
3. |
The rough part of rough endoplasmic reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes
in the process of synthesizing ER proteins. |
4. |
The nucleolus is where the structural RNA for the cells ribosomes is transcribed from DNA. |
88. Identify the correct statements:
I: |
Non-steroid hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, the ovaries, and the testes. |
II: |
Non-steroid peptide hormones enter the cell. |
III: |
Steroid hormones do not bind to plasma membrane receptors. |
1. Only
I
2. Only
I and
II
3. Only
III
4.
I,
II and
II
89. What would not be true for nucleic acids?
1. |
They are polynucleotides. |
2. |
Together with polysaccharides and polypeptides, these comprise the true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell. |
3. |
A nucleotide has three chemically distinct components: a heterocyclic compound, a monosaccharide, and a phosphoric acid or a phosphate. |
4. |
The hexose sugar found in polynucleotides is either ribose or 2’deoxyribose. |
90. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: |
Humans breathe by negative pressure. |
Statement II: |
The respiratory center is directly affected by low oxygen levels. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
91. Consider the two given statements:
Statement I: |
Age structure can indicate whether a population is increasing, stable, or declining. |
Statement II: |
In general terms, a population with a very broad base would be expected to be stable. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
92. The term ‘saltatory conduction’ is used for conduction of impulse in a myelinated neuron when an impulse jumps from:
1. axon to dendrite
2. node to node
3. dendrite to axon
4. node of Ranvier to axon
93. Regarding birds, the number of correct statements from the statements given will be:
I: |
The forelimbs are modified into wings. |
II: |
Flightless birds do not have feathers. |
III: |
Skin is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail. |
IV: |
Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic). |
V: |
The hind limbs generally have scales. |
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
94. The glomerular ultrafiltrate will contain:
1. water, nitrogenous wastes, nutrients, and salts
2. blood cells, platelets and proteins
3. albumin, fats and other proteins
4. mainly blood cells
95. In an E. coli cell, the enzyme permease:
1. is present only when glucose levels are very low
2. is present only when lactose is freely available
3. is present in a low amount all the time
4. is not required for using lactose as a source of energy by the cell
96. Consider the two given statements:
Assertion (A): |
Today, DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis. |
Reason (R): |
The use of PCR has increased the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A) |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A) |
97. The diagram shows a possible family tree for humans. If D is
Homo sapiens, what can be A and C respectively?
1.
Ramapithecus and
Sivapithecus
2.
Sivapithecus and
Ramapithecus
3.
Homo habilis and
Homo erectus
4.
Homo erectus and
Homo habilis
98. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
A |
Antigen |
P |
a chemical produced by the human body in response to the presence of a foreign substance |
B |
Antibody |
Q |
a foreign substance that causes the human body to produce a special chemical in response to its presence |
C |
Active immunity |
R |
immunity acquired as a result of injection of a vaccine containing live micro-organisms |
D |
Passive immunity |
S |
immunity acquired as a result of the injection of a vaccine containing antibodies |
Codes:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
Q |
P |
R |
S |
2. |
Q |
P |
S |
R |
3. |
P |
Q |
R |
S |
4. |
P |
Q |
S |
R |
99. The menstrual bleed is mainly due to the withdrawal of:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH
100. Consider the two given statements:
Statement I: |
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s). |
Statement II: |
Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
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