Test 4 (Class 12)- Type Bio SCAN (New NCERT)

Biology 1 - Section A

1.

The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria is:

1.	vitamin C	2.	vitamin D
3.	vitamin B₁₂	4.	vitamin E

2.

Match the items in Column ‘A’ and Column ‘B’ and choose the correct answer:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Lady bird	i.	Methanobacterium
B.	Mycorrhiza	ii.	Trichoderma
C.	Biological control	iii.	Aphids
D.	Biogas	iv.	Glomus

The correct answer is:
1. A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
2. A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
3. A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
4. A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

3.

Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection.

	Disease	Causative Organisms	Mode of Infection
1.	Typhoid	Salmonella typhi	With inspired air
2.	Pneumonia	Streptococcus pneumoniae	Droplet infection
3.	Elephantiasis	Wuchereria bancrofti	infected water and food
4.	Malaria	Plasmodium vivax	Bite of male anopheles mosquito

4.

A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance genes- for tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-recombinants transformants would survive on the medium containing:
1. ampicillin but not tetracycline
2. tetracycline but not ampicillin
3. both tetracycline and ampicillin
4. neither tetracycline nor ampicillin

5.

Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiation due to the:
1. Rapid cell division
2. Lack of nutrition
3. Fast mutation
4. Lack of oxygen

6. Consider the two statements:

I:	Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is often used as an indicator of the degree of organic pollution of water.
II:	An increase in BOD is used as a gauge of the effectiveness of wastewater treatment plants.

1.	Only I is correct	2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct	4.	Both I and II are incorrect

7.

Select the correct statement from the ones given below:

1.	Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller.
2.	Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate.
3.	Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery.
4.	Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth.

8. Streptokinase is a:
1. thrombolytic medication and enzyme
2. thrombolytic medication and an ion channel blocker
3. anticoagulant and an anti-platelet agent
4. anticoagulant and vasodilator

9.

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually shows symptoms of AIDS?

1.	When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
2.	When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages a large number of these.
3.	Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
4.	When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells.

10. Both Wuchereria and Ascaris:

1.	are trandmitted by the bite of a female mosquito vector
2.	are transmitted by contaminated food and water
3.	are nematodes
4.	can cause intestinal obstruction in affected children

11.

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to newborn infants because it contains:

1.	Immunoglobulin A
2.	Natural killer cells
3.	Monocytes
4.	Macrophages

12.

Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to:
1. Cell-mediated immune response
2. Passive immune response
3. Innate immune response
4. Humoral immune response

13.

Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important products:

	Bacterium		Product
A.	Aspergillus niger	i.	Lactic acid
B.	Acetobacter aceti	ii.	Butyric acid
C.	Clostridium butylicum	iii.	Acetic acid
D.	Lactobacillus	iv.	Citric acid

Choose the correct match:

	A	B	C	D
1.	ii	iii	iv	i
2.	ii	iv	iii	i
3.	iv	iii	ii	i
4.	iv	i	iii	ii

14. What is common to diabetes mellitus type 1, Graves' disease, inflammatory bowel disease, multiple sclerosis, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus?
1. All are genetic and heritable disorders
2. All are autoimmune disorders
3. All are pre-cancerous conditions
4. All are communicable diseases

15.

The primary treatment of wastewater involves the removal of:

1.	dissolved impurities	2.	stable particles
3.	toxic substances	4.	harmful bacteria

16.

The best explants for obtaining virus-free plants in micropropagation are:

1.	Meristems
2.	Embryos
3.	Anther
4.	Permanent tissue

17.

Which of the following alcoholic drinks are produced without distillation?
1. Whiskey and Brandy
2. Brandy and Rum
3. Wine and Beer
4. Wine and Brandy

Biology 1 - Section B

18.

‘Competence’ for transformation can be induced in certain bacteria if they are treated with:

1.	Specific concentration of divalent cation like calcium
2.	Polyethylene glycol
3.	Cellulase to create protoplast
4.	Colchicine

19.

Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:

1.	Bollworms	2.	Nematodes
3.	White rusts	4.	Bacterial blights

20.

What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

1.	The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
2.	The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
3.	Positive charged fragment moves to farther end
4.	Negatively charged fragments do not move

21.

Elution is:

1.	separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel
2.	staining the separated DNA fragments with ethidium bromide
3.	cutting out of the separated bands of DNA from the agarose gel and extracting them from the gel piece
4.	constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA fragments to the cloning vector

22.

Corn borer in cotton can be controlled by the proteins encoded by the gene:
1. cryIAc
2. cryIIAb
3. cryIAb
4. cryIIAc

23.

DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with:

1.	Chilled chloroform
2.	isopropanal
3.	Chilled ethanol
4.	Methanol at room temperature

24.

The exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as:
1. Bioweapon
2. Biopiracy
3. Bioethics
4. Biowar

25.

Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
1. Purification of isolated protein
2. Detection of gene mutation
3. Molecular diagnosis
4. Gene amplification

Biology 2 - Section A

26.

A transgenic food crop, which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is:

1.	Flavr savr tomatoes
2.	Starlink maize
3.	Bt soybean
4.	Golden rice

27.

Epiphytes:
1. are aerial vines common in tropical regions
2. are parasitic and use haustoria
3. live in oligotrophic soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen
4. grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts

28.

Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

1.	Mutualism
2.	Predation
3.	Resource partitioning
4.	Competitive release

29.

Ecological niche is:(NCERT Exemplar)
1. The surface area of the ocean
2. An ecologically adapted zone
3. The physical position and functional role of a species within the community
4. Formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake

30.

If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
1. a normal distribution
2. a bi-modal distribution
3. a T-shaped curve
4. a skewed curve

31.

Earliest vascular plants on land acquired water and mineral nutrients most likely by:
1. absorption by trichomes.
2. diffusion through stomata.
3. the help of symbiotic mycorrhizae.
4. osmosis through the root hairs.

32. If you draw the age pyramid for a population that is expanding in size, you would expect that:

1.	the number of individuals in the pre-reproductive age group are more than the number of individuals in the reproductive age group.
2.	the number of individuals in the reproductive age group are less than the number of individuals in the post-reproductive age group.
3.	the number of individuals in the reproductive age group are equal to the number of individuals in the reproductive age group.
4.	the number of individuals in the pre-reproductive age group are less than the number of individuals in the reproductive age group.

33.

According to Alexander von Humboldt :
(1) Species richness decreases with increasing area of exploration
(2) Species richness increases with the increasing area, but only up to limit
(3) There is no relationship between species richness and area explored.
(4) Species richness goes on increasing with increasing area of exploration

34.

Exploration of molecular, genetic, and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:
1. Biopiracy
2. Bioenergetics
3. Bioremediation
4. Bioprospecting

35.

An example of ex-situ conservation is:
1. National park
2. Seed bank
3. Wildlife sanctuary
4. Sacred grove

36. The following image represents what type of population:

1.	Finite Population	2.	Declining Population
3.	Stabilising Population	4.	Expanding Population

37.

The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called
1. Secondary productivity
2. Standing crop
3. Gross primary productivity
4. Net primary productivity

38. Calotropis are avoided by grazing herbivores because they produce:

1.	stipules	2.	thorns
3.	mustard oils	4.	cardiac glycosides

39.

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in the green land ecosystem:

Column I		Column II
(1)	Fourth trophic level	(i)	Cow
(2)	Second trophic level	(ii)	Vulture
(3)	First trophic level	(iii)	Rabbit
(4)	Third trophic level	(iv)	Grass

Select the correct option:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

40. An epiphyte is a plant that:

I:	grows on other plants for physical support
II:	affects the host negatively

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

41.

Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
1. Co - extinctions
2. Over - exploitation
3. Alien species invasion
4. Habitat loss and fragmentation

42. Given below are two population pyramids, both of India, one for year 2000 and another for year 2020:

1.	Pyramid A is of 2020 as it has a broader base
2.	Pyramid B is of 2000 as it has more females in the younger age groups
3.	Pyramid B is of 2020 as it has more females in the younger age groups
4.	Pyramid A is of 2000 as it has a broader base

Biology 2 - Section B

43. The First Tiger Reserve of India is in:
1. Kerala
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Assam
4. Uttarakhand

44.

According to Robert May, global species diversity is about:
1. 20 Million
2. 50 Million
3. 7 Million
4. 1.5 Million

45.

The extent of the global diversity of invertebrates is represented in the image below. Choose the correct combination of groups (A-D) respectively:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Insects	Crustaceans	Other animal groups	Molluscs
2.	Crustaceans	Insects	Molluscs	Other animal groups
3.	Molluscs	Other animal groups	Crustaceans	Insects
4	Insects	Molluscs	Crustaceans	Other animal groups

46. The Amazon Forest:

I:	is a largely tropical rainforest in South Africa
II:	has the greatest biodiversity on Earth
III:	produces about 20% of total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere through photosynthesis

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

47. What type of argument for need to conserve biodiversity am I making when I say that we all must do our best to protect the biodiversity on the Earth as the nature provides invaluable services and intangible benefits like aesthetic pleasures of being in nature?

1.	Narrowly utilitarian	2.	Broadly utilitarian
3.	Ethical	4.	Useless

48.

Assertion (A):	It makes sense to make concentrated efforts to conserve hotspots of biodiversity.
Reason (R):	They cover majority of the area of the planet earth.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

49. Intangible benefits like aesthetic pleasures of walking through thick woods is a strong argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. This type of argument is called as:
1. Narrowly utilitarian
2. Ethical
3. Broadly utilitarian
4. Sustainable

50. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Connell	Competitive release
2.	Gauss	Competitive exclusion principle
3.	MacArthur	Resource partitioning
4.	Tillman	Rivet popper hypothesis

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