High Yield Test #4 (Level 1)

Botany - Section A

1.

The arrangement of nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plant is:
1. 2 + 4 + 2
2. 3 + 2 + 3
3. 2 + 3 + 3
4. 3 + 3 + 2

2.

DNA polymerase:

A.	is the main enzyme for RNA synthesis
B.	is DNA dependent DNA polymerizing enzyme
C.	is a highly efficient enzyme
D.	catalyzes a reaction with a high degree of accuracy

Choose the correct statements from the above:
1. C and D

2. A, B, C and D
3. B, C and D
4. A, B and C

3.

In 1900, Mendel’s work was rediscovered by:
1. Korana, Nirenberg and Mathei
2. De Vries, Correns and von Tschermak
3. Avery, McCleod and McCarty
4. Watson, Crick and Wilkins

4.

The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of:
1. IARI
2. KVIC
3. Both 1 and 2
4. IAIR

5.

Which of the following criteria should be fulfilled by a molecule to act as a genetic material?

(i)	It should not be able to generate its replica
(ii)	It should chemically and structurally be stable
(iii)	It should not allow slow mutation
(iv)	It should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian Characters

1.	(i) and (ii)
2.	(ii) and (iii)
3.	(iii) and (iv)
4.	(ii) and (iv)

6.

Which of the following is not true about Big Bang theory?

1.	A singular huge explosion
2.	Universe expanded and the temperature came down
3.	Hydrogen and Helium formed along with this expansion
4.	The gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present-day universe.

7.

An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem?
1. Forest
2. Marine
3. Grassland
4. Tundra

8.

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1.	Cyanobacteria often form blooms in polluted water bodies
2.	Body of slime moulds moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing inorganic material
3.	RNA of the viroid is low molecular weight
4.	Lichens do not grow in polluted areas

9.

Which of the following roots are respiratory roots?
1. Epiphytic Roots
2. Stilt Roots
3. Prop Roots
4. Pneumatophores

10.

Which of the following is true about chromatophores?
1. It’s a plasma membrane infolding
2. site of photosynthesis
3. contain pigments
4. All of the above

11.

Mark the incorrect option with respect to abscisic acid:

1.	Increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses
2.	It induces flowering in some long day plants
3.	It plays an important role in seed development and maturation
4.	In most situations, it acts as an antagonist to gibberellins

12. Name of the author in a biological name:

1.	is never included.
2.	is always Latinised.
3.	is written before the generic name, in full and in capital letters.
4.	appears after the specific epithet, i.e., at the end of the biological name and is written in an abbreviated form.

13. Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme:

1.	Sucrase	2.	Glucokinase
3.	Zymase	4.	Invertase

14. An interesting example of fungus that is also used as a fungicide is:
1. Trichoderma harzianum
2. Botrytis cinerea
3. Fusarium graminearum
4. Penicillium camemberti

15.

A cell at telophase stage brought from the field is observed by a student. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of a cell plate and thus the cell is containing more chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:
1. polyploidy
2. somaclonal variation
3. polyteny
4. aneuploidy

16.

Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour. How many documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India?

1.	27	2.	270
3.	13	4.	230

17. In the fully developed female gametophyte of a typical angiosperm:

1.	three cells are grouped together at the chalazal end to constitute the egg apparatus
2.	three cells are grouped together at the micropylar and are called antipodals
3.	antipodals have special cellular thickenings called as filiform apparatus
4.	polar nuclei are located in the large central cell

18.

Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?
1. Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions
2. Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
3. Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
4. Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions

19.

Which of the following helps in termination of transcription?
1. Sigma factor
2. Translocase
3. Ubiquitin
4. Rho factor

20. A scientifically sound estimate that the global species diversity may be about 7 million has been made by:

1.	Paul Ehlrich	2.	David Tilman
3.	Robert May	4.	MacArthur

21.

DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with:
1. Chilled chloroform
2. isopropanal
3. Chilled ethanol
4. Methanol at room temperature

22. Seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo development in all of the following, except:

1.	wheat	2.	maize
3.	castor	4.	groundnut

23. Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize field ecosystem?

1.	Grasshopper	2.	Wolf
3.	Phytoplankton	4.	Lion

24.

If one wants to write a whole reaction of Krebs’ cycle, then how many water molecules are utilized in net calculation?
1. Two
2. One
3. Three
4. Four

25.

Study the pathway given below. In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks a,b and c are indicated?

	(a)	(b)	(c)
1.	Carboxylation	Decarboxylation	Reduction
2.	Decarboxylation	Reduction	Regeneration
3.	Fixation	Transamination	Regeneration
4.	fixation	Decarboxylation	Regeneration

26.

A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20, and emigration 30. The net increase in population is:

1.	10	2.	15
3.	5	4.	zero

27.

Companion cells are closely associated with:

1.	Sieve elements	2.	Vessel elements
3.	Trichomes	4.	Guard cells

28.

Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

1.	Spirogyra	2.	Volvox
3.	Fucus	4.	Chlamydomonas

29. In the mitochondrial Electron Transport System, Cytochrome c:

1.	is a small protein attached to the inner surface of the outer membrane and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
2.	is a small protein attached to the outer surface of the inner membrane and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV.
3.	is a lipid present within the inner membrane and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex I and II.
4.	is a lipid present within the inner membrane and acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex II and III.

30.

Wine and beer are produced:
1. By distillation only
2. By fermentation and distillation
3. By fermentation but without distillation
4. Without fermentation and distillation

31.

Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an organism which has:
1. Inert crystalline
2. Abnormally folded protein
3. Free RNA without protein coat
4. Free DNA without protein coat

32.

Match Column I with Column II

	Column I		Column II
(a)		(i)	Brassicaceae
(b)		(ii)	Liliaceae
(c)		(iii)	Fabaceae
(d)		(iv)	Solanaceae

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)

33.

Which of the following statement is not associated with the phenomenon of flowering?

1.	Decision for flowering takes place much before actual flower appears.
2.	During flowering several structural and hormonal changes takes place.
3.	During flowering differentiation takes place.
4.	Flowering is independent of environmental factors.

34.

Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I		Column II
(a)	Dominance	(i)	Many govern a single character
(b)	Codominance	(ii)	In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
(c)	Pleiotropy	(iii)	In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully
(d)	Polygenic inheritance	(iv)	A single gene influences many characters

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

35.

In genetic code dictionary, codons used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids are:

1.	20	2.	60
3.	61	4.	64

Botany - Section B

36. A fungus that is itself used as a fungicide is:
1. Trichoderma harzianum
2. Fusarium graminaream
3. Penicillium chrysogenum
4. Phytophthora infestans

37.

Which of the following is incorrect?
1. Pili and Fimbriae play role in motility
2. Flagella, pili, and fimbriae are surface structures
3. Fimbriae help in attachment to surfaces
4. Both A and C

38.

Promotion of rooting in stem cuttings in plants can be promoted by the use of:
1. Gas
2. Ethylene
3. Auxins
4. Cytokinins

39.

Select the correct statements:

a.	Tapetum cells possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus
b.	Sporopollenin is absent in the areas called germ pore
c.	The generative cell is large, spindle-shaped with a irregularly shaped nuclei
d.	The spindle of first mitosis in pollen is asymmetric

1.	a, b, c, & d
2.	a, b, & c
3.	a, c, & d
4.	a, b, & d

40.

In the seeds of maize, the seed coat:
1. Is fused with the pericarp
2. Store aleurone grains
3. Is membranous and triploid
4. Has an outgrowth, called strophiole

41.

Which fungi are edible?
1. Truffles
2. Morels
3. Agaricus
4 All of these

42.

Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:

1.	More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition
2.	Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
3.	No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources
4.	Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition

43. Pollen grain intine:
I: is the inner wall
II: is composed of sporopollenin
III: has prominent apertures

1.	Only I is correct	2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II is correct	4.	I, II, III are incorrect

44. Which enzyme is associated with Complex II of the mitochondrial Electron Transport System?
1. NADH dehydrogenase
2. Succinate dehydrogenase
3. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
4. Malate dehydrogenase

45.

Who gave the law of limiting factors and when?
1. Lieman-1906
2. Blackman-1905
3. Lieman-1905
4. Blackman-1906

46.

When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner on different radii, such arrangement is called _______ and found mostly in __________.

1. Radial, roots
2. Radial, shoots
3. Conjoint, roots
4. Conjoint, shoots

47.

After glycolysis, the fate of glucose in the mitochondrial matrix is:
1. oxidation
2. reduction
3. oxidative decarboxylation
4. hydrolysis.

48.

Which of the following is not matched correctly?

1.	Artificial system of classification	Equal weightage to vegetative and sexual character
2.	Natural system of classification	Based on natural affinities
3.	Phylogenetic system	Common ancestor for unrelated taxa
4.	Numerical taxonomy	Equal importance to all character

49.

Concanavalin A is:

1.	a pigment	2.	an alkaloid
3.	an essential oil	4.	a lectin

50.

A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics:

1.	Late anaphase	Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present
2.	Cytokinesis	Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells
3.	Telophase	Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet
4.	Telophase	Nuclear envelop reforms, Golgi complex reforms

Zoology - Section A

51.

Which one of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the transport of carbon dioxide in blood?

1.	About 20-25 percent of carbon dioxide is carried by haemoglobin in the form of carbaminohaemoglobin
2.	70 percent of ${CO}_{2}$ is carried in a dissolved state through plasma
3.	As the blood picks up carbon dioxide from tissue, ${HCO}_{3}^{-}$ accumulates inside RBCs of which some move out into the blood plasma, and in exchange chloride ions move from plasma into RBCs
4.	The greatest percentage of carbon dioxide is transported in blood plasma as bicarbonate ions

52.

The embryo at the morula stage contains:

1.	4 blastomeres	2.	30 blastomeres
3.	32 to 64 blastomeres	4.	8 to 16 blastomeres

53.

What will be the ratio of number of microtubules in peripheral and central parts of the axoneme in a eukaryotic flagellum?

1.	9 : 2	2.	9 : 0
3.	9 : 1	4.	27 : 0

54.

Upon complete burning of the tissue, all the carbon compounds are oxidized to:
1. Gaseous form (NH₃, CO₂)
2. Gaseous form (CO₂, water vapour)
3. Solid form (CO₂, water vapour)
4. Liquid form (CH₄, CO₂)

55. The direct source of energy for myosin to allow the filaments to contract is:
1. adenosine diphosphate
2. ATP
3. creatine phosphate
4. creatinine

56. Thoracic chamber is formed:

(i)	Dorsally by vertebral column
(ii)	Ventrally by sternum
(iii)	Laterally by ribs
(iv)	Lower side by diaphragm

1.	(i) and (iii) only
2.	(i), (ii) and (iii) only
3.	(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
4.	(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

57. Match the following columns and select the correct match:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Heart attack	(I)	Heart stops beating
(b)	Cardiac arrest	(II)	Not enough oxygen is reaching heart muscles leading to chest pain
(c)	Heart failure	(III)	Heart is not pumping blood effectively to meet the body's demand
(d)	Angina	(IV)	Heart muscles suddenly damaged by the inadequate blood supply

Options:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(IV)	(I)	(II)	(III)
2.	(IV)	(I)	(III)	(II)
3.	(I)	(IV)	(III)	(II)
4.	(I)	(III)	(II)	(IV)

58. Choose the correct sequence on the basis of their decreasing toxicity:
1. Uric acid - Urea - Ammonia
2. Ammonia - Uric acid - Urea
3. Uric acid - Ammonia - Urea
4. Ammonia - Urea - Uric acid

59.

Match the columns:-

Column l		Column ll
(a)	Rosie	(i)	α - 1 antitrypsin
(b)	ELISA	(ii)	Protein enriched milk
(c)	ROP	(iii)	Test to detect antigen or antibody
(d)	Emphysema	(iv)	Codes for protein involved in plasmid replication

Options:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)
3.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)

60.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth.
II:	Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and is characterized by memory
III:	Memory-based acquired immunity developed in higher vertebrates based on ability to distinguish self from non-self

Which of the following statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

61.

Visceral nervous system:

1.	is a part of PNS
2.	is made up of Nerves, Fibres, Ganglia and Plexuses
3.	transmits information from CNS to the viscera and viscera to CNS
4.	All of the above

62.

A man has tumor in thyroid gland which adversely affects the body physiology. This is because of:

1.	hyperthyroidism	2.	hypothyroidism
3.	Both 1 and 2	4.	None of the above

63.

Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in:
1. Wasp and Physalia
2. Adamsia and Scorpion
3. Sea pen and Sea fan
4. Meandrina and Tapeworm

64.

Insertional inactivation of the lac Z gene forms-

1.	Blue recombinant colonies
2.	Colourless recombinant colonies
3.	Fluorescent green colonies
4.	There is no relation between the lac Z gene and colour of the colony.

65.

Which of the following pairs of organs do not represent analogous organs?
1. Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal
2. Flippers of penguin and flippers of dolphin
3. Wings of bat and forelimbs of humans
4. Wings of birds and wings of butterfly

66.

Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Mendelism - Genetics of haploid
2. Polydactyly - X-linked dominant
3. Blood group - More than two forms of a gene
4. Lethal gene - 1 : 2 : 1

67.

Read the given statement:
For normal fertility in a healthy human male, at least __a__ % of ejaculated sperms must have normal shape and size and at least __b__ % of them must show vigorous motility. Choose the option that fills the respective blanks correctly 'a' & 'b':
1. 60 & 40
2. 40 & 60
3. 80 & 20
4. 70 & 30

68. How many applications given in the box below are applications of biotechnology?

Energy Production, Waste treatment,
Bioremediation, Diagnostics

1. Four
2. Three
3. Two
4. One

69. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	An individual may have births and deaths, but a population has birth rates and death rates.
Statement II:	An individual is either a male or a female but a population has a sex ratio.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

70.

The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesized:
1. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
2. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
3. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
4. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys

71. During the contraction of a skeletal muscle, calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind with:

1.	F actin	2.	G actin
3.	troponin	4.	tropomyosin

72.

Given diagram shows bone of the left human hind limb as seen from front. It has certain mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly labelled bones are:

1. tibia and tarsals
2. femur and fibula
3. fibula and phalanges
4. tarsals and femur

73.

The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and / or host tissues are:
1. Fimbriae
2. Mesosomes
3. Holdfast
4. Rhizoids

74.

Plasmid pBR322 has a PstI restriction enzyme site within gene amp^R that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for $β$ -galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain, then:

1.	it will lead to the lysis of host cells.
2.	it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual abilities.
3.	it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
4.	the transformed cells will have the ability to resist ampicillin as well as produce $β$ -galactoside.

75. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Electrical synapse are rarer than chemical synapse in human body.
Reason (R):	Electrical synapse are faster than the chemical synapse.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True; (R) is False
3.	(A) is False; (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

76.

Which of the following hormone regulates sleep-wake cycle ?

1. Melatonin
2. Thyroxine
3. Vasopressin
4. MSH

77.

Choose the correct pair:

1.	Physical barriers	HCl in stomach, saliva in mouth
2.	Cellular barriers	PMNL, NK cells
3.	Physiological barriers	Mucosa of gut, urogenital tract
4.	Cytokine barriers	Exotoxins

78.

In a specie, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?

1.	Cyclical selection	2.	Directional selection
3.	Stabilizing selection	4.	Disruptive selection

79.

Match the Column I and Column II

Column I		Column II
(a)	P-waves	(i)	Depolarisation of ventricles
(b)	QRS complex	(ii)	Repolarization of ventricles
(c)	T-wave	(iii)	Coronary ischemia
(d)	Reduction in the size of T-wave	(iv)	Depolarisation of atria
		(v)	Repolarization of atria

Select the correct option

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(v)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(v)
4.	(ii)	(i)	(v)	(iii)

80.

Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following:

1.	Chondrocytes	Smooth muscle cells
2.	Neurons	Nerve cells
3.	Fibroblast	Areolar tissue
4.	Osteocytes	Bone cells

81.

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Pneumotaxic Centre	(i)	Alveoli
(b)	O₂ Dissociation curve	(ii)	Pons region of brain
(c)	Carbonic Anhydrase	(iii)	Haemoglobin
(d)	Primary site of exchange of gases	(iv)	R.B.C.

Options:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
2.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)	(i)
4.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)

82.

Match Column I with Column II.

Column I		Column II
(a)	Vaults	(i)	Entry of sperm through the cervix is blocked
(b)	IUDs	(ii)	Removal of Vas deferens
(c)	Vasectomy	(iii)	Phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus
(d)	Tubectomy	(iv)	Removal of the fallopian tube

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
2.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
3.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)

83.

Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

1.	Macropus	2.	Ornithorhynchus
3.	Neophron	4.	Hemidactylus

84. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (a-d) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly?

	A	B	C	D
1.	Potential energy	Transition state	Activation energy with enzyme	Activation energy without enzyme
2.	Transition state	Potential energy	Activation energy without enzyme	Activation energy with enzyme
3.	Potential energy	Transition state	Activation energy with enzyme	Activation energy without enzyme
4.	Activation energy with enzyme	Transition state	Activation energy without enzyme	Potential energy

85.

The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of A-F have been correctly identified?

1.	C	lnfundibulum	D	Fimbriae	E	Cervix
2.	D	Oviducal funnel	E	Uterus	F	Cervix
3.	A	Perimetrium	B	Myometrium	C	Fallopian tube
4.	B	Endometrium	C	Infundibulum	D	Fimbriae

Zoology - Section B

86.

In the process of respiration, how many times exchange of gases by the process of diffusion takes place in respiration?
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

87.

The number of RBC in a healthy individual are:
1. 5 million to 5.5 million RBCs
2. 5 billion to 5.5 billion RBCs
3. 1 million to 1.5 million RBCs
4. 1 billion to 1.5 billion RBCs

88.

Consider the following statements:

I.	Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic
II.	Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and cartilaginous fishes are ureotelic
III.	Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects are uricotelic

Which of the above statements are true ?

1.	I and II only
2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only
4.	I,II, and III

89.

Which event surely leads to pregnancy?

1.	Unprotected coitus	2.	Fertilization
3.	Implantation	4.	Gestation

90.

Read the following paragraph having three blanks A, B and C.
Subphyla Urochordata and Cephalochordata are often referred to as protochordates and are A , marine. In B , notochord is present only in larval tail, while in C it extends from head to tail region and is persistent throughout their life.
The correct option for the three blanks is:

	A	B	C
1.	Generally	Urochordata	Cephalochordata
2.	Exclusively	Cephalochordata	Urochordata
3.	Exclusively	Herdmania	Branchiostoma
4.	Generally	Ascidia	Branchiostoma

91. Biological theft, illegal collection of indigenous plants by corporations who patent them for their own use, comes under:

1.	Bioprospecting	2.	Bioremediation
3.	Biopiracy	4.	Bioethics

92.

Which of the following step is incorrect with respect to DNA fingerprinting?

1.	Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
2.	Isolation of DNA
3.	Hybridisation using labeled VNTR probe
4.	Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by ultracentrifugation

93.

Mammals evolved from:
1. Therapsids
2. Sauropsids
3. Thecodonts
4. Tuataras

94.

A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly A-D:

1.	A	Receptor	C	Synaptic vesicles
2.	B	Synaptic connection	D	K⁺
3.	A	Neurotransmitter	B	Synaptic cleft
4.	C	Neurotransmitter	D	Ca²⁺

95.

Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function:

	Source gland	Hormone	Function
1.	Posterior pituitary	Vasopressin	Stimulates reabsorption of water in the distal tubules in the nephron
2.	Corpus luteum	Prolactin	Supports pregnancy
3.	Thyroid	Thyroxine	Regulates blood calcium level
4.	Anterior pituitary	Oxytocin	Contraction of uterus muscles during childbirth

96.

A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular junction releases …………. which generates an action potential in the ………..
1. Acetylcholine, Sarcolemma
2. Inositol, Sarcolemma
3. GABA, Sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. GABA, Sarcoplasm

97. Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate the pollination process. This is an example of:

1.	Amensalism	2.	Competition
3.	Commensalism	4.	Mutualism

98.

The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?

1.	ori	original restriction enzyme
2.	rop	reduced osmotic pressure
3.	Hind III, EcoRI	selectable markers
4.	amp^R, tet^R	antibiotic resistance genes

99.

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?

1.	The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person
2.	Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection
3.	AIDS patients are being fully cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition
4.	The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers

100.

Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs?

I.	Increase phagocytosis of sperms
II.	Release Cu ions that suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
III.	Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
IV.	Make the cervix hostile to sperms
V.	Prevent semen from entering the female reproductive tract.

1.	I, II, III, IV and V
2.	I, II, III and IV
3.	I and II
4.	II, III and IV

Chemistry - Section A

101.

If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the reaction is given by:
1. t=2.303/k
2. t=0.693/k
3. t=6.909/k
4. t=4.606/k

102.

Which of the following compounds will show retention in the configuration on nucleophilic substitution by OH^– ion ?
1. ${CH}_{3} - CH (C_{2} H_{5}) - {CH}_{2} Br$
2. ${CH}_{3} - CH (C_{6} H_{5}) - Br$
3. ${CH}_{3} - CH ({CH}_{3}) - Br$
4. ${CH}_{3} - CH (Br) - C_{6} H_{13}$

103. Consider the following statements:

(a)	Crystal field theory (CFT) considers the metal-ligand bond to be covalent, arising purely from overlapping between the metal ion and the ligand.
(b)	Octacarbonyldicobalt (0) has a Co-Co bond.
(c)	Ruby is an aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) containing about 0.5–1% Zn²⁺ ions.

The correct statement(s) is/are:
1. "a" and "b" only
2. "b" and "c" only
3. "c" only
4. "b" only

104.

Consider the given statements:

Statement I:	$Eu^{2+}$ acts as a reducing agent.
Statement II:	The +3 oxidation state is more common among lanthanoids.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct.
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect.
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct.
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect.

105. In which of the following ionization processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
1. $\mathrm{O_{2}\rightarrow O_{2}^{+} }$
2. $\mathrm{C_{2}\rightarrow C_{2}^{+} }$
3. $\mathrm{NO\rightarrow NO^{+} }$
4. $\mathrm{N_{2}\rightarrow N_{2}^{+} }$

106.

'A' and 'B' in the following reactions are:

	A	B		A	B
1.			2.
3.			4.

107. Match column I (Reaction) with column II (Product formed) and mark the appropriate choice:

	Column - I (Reaction)		Column - II (Product formed)
(a)	Gabriel synthesis	(i)	Benzaldehyde
(b)	Kolbe synthesis	(ii)	Ethers
(c)	Williamson synthesis	(iii)	Primary amines
(d)	Etard reaction	(iv)	Salicylic acid

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)
2.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)

108.

Among the following allotropic forms of sulphur, the allotropic form paramagnetic in nature is:

1.	$α$ -sulphur	2.	$β$ -sulphur
3.	S₂-form	4.	None of the above

109.

Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and glucose is present in lactose?
1. C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose
2. C-1 of glucose and C-6 of galactose
3. C-1 of glucose and C-4 of galactose
4. C-1 of galactose and C-6 of glucose

110.

The correct match between Item-I (starting material) and Item-II (reagent) for the preparation of benzaldehyde is :

Item-I		Item-II
(I)	Benzene	(P)	$HCl and {SnCl}_{2}, H_{3} O^{+}$
(II)	Benzonitrile	(Q)	$H_{2}, Pd - {BaSO}_{4},$
(III)	Benzoyl Chloride	(R)	$CO, HCl and {AlCl}_{3}$

Options:

	(I)	(II)	(III)
1.	(Q)	(R)	(P)
2.	(R)	(Q)	(P)
3.	(R)	(P)	(Q)
4.	(P)	(Q)	(R)

111.

Identify A and B in the chemical reaction:

1.
2.
3.
4.

112.

The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
a. n = 4, $l$ = 1
b. n = 4, $l$ = 0
c. n = 3, $l$ = 2
d. n = 3, $l$ = 1

1.	(d) < (b) < (c) < (a)	2.	(b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
3.	(a) < (c) < (b) < (d)	4.	(c) < (d) < (b) < (a)

113.

Among mass, volume, density and specific volume of a gas, the intensive properties are:
1. Density and specific volume
2. Volume and density
3. Specific volume and mass
4. Density only

114.

The plot of ln k vs ${1 \over T}$ for the following reaction
$2N_2O_5(g) \rightarrow 4NO_2 (g) + O_2(g) $ gives a straight line with the slope of the line equal to $-1.0 \times 10^4 K $.
The activation energy for the reaction in J mol^–1 is:
(Given R = 8.3 J K^–¹ mol^–¹)

1.	$4.0 \times 10^2 $	2.	$4.0 \times 10^{-2} $
3.	$8.3 \times 10^{-4} $	4.	$8.3 \times 10^4 $

115.

The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction A + B ⇋ C + D is 100.
If the initial concentration of all the four species were 1 M each,
then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L^–1) will be :

1.	0.182	2.	0.818
3.	1.818	4.	1.182

116.

The major products formed in the following reaction are:

1.		2.
3.		4.

117.

The freezing point of a solution containing 8.1 g HBr in 100 g water assuming the acid to be 90% ionised is:
(k_f for water = 1.86 K mol^-1)
1. 0.85 $°$ C
2. -3.53 $°$ C
3. 0 $°$ C
4. -0.35 $°$ C

118.

The oxidation number of carbon in carbon suboxide is:
1. $+ \frac{2}{3}$
2. $+ \frac{4}{3}$
3. +4
4. $- \frac{4}{3}$

119.

In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property indicated against it?

1.	Li < Na < K < Rb : Increasing metallic radius
2.	I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
3.	B < C < N < O: Increasing first ionisation enthalpy
4.	Al³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F^- : Increasing ionic size

120.

How many moles of magnesium phosphate, Mg₃(PO₄)₂, contain 0.25 moles of oxygen atoms?

1.	0.02	2.	3.125 × 10^–2
3.	1.25 × 10^–2	4.	2.5 × 10^–2

121.

Match the statements given in List I with the corresponding element given in List II:

List-I (Characteristics)		List-II (Elements)
(a)	Element that exhibits +3 oxidation state only.	(i)	Mn
(b)	An element that exhibits more number of oxidation states.	(ii)	Zn
(c)	Element which is a reducing agent in its +2 oxidation state.	(iii)	Sc
(d)	An element that is not considered as a transition element.	(iv)	Cr

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)

122.

The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then the mass remaining undecayed after 24 hours is:
1. 1.042 g
2. 2.084 g
3. 3.125 g
4. 4.167 g

123.

The structure of the compound that gives a tribromo derivative on treatment with bromine water is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

124.

The number of EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) molecules that are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca²⁺ ion is/are:
1. Six
2. Three
3. One
4. Two

125.

Geometrical isomerism is not shown by:
1. 1,1-Dichloro-1-pentene
2. 1,2-Dichloro-1-pentene
3. 1,3-Dichloro-2-pentene
4. 1,4-Dichloro-2-pentene

126.

Ce³⁺ , La³⁺ , Pm³⁺ and Yb³⁺ have ionic radii in the increasing order as:
1. La³⁺ < Ce³⁺< Pm³⁺< Yb³⁺
2. Yb³⁺ < Pm³⁺ < Ce³⁺ < La³⁺
3. La³⁺ = Ce³⁺< Pm³⁺ < Yb³⁺
4. Yb³⁺ < Pm³⁺< La³⁺ < Ce³⁺

127.

pH of 0.005M calcium acetate (pk_aof CH₃COOH = 4.74) is:

1.	7.04	2.	9.37
3.	9.26	4.	8.37

128.

On vigorous oxidation by potassium permanganate solution, (CH₃)₂ C = CHCH₂CHO gives:

1.	(CH₃)₂CO and OHCCH₂CHO
2.
3.	(CH₃)₂CO and OHCH₂CHO
4.	(CH₃)₂CO and CH₂(COOH)₂

129.

$\mathrm{Zn}(s)+\mathrm{Cu}^{2+}(0.1 \mathrm{M}) \rightarrow \mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(1 \mathrm{M})+\mathrm{Cu}(s)$
For the redox reaction taking place in a cell , $E^o_{cell}$ is 1.10 volt . E_cell for the cell will be:
$\left(2.303 \frac{R T}{F}=0.0591\right) $

1.	2.14 V	2.	1.80 V
3.	1.07 V	4.	0.82 V

130. $\begin{aligned} & \mathrm{Na}_2 \mathrm{~S}+\mathrm{Na}_2\left[\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CN})_5 \mathrm{NO}\right] \longrightarrow \text A \\ & \text { Sodium nitroprusside } \\ & \end{aligned} $
The formula of A is:

1.	$Na_4[Fe(CN)_5NOS]$	2.	$Na_2[Fe(CN)_5NOS]$
3.	$K_4[Fe(CN)_5NOS]$	4.	$K_2 [Fe(CN)_4NOS]$

131. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the given four element is:

1.	C < N < F < O	2.	C < N < O < F
3.	C < O < N < F	4.	C < F < N < O

132.

Which of the following structure is similar to graphite ?
1. B
2. B₄C
3. B₂H₆
4. BN

133.

Statement I:	The standard enthalpy change for the formation of one mole of a compound from its elements in their most stable states (reference states) is called standard molar enthalpy of formation.
Statement II:	For, CaO(s)+ CO₂ (g) → CaCO₃(s) ; ∆_fH^⊝ = -178.3 kJmol^-1 , the ∆_rH^⊝ is equal to the ∆_fH^⊝ .

1. Both statements I and II are true.
2. Statement I is true and statement II is false.
3. Both statements I and II are false.
4. Statement I is false, statement II is true.

134. The ratio of σ bond and π bond in naphthalene is:
1. 8 : 4
2. 2 : 1
3. 17 : 4
4. 19 : 5

135. What is the correct order of bond dissociation energies for the bonds indicated by arrows in the given compound?

1.	1 < 2 < 3	2.	3 < 2 < 1
3.	2 < 3 < 1	4.	3 < 1 < 2

Chemistry - Section B

136.

When 1 mole of ${CrCl}_{3} 6 H_{2} O$ is treated with excess of ${AgNO}_{3},$ 3 moles of $AgCl$ are obtained. The formula of the complex is:
1. [CrCl₃(H₂O)₃].3H₂O
2. [CrCl₂(H₂O)₄]Cl.2H₂O
3. [CrCl₃(H₂O)₅]Cl₂.H₂O
4. [Cr(H₂O)₆]Cl₃

137.

In qualitative analysis when $H_{2} S$ is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dil. HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. $H N O_{3}$ , it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives:
1. Deep blue precipitate of Cu(OH)₂
2. Deep blue precipitate of [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺
3. Deep blue precipitate of Cu(NO₃)₂
4. Deep blue solution of Cu(OH)₂. Cu(NO₃)₂

138.

Acetaldehyde reacts with semicarbazide to yield the following as a product:

1.	$ {CH_3CH=NHNH_2} ~$
2.	${CH_3CH=NCONHNH_2}~~~$
3.	${CH_3CH=NNH-CO-NH_2}~~~~~$
4.

139.

The major product of the following reaction is :

1.		2.
3.		4.

140.

Among the following, the molecule expected to be stabilized by anion formation is : C₂, O₂, NO, F₂
1. NO
2. O₂
3. C₂
4. F₂

141.

The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is :
0.1 M Formic acid (A),
0.1 M Acetic acid (B),
0.1 M Benzoic acid (C)
1. A > B > C
2. A > C > B
3. C > B > A
4. C > A > B

142.

The mass of ammonia in grams produced when 2.8 kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts
with 1 kg of dihydrogen is:

1.	3600 g	2.	3000 g
3.	3400 g	4.	4000 g

143.

For the reaction $2 A + 3 B + \frac{3}{2} C \to 3 P$ , the correct statement is:

1.	$\frac{d n_{A}}{d t} = \frac{2}{3} \frac{d n_{B}}{d t} = \frac{3}{4} \frac{d n_{C}}{d t}$
2.	$\frac{d n_{A}}{d t} = \frac{3}{2} \frac{d n_{B}}{d t} = \frac{3}{4} \frac{d n_{C}}{d t}$
3.	$\frac{d n_{A}}{d t} = \frac{d n_{B}}{d t} = \frac{d n_{C}}{d t}$
4.	$\frac{d n_{A}}{d t} = \frac{2}{3} \frac{d n_{B}}{d t} = \frac{4}{3} \frac{d n_{C}}{d t}$

144.

If 250 cm³ of an aqueous solution containing 0.73 g of a protein A is isotonic with one litre of another aqueous solution containing 1.66 g of a protein B at 298 K, the ratio of the molecular masses of A and B is:
1. 1.54
2. 1.77
3. 1.65
4. 1.60

145.

At 1990 K and 1 atm pressure, there are an equal number of Cl₂ molecules and Cl atoms in the reaction mixture.
The value of K_P for the reaction ${Cl}_{2 (g)} ⇌ 2 {Cl}_{(g)}$ under the above conditions is x × 10^–1. The value of x is:
1. 4
2. 8
3. 5
4. 10

146.

Which option correctly describes the shape and $\text{I–I–I}$ bond angle of the ${I}_3^-$ ion, respectively?
1. Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90°
2. T-shaped; 180° and 90
3. Trigonal planar; 120°
4. Linear; 180°

147.

For a chemical reaction A + B $⇌$ C + D ( $∆$ _rH⁰ = 80 kJ mol^–1 ) the entropy change $∆$ _rS⁰ depends on the temperature T (in K) as $∆$ _rS⁰ = 2T (JK^–1 mol^–1 ). The minimum temperature at which it will become spontaneous is:

1.	200 K	2.	250 K
3.	300 K	4.	350 K

148.

29.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's method and the evolved ammonia were absorbed in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

1.	29.5	2.	23.7
3.	47.4	4.	59.0

149.

Which of the following compounds is non-aromatic?

1.		2.
3.		4.

150.

The strongest ortho/para directing group is:
1. −NH₂
2. −CH₃
3. −Cl
4. −C₂H₅

Physics - Section A

151.

A bob of mass $m$ attached to an inextensible string of length $l$ is suspended from a vertical support. The bob rotates in a horizontal circle with an angular speed $\omega$ rad/s about the vertical. About the point of suspension:

1.	angular momentum changes in magnitude but not in direction.
2.	angular momentum changes in direction but not in magnitude.
3.	angular momentum changes in both direction and magnitude.
4.	angular momentum is conserved.

152. In the circuit shown below, what will be the reading of the voltmeter and the ammeter respectively?

1. $800~\text{V}, 2~\text{A}$
2. $300~\text{V}, 2~\text{A}$
3. $220~\text{V}, 2.2~\text{A}$
4. $100~\text{V}, 2~\text{A}$

153. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment $0.4~\text{JT}^{-1}$ is placed in a uniform magnetic field of $0.16~\text{T}$. The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the potential energy is:
1. $0.064~\text{J}$
2. $-0.064~\text{J}$
3. zero
4. $-0.082~\text{J}$

154. The given network is part of a complete circuit. At a certain instant, the current is $3~\text{A}$ and is increasing at a rate of $200~\text{A/s}.$ The potential difference between points $A$ and $B$ $(V_A-V_B)$ is:

1.	$-3$ V	2.	$6$ V
3.	$-5$ V	4.	$15$ V

155. A semicircular conducting ring $PQR$ of radius $a$ is coming out of the uniform magnetic field. The potential difference developed across the semicircular ring when it is coming out:

1.	increases with time	2.	decreases with time
3.	remains constant	4.	no EMF is induced

156. A metal wire is first stretched beyond its elastic limit and then released. It:

1.	lost its elastic property completely and it will not contract.
2.	will contract to its original length.
3.	will contract to its length at elastic limit.
4.	will contract but the final length will be greater than the original length.

157. The transition from the state $n=3$ to $n=2$ in a hydrogen atom results in visible radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition:
1. $2\rightarrow 1$
2. $3 \rightarrow 2$
3. $4 \rightarrow 2$
4. $4 \rightarrow 3$

158. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is $U=\dfrac{M}{{r}^{6}}-\dfrac{N}{{r}^{12}},$ $M$ and $N$ being positive constant, then the potential energy at equilibrium must be:
1. zero
2. $\dfrac{M^{2}}{4N}$
3. $\dfrac{N^{2}}{4M}$
4. $\dfrac{MN^{2}}{4}$

159. The coefficient of cubical expansion of water is negative between $0^{\circ}\text{C}$ and:
1. $4^{\circ}\text{C}$
2. $10^{\circ}\text{C}$
3. $15.5^{\circ}\text{C}$
4. $100^{\circ}\text{C}$

160. For an ideal monoatomic gas, the universal gas constant $R$ is $n$ times the molar heat capacity at constant pressure $C_P.$ Here the value of $n$ is:
1. $0.67$
2. $1.4$
3. $0.4$
4. $1.67$

161. The least count of a stopwatch is $0.1$ sec. The time of $20$ oscillations of the pendulum is found to be $20$ sec. The percentage error in the time period is:
1. $0.25\%$
2. $0.5\%$
3. $0.75\%$
4. $1.0\%$

162. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length $L$ suspended below a balloon of mass $M$. The balloon is stationary with respect to the ground. If the man begins to climb up the rope at velocity ${\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}$ (relative to rope), in what direction and with what speed (relative to ground) will the balloon move?
1. $\overrightarrow{{V}}=\frac{m}{M}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}$
2. $\overrightarrow{{V}}={-}\frac{m}{M}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}$
3. $\overrightarrow{{V}}=-\frac{m}{\left({{m}+{M}}\right)}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}$
4. $\overrightarrow{{V}}=+\frac{m}{\left({{m}+{M}}\right)}{\overrightarrow{v}}_{rel}$

163. On any planet, the presence of atmosphere implies: (where $v_{rms}$ = root mean square velocity of molecules and $v_e$ = escape velocity)
1. $v_{rms}<v_e$
2. $v_{rms}>v_e$
3. $v_{rms}=v_e$
4. $v_{rms}=0$

164. Which of the following statements is true for a thermometer?

1.	Coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid must be greater than that of bulb material
2.	Coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid may be equal to that of bulb material
3.	Coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid must be less than that of bulb material
4.	None of the above

165. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density $0.04~\text{kg m}^{-1}$ is given by:
$y=(0.02~\text{m})\sin\left[{{2}\pi \left({\frac{t}{{0.04}~(\text{s})}-\frac{x}{{0.50}~(\text{m})}}\right)}\right].$ The tension in the string will be:

1.	$4.0~\text{N}$	2.	$12.5~\text{N}$
3.	$0.5~\text{N}$	4.	$6.25~\text{N}$

166. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The plates are pulled apart with a uniform speed $v$. If $x$ is the separation between the plates, then the time rate of change of the electrostatic energy of the condenser is proportional to:
1. $x^{2}$
2. $x $
3. $\dfrac{1}{x}$
4. $\dfrac{1}{{x}^{2}}$

167. Two protons $A$ and $B$ are placed in between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor charged to a potential difference $V$ as shown in the figure. If the forces on two protons are $F_A$ and $F_B$, then:

1.	$F_A>F_B$	2.	$F_A= F_B$
3.	$F_A<F_B$	4.	nothing can be predicted

168. The distance between an object and a divergent lens is $m$ times the focal length of the lens. The linear magnification produced by the lens is:

1.	$m$	2.	$\frac{1}{m}$
3.	$m+1$	4.	$\frac{1}{{m}{+}{1}}$

169. In an $LCR$ series AC circuit, the phase angle between current and voltage is:

1.	any angle between $0$ and $\pm{\pi}{/}{2}$
2.	$\mathit{\pi}{/}{2}$
3.	$\mathit{\pi}$
4.	any angle between $0$ and $\mathit{\pi}$

170. Maxwell's modified form of Ampere's Circuital law is:

1.	$\oint{\vec{{B}}}.d\vec{s} ={0}$
2.	$\oint{\vec{{B}}}.d\vec{l} ={\mathit{\mu}}_{0}{I}$
3.	$\oint{\vec{B}}.d\vec{l}={{\mu}}_{0}{I}+\dfrac{1}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\dfrac{dq}{dt}$
4.	$\oint{\vec{B}}.d\vec{l} ={{\mu}}_{0}{I}+{{\mu}}_{0}{\varepsilon}_{0}\dfrac{d{{\phi}}_{E}}{dt}$

171. The critical angle of a prism is $30^\circ.$ The velocity of light in the medium is:
1. $1.5\times{10}^{8}~\text{m/s}$
2. $3\times{10}^{8}~\text{m/s}$
3. $4.5\times{10}^{8}~\text{m/s}$
4. none of these

172. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities $9I$ and $4I$ are superposed. The maximum possible intensity in the resulting beam is:
1. $I$
2. $3I$
3. $16I$
4. $25I$

173. The frequency and the intensity of a beam of light falling on the surface of photoelectric material are increased by a factor of two. This will:

1.	increase the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons, as well as photoelectric current by a factor of two.
2.	increase the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons and would increase the photoelectric current by a factor of two.
3.	increase the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons by a factor of two and will have no effect on the magnitude of the photoelectric current produced.
4.	not produce any effect on the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons but will increase the photoelectric current by a factor of two.

174. $PQ$ and $RS$ are long parallel conductors separated by a certain distance. $M$ is the mid-point between them (see the figure). The net magnetic field at $M$ is $B$. Now, the current $2~\text{A}$ is switched off. The field at $M$ now becomes:

1.	$2B$	2.	$B$
3.	$B /2$	4.	$3B$

175. A radioactive decay chain starts from $_{93}\mathrm{Np}^{237}$ and produces $_{90}\mathrm{Th}^{229}$ by successive emissions. The emitted particles can be:

1.	three ${\beta}^{+}\text-$particles
2.	one $\alpha\text-$particle and two $\beta^{+}\text-$particles
3.	one $\alpha\text-$particle and two $\beta^{-}\text-$particles
4.	two $\alpha\text{-}$particles and one $\beta^{-}\text-$particle

176. The forbidden energy band gaps in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are $EG_{1},$ $EG_{2}$ and $EG_{3}$ respectively. The relation among them is:
1. $EG_{1}=EG_{2}=EG_{3}$
2. $EG_{1}<EG_{2}<EG_{3}$
3. $EG_{1}>EG_{2}>EG_{3}$
4. $EG_{1}<EG_{2}>EG_{3}$

177.

A $\mathrm{p}\text-$type of semiconductor is:
1. positively charged
2. negatively charged
3. uncharged
4. uncharged at $0~\text{K}$ but charged at higher temperatures

178. An arrow is shot into the air with a range of $200$ m and a flight time of $5$ s. Assuming $g$ to be $10~\text{m/s}^2,$ what is the horizontal component of the arrow's velocity?
1. $25~\text{m/s} $
2. $40~\text{m/s}$
3. $31.25~\text{m/s}$
4. $12.5~\text{m/s}$

179. A simple pendulum is vibrating in an evacuated chamber. It will oscillate with:

1.	constant amplitude	2.	decreasing amplitude
3.	increasing amplitude	4.	none of these

180. Four identical spheres each of radius $10~\text{cm}$ and mass $1~\text{kg}$ are placed on a horizontal surface touching one another so that their centres are located at the corners of the square of side $20~\text{cm}$. What is the distance of their centre of mass from centre of either sphere?
1. $5~\text{cm}$
2. $10~\text{cm}$
3. $20~\text{cm}$
4. none of these

181. The following graph shows two isotherms for a fixed mass of an ideal gas. The ratio of rms speed of the molecules at temperatures $T_2$ and $T_1$ is:

1. $2\sqrt{2}$
2. $\sqrt{2}$
3. $2$
4. $4$

182. A house is served by $220~\text{V}$ supply line. In a circuit protected by a fuse marked by $9~\text{A},$ the maximum number of $60~\text{W}$ lamps in parallel that can be turned on, is:
1. $44$
2. $20$
3. $22$
4. $33$

183. Two charged particles are projected into a region in which a magnetic field is perpendicular to their velocities. After they enter the magnetic field, it must be true that:

1.	the charges are deflected in opposite directions
2.	the charges continue to move in a straight line
3.	the charges move in circular paths
4.	the charges move in circular paths but in opposite directions

184. A mass is suspended from a vertical string in the cabin of a lift moving uniformly upwards. The tension in the string is:

1.	$T= T_0$	2.	$T>T_0$
3.	$T<T_0$	4.	$T=2T_0$

(Where $T_0$ is the tension in the string when the lift is in the rest position)

185. The surface tension of the soap solution is $0.03~\text{N/m}.$ The work done in blowing to form a soap bubble of surface area $40~\text{cm}^{2}$ is:
1. $1.2\times{10}^{-4}~\text{J}$
2. $2.4\times{10}^{-4}~\text{J}$
3. $12\times 10^{-4}~\text{J}$
4. $24\times 10^{-4}~\text{J}$

Physics - Section B

186.

The variation of acceleration due to gravity $g$ with distance $d$ from centre of the earth is best represented by:
($R$ = Earth's radius)

1.		2.
3.		4.

187. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	For a simple microscope, the angular size of the object equals the angular size of the image.
Reason (R):	Magnification is achieved as the small object can be kept much closer to the eye than $25~\text{cm}$ and hence it subtends a large angle.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

188.

River of width $500~\text{m}$ is flowing at a speed of $10~\text{m/s}$. A swimmer can swim at a speed of $10~\text{m/s}$ in still water. If he starts swimming at an angle of $120^\circ$ with the flow direction, then the distance he travels along the river while crossing the river is:
1. $250~\text{m}$
2. $500\sqrt{3}~\text{m}$
3. $\dfrac{500}{\sqrt{3}}~\text{m}$
4. $500~\text{m}$

189. The electric current through a wire varies with time as shown in the figure.

The total charge flown across any cross-section of the wire in the time interval $(0 \text-T)$ is:

1.	$ {i}_{0}T$	2.	$ \dfrac{{i}_{0}T}{2}$
3.	$ \dfrac{{i}_{0}T}{3}$	4.	$ \dfrac{{i}_{0}T}{\sqrt{2}}$

190. A parallel plate air capacitor which has a capacitance $C_0$ is half-filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant $K_1$ and the other half is filled with a dielectric constant $K_2$, as shown in the figure. The capacitance of the capacitor is:

1.	$ \left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}\right){C}_{0}$	2.	$\frac{1}{2}\left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}\right){C}_{0}$
3.	$ {2}\left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}\right){C}_{0}$	4.	$ \frac{1}{2}\left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}{-}{2}}\right){C}_{0}$

191. The potential energy of a two-body system is given by $U(x)=(12x^2-16x)~\text{J}.$ The value of force when $x=1~\text{m}$ is:
1. $-4$ N
2. $4$ N
3. $8$ N
4. $-8$ N

192.

When a slab of ice melts at $273~\text{K}$ under atmospheric pressure, which of the following statements is correct?

1.	The ice-water system does positive work on the atmosphere.
2.	The atmosphere does positive work on the ice-water system.
3.	The internal energy of the ice-water system decreases.
4.	None of the above.

193. A wave is travelling along a stretched string. At an instant, the shape of the string is as shown in the figure. At this instant, point $A$ is moving upwards. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1.	The wave is travelling to the right.
2.	The wave is travelling to the left.
3.	At this instant of time, the velocity of $C$ is also directed along the positive $y\text-$axis.
4.	The phase difference between $A$ and $C$ is $\mathit{\pi}.$

194. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water and the water rises to $5~\text{cm}$. If the capillary is bent as shown in the figure then the height of the water column will be:

1.	$5~\text{cm}$
2.	less than $5~\text{cm}$
3.	greater than $5~\text{cm}$
4.	cannot be found with this information

195. The output of a two-input NOR gate is in state $1$ when:

1.	either input terminals is at $0$ state.
2.	either input terminals is at $1$ state.
3.	both input terminals are at $0$ state.
4.	both input terminals are at $1$ state.

196. A proton accelerated through a potential $V$ has de-Broglie wavelength $\lambda$. The de-Broglie wavelength of an $\alpha\text-$particle, when accelerated through the same potential $V$ is:
1. $\frac{\lambda}{2}$
2. $\frac{\lambda}{\sqrt{2}}$
3. $\frac{\lambda}{2\sqrt{2}}$
4. $\frac{\lambda}{8}$

197. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	In simple harmonic motion, the motion is to and fro and periodic.
Reason (R):	In simple harmonic motion, the particle's velocity is given by $v=\omega \sqrt {A^2-x^2},$ (where $x$ is the displacement of the particle).

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

198. Four $2~\text{kg}$ masses are connected by $\dfrac{1}{4}~\text{m}$ spokes to an axle as in figure given below. A force $F$ of $24~\text{N}$ acts on a lever $\dfrac{1}{2}~\text{m}$ long to produce an angular acceleration $\mathit{\alpha}$. The magnitude of $\mathit{\alpha}$ (in rad/s²) is:

1.	$2$	2.	$12$
3.	$6$	4.	$3$

199. The displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is: $x=A\sin\left({\omega}t+{\phi}\right)$. At time $t=0$, the position of the particle is $x= \frac{A}{2}$ and it is moving along negative $x\text-$direction. The angle $\mathit{\phi}$ can be:
1. $\dfrac{{\pi}}{6}$
2. $\dfrac{{\pi}}{3}$
3. $\dfrac{{2}{\pi}}{3}$
4. $\dfrac{{5}{\pi}}{6}$

200. A straight vertical conductor carries a current vertically upwards. A point $P$ lies to the east of it at a small distance and another point $Q$ lies to the west at the same distance. The magnetic field at $P$ is:

1.	greater than at $Q$
2.	same as at $Q$
3.	less than at $Q$
4.	greater or less than at $Q$ depending upon the strength of current

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Statement I:	\(Eu^{2+}\) acts as a reducing agent.
Statement II:	The +3 oxidation state is more common among lanthanoids.

1.	\(4.0 \times 10^2 \)	2.	\(4.0 \times 10^{-2} \)
3.	\(8.3 \times 10^{-4} \)	4.	\(8.3 \times 10^4 \)

1.	\(Na_4[Fe(CN)_5NOS]\)	2.	\(Na_2[Fe(CN)_5NOS]\)
3.	\(K_4[Fe(CN)_5NOS]\)	4.	\(K_2 [Fe(CN)_4NOS]\)

1.	\( {CH_3CH=NHNH_2} ~\)
2.	\({CH_3CH=NCONHNH_2}~~~\)
3.	\({CH_3CH=NNH-CO-NH_2}~~~~~\)
4.

1.	\(4.0~\text{N}\)	2.	\(12.5~\text{N}\)
3.	\(0.5~\text{N}\)	4.	\(6.25~\text{N}\)

1.	\(F_A>F_B\)	2.	\(F_A= F_B\)
3.	\(F_A<F_B\)	4.	nothing can be predicted

1.	any angle between \(0\) and \(\pm{\pi}{/}{2}\)
2.	\(\mathit{\pi}{/}{2}\)
3.	\(\mathit{\pi}\)
4.	any angle between \(0\) and \(\mathit{\pi}\)

1.	\(\oint{\vec{{B}}}.d\vec{s} ={0}\)
2.	\(\oint{\vec{{B}}}.d\vec{l} ={\mathit{\mu}}_{0}{I}\)
3.	\(\oint{\vec{B}}.d\vec{l}={{\mu}}_{0}{I}+\dfrac{1}{{\varepsilon }_{0}}\dfrac{dq}{dt}\)
4.	\(\oint{\vec{B}}.d\vec{l} ={{\mu}}_{0}{I}+{{\mu}}_{0}{\varepsilon}_{0}\dfrac{d{{\phi}}_{E}}{dt}\)

1.	three \({\beta}^{+}\text-\)particles
2.	one \(\alpha\text-\)particle and two \(\beta^{+}\text-\)particles
3.	one \(\alpha\text-\)particle and two \(\beta^{-}\text-\)particles
4.	two \(\alpha\text{-}\)particles and one \(\beta^{-}\text-\)particle

1.	\( {i}_{0}T\)	2.	\( \dfrac{{i}_{0}T}{2}\)
3.	\( \dfrac{{i}_{0}T}{3}\)	4.	\( \dfrac{{i}_{0}T}{\sqrt{2}}\)

1.	\( \left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}\right){C}_{0}\)	2.	\(\frac{1}{2}\left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}\right){C}_{0}\)
3.	\( {2}\left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}}\right){C}_{0}\)	4.	\( \frac{1}{2}\left({{K}_{1}{+}{K}_{2}{-}{2}}\right){C}_{0}\)

1.	\(5~\text{cm}\)
2.	less than \(5~\text{cm}\)
3.	greater than \(5~\text{cm}\)
4.	cannot be found with this information

1.	either input terminals is at \(0\) state.
2.	either input terminals is at \(1\) state.
3.	both input terminals are at \(0\) state.
4.	both input terminals are at \(1\) state.

1.	greater than at \(Q\)
2.	same as at \(Q\)
3.	less than at \(Q\)
4.	greater or less than at \(Q\) depending upon the strength of current

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