Botany - Section A
1. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
Meiosis is responsible for maintaining the chromosome number across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. |
II: |
Meiosis results in reduction of chromosome number by half in the daughter cells. |
1. |
Both I and II are correct and II explains I |
2. |
Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I |
3. |
I is correct but II is incorrect |
4. |
I is incorrect but II is correct |
2. Mango and wheat belong to the same:
I. Division |
II. Class |
III. Order |
1. |
Only I |
2. |
Both I and II |
3. |
Only III |
4. |
I, II, and III
|
3. Which is the correct set of options with respect to the following?
1. |
Dicot stem – Differentiated ground tissue. |
|
Monocot stem – Endarch xylem. |
|
Dicot leaf – Isobilateral leaf. |
|
Monocot leaf – Dorsiventral leaf. |
2. |
Dicot stem – Scattered vascular bundle. |
|
Monocot stem – Arranged vascular bundle. |
|
Dicot leaf – Amphistomatic. |
|
Monocot leaf – Hypostomatic. |
3. |
Dicot stem – Endodermis is called a starch sheath. |
|
Monocot stem – Vascular bundle surrounded by a sclerenchymatous sheath. |
|
Dicot leaf – Palisade and spongy parenchyma. |
|
Monocot leaf – Stomata present on both surfaces. |
4. |
Dicot stem – Arranged vascular bundle. |
|
Monocot stem – Endodermis is called a starch sheath. |
|
Dicot leaf – Amphistomatatic. |
|
Monocot leaf – Palisade and spongy parenchyma. |
4. How many of the comparisons between Pinus and Cycas given below are correct:
|
Pinus |
Cycas |
I: |
Coralloid roots |
Mycrorrhizal associations |
II: |
Stems are branched |
Stems are unbranched |
III: |
The male or female cones or strobili are borne on different trees |
The male or female cones or strobili are borne on the same tree |
1. 0
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3
5. Which of the following amino acids is not an aromatic amino acid?
1. Tyrosine
2. Tryptophan
3. Threonine
4. Phenylalanine
6. What is incorrect regarding DNA replication?
1. |
For a cell to divide, it must first replicate its DNA. |
2. |
DNA replication is an all-or-none process; once replication begins, it proceeds to completion. |
3. |
DNA replication (DNA amplification) cannot be performed in vitro (artificially, outside a cell). |
4. |
Once replication is complete, it does not occur again in the same cell cycle. |
7. Regarding the mature monosporic female gametophyte of angiosperms:
1. |
The egg apparatus is at the chalazal end and the antipodals at the micropylar end. |
2. |
The central cell has a diploid polar nucleus. |
3. |
The structure is 8-celled and 7-nucleate. |
4. |
Three sequential mitotic divisions lead to its formation. |
8. Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
1. Algae
2. Lichens
3. Fungi
4. Mosses and ferns
9. Which family is regarded as the most advanced & highly evolved and is considered to occupy the highest position in the plant kingdom?
1. Compositae
2. Gramineae
3. Cruciferae
4. Orchidaceae
10. Which of the following complexes of Electron Transport system is neither involved in transport of electrones in inner membrane nor involved in transport of proton in the Inter Membrane Space of Mitochondria from Mitochondrial Matrix?
1. Complex I
2. Complex II
3. Complex III
4. Complex V
11. For the synthesis of glucose, the source of hydrogen atoms is:
1. |
Water |
2. |
NADPH |
3. |
FADH2 |
4. |
Monosaccharides |
12. In a photosystem:
1. |
The reaction centre is where light is captured, while the antenna complex is where this light energy is transformed into chemical energy. |
2. |
The antenna complex is where light is captured, while the reaction centre is where this light energy is transformed into chemical energy. |
3. |
The antenna complex is where light energy is captured and transformed into chemical energy. |
4. |
The reaction centre is where light energy is captured and transformed into chemical energy. |
13. The following reaction will be catalyzed by an enzyme classified as a/an:
A–B + H2O → A–OH + B–H
1. |
Oxidoreductase |
2. |
Hydrolase |
3. |
Lyase |
4. |
Transferase |
14. An energy yielding step in glycolysis is:
1. phosphorylation of glucose
2. splitting of fructose 1,6-biphosphate
3. phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate
4. conversion of BPGA to 3-phosphoglyceric acid
15. The number and linear sequence of amino acids in a protein are considered as the:
1. primary structure of a protein
2. secondary structure of a protein
3. tertiary structure of a protein
4. quaternary structure of a protein
16. A low frequency recombination indicates that the genes are:
1. Located far apart from each other
2. Located close to each other
3. Not linked
4. Present on different c
17. Specialized plastids like amyloplasts are differentiated forms of:
1. | Chloroplasts | 2. | Chromoplasts |
3. | Leucoplasts | 4. | Gerontoplasts |
18. In brinjal, stamens are:
1. Epipetalous
2. Epiphyllous
3. Monoadelphous
4. Six in number
19. Which of the given statement/s regarding embryogenesis in angiosperms is/are correct?
I: |
Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated. |
II: |
Development of a zygote usually occurs after some endosperm formation. |
1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only II |
3. |
Both I and II |
4. |
Neither I nor II |
20. Monarch butterflies are toxic and unpalatable to predators because they:
1. |
incorporate the toxic chemicals from the milkweed they eat |
2. |
produce their own secondary compounds |
3. |
break down the toxic chemicals from the milkweed they eat |
4. |
live with symbionts that secret toxins |
21. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction, the type of aestivation is called:
1. Valvate and is seen in Calotropis
2. Twisted and is seen in Lady’s finger
3. Imbricate and is seen in Cassia
4. Vexillary and is seen in pea
22. Meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms creates new variations by shuffling the available genetic material and leads to the formation of a recombinant DNA which is created at:
1. Pachytene of Prophase I
2. Diplotene of Prophase I
3. Anaphase I of Meiosis I
4. Anaphase II of Meiosis II
23. The algae shown in the diagram below belongs to the class which has:
1. 2-8 equal and apical flagella
2. 2 unequal and lateral flagella
3. 2 unequal and apical flagella
4. 2-8 equal and lateral flagella
24. The number of ATP and NADPH molecules required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway respectively is:
1. | 6 and 6 | 2. | 6 and 9 |
3. | 12 and 15 | 4. | 18 and 12 |
25. RNA interference:
I: |
involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing). |
II: |
has been used to create transgenic tobacco plants resistant to nematode Meloidogyne incognita |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
26. Hyphae, that are continuous tubes filled with multinucleated cytoplasm, are seen in the members of:
1. Ascomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Deuteromycetes
4. Basidiomycetes
27. Which of the following statements will be correct regarding restriction endonucleases used in constructing recombinant DNA molecules?
1. |
They are RNA molecules acting as enzymes. |
2. |
The enzymes used in such experiments cut dsDNA randomly at any site. |
3. |
They have been isolated from bacterial cells. |
4. |
All restriction enzymes are thermostable and hence can be used in PCR procedures. |
28. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
Dicot roots do not undergo secondary growth. |
II: |
In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin. |
1. |
Both I and II are correct and II explains I |
2. |
Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I |
3. |
I is correct but II is incorrect |
4. |
I is incorrect but II is correct |
29. A ‘continuous culture system’ method usually produces a larger biomass mainly because:
1. |
the environmental conditions for the growth of the microbes are very easily maintained in such a system |
2. |
such a system keeps most of the cells in their active/log exponential phase |
3. |
it is very cheap with respect to other systems and hence cost of production is low |
4. |
such a system uses larger sized bioreactors than other systems |
30. Consider the following statements about Mustard:
I: |
Its ovary is one-chambered but becomes two-chambered due to formation of a false septum |
II: |
There may be variation in the length of filaments within its flowers |
III: |
Its flower is zygomorphic |
IV: |
Its flowers are located at the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level |
1. |
Only I and II are correct |
2. |
All I, II, III and IV are correct |
3. |
Only I, III and IV are correct |
4. |
Only I, II and III are correct |
31. The primary CO
2 acceptor in C
4 pathway is:
1. |
a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in the mesophyll cells. |
2. |
a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in the bundle sheath cells. |
3. |
a 5-carbon molecule RuBP and is present in the mesophyll cells. |
4. |
a 5-carbon molecule RuBP and is present in the bundle sheath cells. |
32. The genetic code is:
1. |
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in a contiguous fashion |
2. |
triplet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in an overlapping fashion |
3. |
doublet, degenerate, nearly universal and read in a contiguous fashion |
4. |
triplet, ambiguous, totally universal and read in a contiguous fashion |
33. An alga lacks flagellar insertions in its life cycle and stores food as floridean starch. This alga can be:
1. Chara
2. Fucus
3. Porphyra
4. Ectocarpus
34. Which part of the endomembranous system of a eukaryotic cell is rich in acid hydrolases?
1. Peroxisome
2. Lysosome
3. Vacuole
4. Golgi apparatus
35. How many of the following PGRs does/do not show acidic nature?
A. Auxin
B. Gibberellins
C. Cytokinin
D. Ethylene
E. ABA
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Botany - Section B
36. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in South America
1. Produce 20% of the total in the earth's atmosphere
2. Has 3000 species of birds
3. Has 378 species of fishes
4. Is home to 4000 species of plants
37. There are certain limitations of ecological pyramids including all the following except:
1. |
It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels. |
2. |
It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature. |
3. |
It does not accommodate a food web. |
4. |
Saprophytes are given multiple levels in ecological pyramids. |
38. All living organisms - past, present and future are linked to each other. All organisms have arisen from a single distant ancestor. The strongest evidence for this will be:
1. |
All organisms have a triplet genetic code |
2. |
DNA is the genetic material of almost all living organisms |
3. |
The genetic code is degenerate but non-ambiguous |
4. |
The amino acids specified by particular triplets are almost always identical between any two organisms. |
39. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:
1. |
Cyt b6f complex to PS-I |
2. |
PS-I to NADP+ |
3. |
PS-I to ATP synthase |
4. |
PS-II to Cytb6f complex |
40. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 2-celled stage. |
Statement II: |
In the remaining species, the vegetative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-celled stage). |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
41. The numbers of FADH2, ATP, Carbon dioxide and NADH molecules produced in a single turn of citric acid cycle respectively are:
1. | One, Two, Three and Four | 2. | One, One, Two and Three |
3. | One, Two, Two and Three | 4. | Two, One Two and Three |
42. Microbodies in eukaryotic cells include all the following except:
1. | Peroxisomes | 2. | Glycosomes |
3. | Lysosomes | 4. | Glyoxysomes |
43. Centromeres split leading to the separation of sister chromatids and the pulling of the separated sister chromatids to the opposite poles is seen in:
I: |
Mitotic anaphase |
II: |
Anaphase I |
III: |
Anaphase II |
1. |
Only I |
2. |
Only I and II |
3. |
Only III |
4. |
Only I and III |
44. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called as downstream processing |
2. |
DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with a divalent cation such as calcium ion |
3. |
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for availability of oxygen throughout the process |
4. |
Reporter genes can be used as markers for selecting successfully transformed cells |
45. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
All cellular life-forms use a primase to synthesize a short RNA primer with a free 3′ OH group which is subsequently elongated by a DNA polymerase. |
2. |
DNA is read by DNA polymerase in the 5′ to 3′ direction, meaning the new strand is synthesized in the 3' to 5' direction. |
3. |
The leading strand is the strand of new DNA that is synthesized in the same direction as the growing replication fork. |
4. |
The lagging strand is the strand of new DNA whose direction of synthesis is opposite to the direction of the growing replication fork. |
46. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids?
1. | Indole-butyric acid | 2. | Indole-3-acetic acid |
3. | Gibberellic acid | 4. | Abscisic acid |
47. The number of alleles, the genotypic combinations, and phenotypes in the ABO system are respectively:
1. |
3, 6 and 4 |
2. |
3, 4 and 6 |
3. |
2, 3 and 4 |
4. |
2, 3, and 6 |
48. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Fermentation takes place under anaerobic conditions in prokaryotes only. |
Reason (R): |
In oxidative phosphorylation, water is the ultimate acceptor of electrons. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
49. Identify the incorrect statement regarding primary productivity in an ecosystem?
1. |
It occurs only through the process of photosynthesis. |
2. |
Almost all life on Earth relies directly or indirectly on primary production. |
3. |
Net primary production is available for consumption by herbivores. |
4. |
Gross primary productivity minus the respiratory loss is the net primary productivity. |
50. Functionally cross-pollination but genetically similar to autogamy is
1. Xenogamy
2. Geitonogamy
3. Chasmogamy
4. Cleistogamy
Zoology - Section A
51. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
|
COLUMN I |
|
COLUMN II |
A. |
Heart failure |
a. |
Lowered ejection fraction of a ventricle |
B. |
Heart attack |
b. |
Damage to the cardiac muscle |
C. |
Heart block |
c. |
Abnormal delay in conduction in nodal tissue |
D. |
Cardiac arrest |
d. |
Sudden stoppage of the heart |
Codes
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
a |
b |
c |
d |
2. |
b |
a |
c |
d |
3. |
b |
a |
d |
c |
4. |
a |
d |
b |
c |
52. The cell shown in the given diagram:
1. |
is a bone marrow stem cells committed to produce RBCs |
2. |
is the megakaryocyte |
3. |
is the commonest WBC and is phagocytic |
4. |
is responsible for acquired immunity in humans |
53. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Normal expiration is a passive process. |
Reason (R): |
Expiration occurs due to relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
54. Beginning with a single template DNA, a PCR reaction is allowed to continue for 30 cycles. The number of copies of the template DNA at the end is expected to be about:
1. |
256 |
2. |
256,000 |
3. |
1 million |
4. |
1 billion |
55. Which of the following joints is not expected to allow any movement?
1. Sutures in the skull
2. Joint between adjacent vertebra
3. Gliding joint
4. Joint between carpal and metacarpal of the thumb
56. Consider the two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Use of chemical fertilisers in agriculture worldwide should be avoided. |
Reason (R): |
Chemical fertilisers, contrary to popular belief, are ineffective and do not add any nutrients to the soil. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A). |
2. |
(A) is True; (R) is False. |
3. |
(A) is False; (R) is True. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A). |
57. To produce human recombinant insulin, Eli Lily:
1. |
prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. |
2. |
prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and C chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of Yeast to produce insulin chains. |
3. |
used reverse transcription of the hnRNA transcript of the insulin gene to make complementary DNA. |
4. |
used fragments created by restriction enzyme digestion to isolate and used the gene for insulin from pancreatic cells. |
58. Which of the following is the correct description of the relation between T cells and B cells?
1. |
Both are processed in bone marrow and respond to antigen from thymus |
2. |
T cells help B cells produce antibodies |
3. |
B cells increase the phagocytic capabilities of T cells |
4. |
While B cells are involved in first response to an antigen, T cells respond to subsequent encounters with the same antigen |
59. The increase of the level of which of the following in the sarcoplasm of a skeletal muscle fibre will lead to the contraction of a muscle?
1. Acetylcholine
2. ATP
3. Calcium ions
4. Troponin C
60. Identify a disease that is caused by an abnormality where the ability of the acquired immune system to distinguish between self and non-self is compromised:
1. |
Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease |
2. |
Rheumatoid arthritis |
3. |
Oculo-cutaneous albinism |
4. |
Diabetes insipidus |
61. The only known carriers of the bacterium,
Salmonella typhi, are the:
1. |
Humans |
2. |
Bats |
3. |
Rodents |
4. |
House flies |
62. Match the structures in Cockroach given in Column I with their location in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
|
COLUMN I |
|
COLUMN II |
A |
Testes |
P |
6th abdominal segment |
B |
Ovaries |
Q |
4th – 6th abdominal segments |
C |
Mushroom gland |
R |
6th – 7th abdominal segments |
D |
Spermatheca |
S |
2nd – 6th abdominal segments |
Codes:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
S |
Q |
R |
P |
2. |
Q |
S |
R |
P |
3. |
P |
R |
Q |
S |
4. |
R |
S |
P |
Q |
63. In the Avery, Macleod, and McCarty experiment, the use of which of the following will affect bacterial transformation?
1. trypsin
2. chymotrypsin
3. ribonuclease
4. deoxyribonuclease
64. In traditional DNA fingerprinting [such as RFLP], the DNA that has been collected is first cut into smaller fragments by:
1. |
probe molecules |
2. |
restriction enzymes |
3. |
gel electrophoresis |
4. |
denaturation |
65. Which gene in the lac operon codes for an intracellular enzyme that cleaves the disaccharide lactose into glucose and galactose?
1. Lac A
2. Lac Y
3. Lac Z
4. Lac I
66. The rod-shaped bacteria belongs to which of the following category of bacteria?
1. Vibrio
2. Bacillus
3. Coccus
4. Spirillum
67. Erythroxylum coca, Atropa belladonna, and
Datura innoxia are plants:
1. |
that are critically endangered according to the IUCN list. |
2. |
which have become invasive in Indian ecosystems. |
3. |
with hallucinogenic properties. |
4. |
found only in the Himalayan region of the Indian subcontinent. |
68. Which of the following is a continuous process during cell cycle?
a. Growth
b. DNA synthesis
1. Only a
2. Only b
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b
69. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. LH surge: Ovulation
2. Corpus luteum: Ruptured Graafian follicle
3. hCG: Secreted by the ovary during pregnancy
4. Oxytocin: Milk ejection
70. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
Sexually transmitted infections can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. |
II: |
Pelvic inflammatory disease increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy. |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
71. A monovalent antibody molecule can be represented as:
72. Which of the following cofactors required by enzymes is often vitamins or made from vitamins?
1. | Apoenzymes | 2. | Prosthetic groups |
3. | Zymogens | 4. | Co-enzymes |
73. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. |
Obelia |
Metagenesis |
2. |
Planaria |
Free living with
high regeneration capacity |
3. |
Ancylostoma |
Acoelomate |
4. |
Nereis |
Parapodia |
74. Identify the correctly matched pair:
1. Dodo: Mauritius
2. Quagga: Australia
3. Thylacine: Russia
4. Stellar’s sea cow: Africa
75. Identify the part of the nephron that:
I: |
is lined by cuboidal brush bordered epithelium |
II: |
reabsorbs 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water |
1. |
Proximal convoluted tubule |
2. |
Loop of Henle |
3. |
Distal convoluted tubule |
4. |
Collecting duct |
76. Often described as infoldings of bacterial cell membrane, which of the following structures help in cell wall formation and DNA replication?
1. Inclusion bodies
2. Chromatophores
3. Fimbriae
4. Mesosomes
77. In Cardiac muscle tissue:
I: |
Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells |
II: |
Communication junctions allow the cell to contract as a unit |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
78. Identify the group of antagonistic hormones amongst the following:
1. thyroxine and calcitonin
2. insulin and glucagon
3. growth hormone and epinephrine
4. ACTH and glucocorticoids
79. What is the mechanism of sex determination in honey bees?
1. XX / XY male heterogamety
2. ZZ / ZW female heterogamety
3. Haplo-diploidy
4. XX / XO male heterogamety
80. The allele of a gene locus that is least frequent, in a population, has a frequency greater than 0.01. Such a gene locus will be called:
1. Redundant
2. Degenerate
3. Polymorphic
4. Hot spot
81. The secondary oocyte completes the second meiotic division:
1. |
At the time of insemination |
2. |
At puberty |
3. |
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum |
4. |
Just before birth |
82. What is incorrect regarding the ovary in humans?
1. |
The surface is covered with simple cuboidal epithelium, called the germinal epithelium. |
2. |
Follicles in various phases of development are seen in the ovarian cortex |
3. |
It is connected to the uterus and pelvic floor by tendons |
4. |
It is a primary sex organ |
83. A female is a "carrier" for the trait red color blindness [remember this trait is X-linked and colour blindness is sex-linked recessive condition], marries a normal male. What proportion of their female progeny will be affected by the disorder?
1. ¾
2. ½
3. ¼
4. 0
84. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
The bacterium Streptococcus is the source of an enzyme used in patient of myocardial infarction leading to heart attack. |
Statement II: |
The enzyme is streptokinase that enhances the action of anti-coagulant heparin. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
85. Identify the set of hormones secreted by placenta that are essential to maintain pregnancy:
1. hCG, hPL, progesterone, prolactin
2. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
3. hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogens
4. hCG, progesterone, estrogens, glucocorticoids
Zoology - Section B
86. Alexander von Humboldt is known for the concept of:
1. Competitive release
2. Character displacement
3. Species Area relationship
4. Interference competition
87. Find the incorrect statement/s
a: |
Flocs are masses of anaerobic bacteria associated with fungal filaments |
b: |
BOD gets reduced significantly when the secondary treatment is done using aerobic microbes |
c: |
Activated sludge can be sedimented only after anaerobic digestion of sewage |
d: |
Mixture of gases is released during aerobic digestion of sewage |
1. a, b, c & d
2. Only c
3. All, except b
4. a, b & d
88. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
SA node is the natural pacemaker of the human heart. |
II: |
SA node is the only part of that nodal musculature that is auto-excitable. |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
89. An action potential in the nerve fibre is produced when positive and negative charges on the outside and the inside of the axon membrane are reversed, because
1. |
More potassium enters the axon as compared to sodium ions leaving it |
2. |
More sodium enters the axon as compared to potassium ions leaving it |
3. |
All potassium ions leave the axon |
4. |
All sodium ions enter the axon |
90. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Vertebrochondral ribs are called true ribs. |
Reason (R): |
Vertebraochondral ribs are attached to the thoracic vertebrae dorsally and are ventrally connected to the sternum. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
91. All the following features are present in bony fishes except:
1. operculum
2. air bladder
3. placoid scales
4. terminal mouth
92. Which of the following statements are correct?
A: |
Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs. |
B: |
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin. |
C: |
Basophils are involved in inflammatory response. |
D: |
Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus. |
E: |
Basophils are agranulocytes. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. |
A and B only |
2. |
D and E only |
3. |
C and E only |
4. |
B and C only |
93. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
An impairment affecting synthesis or release of ADH results in a diminished ability of the kidney to conserve water leading to water loss and dehydration. |
Reason (R): |
Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes by the distal tubules. |
1. |
(A) is True; (R) is False |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A) |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A) |
4. |
(A) is False; (R) is True |
94. Animal cells cannot be transformed with the help of:
1. |
Microinjection |
2. |
Ti Plasmid |
3. |
Retroviral vectors |
4. |
Liposomes |
95. An infertile couple has been suggested Artificial Insemination into the uterus [IUI]. This should be done:
1. |
just after the completion of the menstrual flow |
2. |
near the time of ovulation |
3. |
in the middle of the follicular phase |
4. |
after corpus luteum starts the synthesis of progesterone |
96. What is the major conduit for energy flow in an aquatic ecosystem?
1. Grazing food chain
2. Detritus food chain
3. Sun
4. Hydrothermal vents
97. Our lungs remove large amounts of carbon dioxide [approximately 200 mL/minute]. This translates to about:
1. 156 L/day
2. 288 L/day
3. 412 L/day
4. 504 L/day
98. What would not be true regarding Down’s Syndrome?
1. |
It is also known as trisomy 21 |
2. |
The parents of the affected individual are usually affected from the disorder. |
3. |
There is no cure for Down syndrome. |
4. |
The extra chromosome 21 material may also occur due to a Robertsonian translocation in 2–4% of cases. |
99. Given below are two population pyramids, both of India, one for year 2000 and another for year 2020:
1. |
Pyramid A is of 2020 as it has a broader base |
2. |
Pyramid B is of 2000 as it has more females in the younger age groups |
3. |
Pyramid B is of 2020 as it has more females in the younger age groups |
4. |
Pyramid A is of 2000 as it has a broader base |
100. Consider the following statements:
I: |
Impulses travel by the visceral nervous system from the CNS to the viscera and from the viscera to the CNS. |
II: |
Impulses travel by the autonomic nervous system from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles of the body. |
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Chemistry - Section A
101. Which of the following is/are correct about isothermal expansion of work?
1. \(\omega_{irreversible} = \omega_{reversible}\)
2. \(\omega_{irreversible} > \omega_{reversible}\)
3. \(\omega_{irreversible} < \omega_{reversible}\)
4. All of thes above
102.
Statement I: |
The electronegativity of any given element is not constant. |
Statement II: |
Electronegativity varies depending on the element to which it is bound. |
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. |
Statement l is incorrect but Statement ll is correct. |
2. |
Both Statements l and ll are correct. |
3. |
Both Statements l and ll are incorrect. |
4. |
Statement l is correct but Statement ll is incorrect. |
103. Number of optically active isomers among all the isomers of C6H13Br are
1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 17
104. Choose the correct statement considering the information given below.
\({ }^{19} \mathrm{~F}^{-1}, \ { }^{16} \mathrm{O}^{-2}, \ { }^{20} \mathrm{Ne} \)
1. Both O-2 and F− are isoelectronic.
2. All given have an equal number of e−
3. F− and Ne have an equal number of e-
4. All are correct.
105. The mass ratio of ethylene glycol (62 g/mol) required to make (500 ml, 0.25 M) and (250 ml, 0.25 M) solutions is:
1. |
1:1 |
2. |
1:2 |
3. |
2:1 |
4. |
4:1 |
106. The correct order of 3rd ionisation potential of Na , Mg, Al and Si will be:
1. Si > Al > Mg > Na
2. Mg > Si > Al > Na
3. Mg > Na > Si > Al
4. Na > Mg > Si > Al
107. Which of the following have non-zero dipole moment?
1.
2.
3.
4.
108. Which of the following is not true about resonance?
1. |
The resonating structures are hypothetical. |
2. |
The unpaired electrons in various resonating structures are the same. |
3. |
The energy of the resonance hybrid is less than the energy of any single canonical structure. |
4. |
In resonance, both 𝝅 electrons and σ electrons can move. |
109. Given the following compounds:
C
2H
5NH
2, C
6H
5NH
2, NH
3, C
6H
5CH
2NH
2 and (C
2H
5)
2NH
The correct increasing order of basic strength of the compounds, given above, in gas phase is:
1. |
C2H5NH2 < C6H5NH2 < NH3 < C6H5CH2NH2 < (C2H5)2NH |
2. |
C2H5NH2 < C6H5NH2< NH3< (C2H5)2NH < C6H5CH2NH2 |
3. |
C6H5CH2NH2 < C6H5NH2< NH3 < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2 |
4. |
C6H5NH2 < NH3<C6H5CH2NH2 < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH |
110.
Statement I: |
Elements like He, Ne, and nitrogen show positive electron gain enthalpies. |
Statement II: |
The formation of Cl- from Cl and O2- from O- are exothermic processes. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect.
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct.
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect.
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct.
111. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH. The alcohol is:
1. CH3CH2CH2OH
2. (CH3)2C(OH)CH2CH3
3. CH3(CH2)2CHOH
4. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3
112. Identify Z in the following series.
1.
\(\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{I} ~\)
2.
\(\mathrm{CH}\mathrm{I_3} ~\)
3.
\(\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{CHO} ~\)
4.
\(\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH} ~\)
113. The value of H for the reaction,
X2(g) + 4Y2(g) 2XY4 (g)
is less than zero. Formulation of XY4(g) will be favored at
1. low pressure and low temperature
2. high temperature and low pressure
3. high pressure and low temperature
4. high temperature and high pressure
114. The total number of possible structural isomers with the molecular formula C5H10O having either aldehyde or ketone functional group are:
1. 6
2. 4
3. 5
4. 7
115.
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7solution?
1. The solution is decolorized.
2. SO2 is reduced.
3. Green coloured Cr2(SO4)3 is formed.
4. The solution turns blue.
116. Consider the reaction
a K2Cr2O7 + b HCl \(\rightarrow\) c KCl + d CrCl3 + e H2O + f Cl2
The value of a,d & f, respectively, are
1. 2, 4, 8
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 2, 2, 3
4. 1, 2, 4
117. In which of the following transitions of hydrogen atom, radiation of minimum frequency is emitted ?
1. n2 = \(\infty\) to n1 = 1
2. n2 = 2 to n1 = 1
3. n2 = 3 to n1 = 2
4. n2 = \(\infty\) to n1 = 3
118. Which of the following pair is correctly matched?
1. Basic oxides - \(\mathrm{In_2O_3 , K_2O , SnO_2}\)
2. Neutral oxides - \(\mathrm{CO, NO_2, N_2O}\)
3. Acidic oxides - \(\mathrm{Mn_2O_7, SO_2, TeO_3}\)
4. Amphoteric oxides -\(\mathrm{BeO , Ga_2O_3 , GeO }\)
119. The number of moles of carbon and oxygen required to produce \(6.023 \times 10^{23}\) molecules of \(CO_2\) are:
1. 0.01 mol and 0.01 mol
2. 0.5 mol and 0.1 mol
3. 10.0 mol and 5.0 mol
4. 1.0 mol and 1.0 mol
120. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid ?
1. Cr3+ and \(Cr_2O^{2-}_7\)
2. \(Cr_2O^{2-}_7\) and H2O are formed
3. \(Cr_2O^{2-}_4\) is reduced to +3 state of Cr
4. None of the above
121. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250g mol) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:
1. 0.4 K
2. 0.3 K
3. 0.5 K
4. 0.2 K
122. The water-soluble vitamin is:
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
123.
Assertion (A): |
For an exothermic reaction, the value of Kc decreases on increasing the temperature. |
Reason (R): |
Rate constant for a backward reaction increases more than the increase in the rate constant for a forward reaction. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
124. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by
1. |
Addition |
2. |
Substitution |
3. |
Dehydrohalogenation |
4. |
Elimination |
125. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu
2+/Cu couples is:
[Given,
\(E_{Cu^{2+}/Cu}^{o}\) = 0.34 V;
Ksp Cu(OH)
2 = 1×10
-19]
1. |
0.34 V |
2. |
-0.34 V |
3. |
0.22 V |
4. |
-0.22 V |
126. Which among the following complex is optically active?
1. \(\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{Cl}_3\right] \)
2. \( \left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4 \mathrm{Cl}_2\right] \mathrm{Br} \)
3. \( \left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_6\right] \mathrm{Cl}_2 \)
4. \(\left[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)(\mathrm{en}) \mathrm{ClBr}\right] \)
127. The correct statements among the following is:
(i) |
A porous membrane used in reverse osmosis is a film of cellulose acetate placed over a suitable support. |
(ii) |
To increase the solubility of CO2 in soft drinks and soda water, the bottle is sealed under high pressure. |
(iii) |
In osmosis, only the solvent moves while in diffusion both solute and solvent move. |
1. |
Only (i) and (ii) |
2. |
Only (ii) |
3. |
Only (ii) and (iii) |
4. |
(i), (ii) and (iii) |
128. The rate constant is given by the equation \(k=P.Ze^{-E_a/RT}\). Which factor should register a decrease for the reaction to proceed more rapidly?
1. T
2. Z
3. E
4. P
129. The products X and Y in the below sequence of reactions are:
|
X |
Y |
1. |
CrO2Cl2/CCl4 |
CH3OH / H+ |
2. |
KMnO4 |
CH3OH / H+ |
3. |
CrO2Cl2/CCl4 |
CH3CO2O |
4. |
KMnO4 |
CH3CO2O |
130. When a copper wire is immersed in a solution of AgNO3, the colour of the solution becomes blue because copper:
1. Forms a soluble complex with \(AgNO_3\)
2. Is oxidised to \(Cu^{2+}\)
3. Is reduced to \(Cu^{2-}\)
4. Splits up into atomic form and dissolves
131. The relative lowering of vapour pressure caused by dissolving 71.3g of a substance in 1000g of water is 7.13 X 10-3. The molecular mass of the substance is:
1. |
180 |
2. |
18 |
3. |
1.8 |
4. |
360 |
132. Which of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
1.
2.
3.
2. CO,NO
133. All elements of 14th group form MX4 (Tetrahalides) except PbI4 because
1. Pb2+ is a more stable than Pb4+
2. I- ion is a better reducing agent
3. Pb4+ is most stable
4. I- ion is an oxidising agent
134. From the following, the incorrect assertion with respect to dipole moments of the species given is:
1. \(CH_3Cl > CHCl_3 \)
2. \(CH_2Cl_2 = CCl_4 \)
3. \(NH_3 > NF_3 \)
4. \(BF_3 = CO_2 \)
135. In solid PCl5, the hybridised state of phosphorous will be
1. sp3d
2. sp3
3. sp3 and sp3d
4. sp3 and sp3d2
Chemistry - Section B
136. Which of the following contains the greatest number of nitrogen atoms ?
1. 500 ml of 2.0
2. One mole of
3. molecules of gas
4. 22.4 litres of gas at 0ºC and 1 atm.
137. Which compound can react with Na as well as NaOH but not with \(\mathrm{N a H C O_{3}}\) ?
1. Ethanol
2. Picric acid
3. Carbolic acid
4. Ethyne
138. For an aqueous solution, freezing point is -0.186oC . Elevation of the boiling point of the same solution is (Kf =1.86o mol-1 kg and Kb = 0.512o mol-1 kg)
1. 0.186o
2. 0.0512o
3. 1.86o
4. 5.12o
139. How many electrons are there in a copper atom \((_{29}Cu)\), whose (n+l) = 4?
1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 4
140. The nonaromatic species, amongst the following, is:
141. Find out the stability order of the intermediat:
1. I > II > III > IV
2. I > II > IV > III
3. IV > I > II > III
4. III > II > I > IV
142. For a reaction, A(g) \(\rightarrow\) 2B(g) + C(g); \(\Delta\)H = 4 kJ & \(\Delta\)S = 10 JK-1. At what temperature, is this reaction spontaneous?
1. >400 K
2. < 400 K
3. 400 K
4. 27 oC
143. Solubilities of AgCl in 0.01M NaCl, 0.01M CaCl2, 0.05M AgNO3 , pure water and in 0.01M NH4OH are S1 , S2 , S3 , S4 and S5 respectively. The correct order of these solubilities is
1. S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 > S5
2. S3 > S2 > S1 > S5 > S4
3. S5 > S4> S1 > S2 > S3
4. S5 > S4 > S3 > S2 > S1
144. Alkyl cyanide \(R-C \equiv N\) and alkyl isocyanides \(R- \overset{+}{N} \equiv C^-\) are:
1. |
Tautomers |
2. |
Metamers |
3. |
Functional isomers |
4. |
Geometrical isomers |
145. For the general reaction X → Y, the plot of concentration of X vs. time is given in the figure. The order of the reaction and units of rate constant, respectively, are:
1. |
Zero, mol–1 L–1 s–1 |
2. |
First, mol L–1 s–1 |
3. |
First, s–1 |
4. |
Zero, L–1 mol s–1 |
146. Identify the pair of elements with similar electronegativity from the options given below:
1. B and C
2. B and Al
3. B and Si
4. Al and C
147.
Assertion (A): |
When 2 faraday of electricity is passed through dilute H2SO4 \((aq) \), 11.2 litre O2 evolved at STP. |
Reason (R): |
The molecular weight of oxygen is 32. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True and (R) is False. |
4. |
(A) is False and (R) is True. |
148. The correct order of the boiling point of the hydrides of 15th group is:
1. NH3>BiH3>SbH3>AsH3>PH3
2. BiH3>NH3>SbH3>AsH3>PH3
3. BiH3>SbH3>NH3>AsH3>PH3
4. BiH3>SbH3>AsH3>PH3>NH3
149.
Assertion (A): |
Boron is the hardest element in group-13. |
Reason (R): |
High lattice enthalpy is due to the strong crystalline lattice. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A) |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A) |
3. |
(A) is correct but (R) is the wrong statement |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are correct |
150. The lowest energy \(d \rightarrow d\) transition of the complexes follows the order
1. \([Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} ~~< ~~[Cr(NH_3)_6]^{3+} ~~< [Cr(CN)_6]^{3-} \)
2. \([Cr(CN)_6]^{3-} < [Cr(NH_3)_6]^{3+} < [Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)
3. \([Cr(CN)_6]^{3-} ~~< ~~[Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} ~~< [Cr(NH_3)_6] ^{3+} \)
4. \([Cr(NH_3)_6]^{3+} < ~~[Cr(CN)_6]^{3-} ~~< [Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+} \)
Physics - Section A
151. Light of wavelength
\(\lambda\) falls perpendicularly onto a single slit of width
\(d\). A diffraction maximum is formed at
\(P\) on a faraway screen placed parallel to plane of the slit. The first diffraction minimum is formed at
\(Q,\) as shown on the screen. Let
\(C\) be a 'point' so that it divides the slit
\(AB\) in the ratio
\(\frac{AC}{CB}=\frac12,\) i.e.
\(AC\) represents the upper
\(\frac13^{rd}\) of the slit. The total amplitude of the oscillation arriving from
\(AC\) at
\(Q\) is
\(A_1\) and from
\(CB\) at
\(Q\) is
\(A_2\).
Then:
1.
\(2 A_{1}=A_{2}\)
2.
\(A_{1}=2 A_{2}\)
3.
\(\sqrt{2} A_{1}=A_{2}\)
4.
\(A_{1}=A_{2}\)
152. Two long straight wires carrying currents
\(i_1, i_2\) are placed as shown in the figure, just avoiding contact. The separation between the wires is negligible, and the wires are aligned along
\(x\) &
\(y\) axes respectively.
The wire along the
\(x\text-\)axis experiences:
1. |
a force along \(+y\) axis only. |
2. |
a force along \(-y\) axis. |
3. |
zero force, but a torque. |
4. |
no force and no torque. |
153. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of \(1:3.\) The ratio of their nuclear densities would be:
1. \(1:3\)
2. \(3:1\)
3. \((3)^{1/3}:1\)
4. \(1:1\)
154. Which, of the following, does not suffer from chromatic aberration?
1. |
convex lens |
2. |
plano-convex lens |
3. |
concave lens |
4. |
concave mirror |
155. Following diagram performs the logic function of:
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. OR gate
4. XOR gate
156. If the rate of rotation of the earth were to increase, the apparent acceleration due to gravity on the equator would
1. |
increase |
2. |
decrease |
3. |
remain unchanged |
4. |
change in direction away from the cente |
157. The equation of vibration of a taut string, fixed at both ends, is given by:
\(y=(4~\text{mm})~\cos\Big(\frac{\pi x}{30~\text{cm}}\Big)~\sin\Big(400\pi~ \text{s}^{-1}t\Big) \)
The speed of waves on the string is:
1. \(30\) m/s
2. \(60\) m/s
3. \(90\) m/s
4. \(120\) m/s
158. A block is suspended from a spring and causes an extension of \(2\) cm. It is now imparted a kinetic energy \(E\) so that the block rises up by exactly \(2\) cm. If the block were to be given the same kinetic energy upward, without being attached to a spring, it would rise up by:
1. \(1\) cm
2. \(2\) cm
3. \(4\) cm
4. \(8\) cm
159. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
If the sun were to 'suddenly' be removed, then the earth would continue to move around in its orbit. |
Reason (R): |
Angular momentum of a system of particles is conserved when there is no external torque. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
160. The average electric field associated with the plane electromagnetic wave \(\overrightarrow E = E_0 \hat {i} \sin (wt - kz)\) is:
1. \(E_0 \hat i\)
2. \(E_0 \over \sqrt 2\) \(\hat i \)
3. \(\sqrt 2E_0 \hat i\)
4. zero (null)
161. A uniform rod of length
\(L\) is standing upright, pivoted at its lower end. The rod can freely rotate about the pivot. If it is slightly disturbed so that it falls to the ground, the speed of the highest point, when it strikes the ground will be:
1.
\(\sqrt{2gL}\)
2.
\(\sqrt{3gL}\)
3.
\(\sqrt{6gL}\)
4.
\(\sqrt{gL}\)
162. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the ground state of a \(H\)-atom is \(\lambda_1\) and that on the \(He^{+}\)-ion is \(\lambda_2.\) The kinetic energies of the electrons in the \(H\)-atom and the \(He^+\)-ion – having the same de-Broglie wavelength are \(E_1\) and \(E_2.\)
The ratio \(\frac{\lambda_1}{\lambda_2}\) is:
1. \(4\)
2. \(2\)
3. \(\frac12\)
4. \(\frac14\)
163. Which, of the following circuits, shows a Zener diode being used properly? Here
\(V_A>V_B\)
164. Two stones
\(A\) and
\(B\) are projected simultaneously with the same speed: one
\((A)\) vertically up and the other
\((B)\) horizontally from the same point. Stone
\(A\) rises up to a maximum height
\(H\) and falls down. The separation between
\(A\) and
\(B,\) when
\(A\) reaches its maximum height:
1. |
is less than \(H\) |
2. |
is greater than \(H\) |
3. |
is equal to \(H\) |
4. |
cannot be related with \(H\) |
165. During a certain atmospheric process, a pocket of air near the earth's surface rises upwards very rapidly into the upper regions of the atmosphere. As a result, the temperature of this air:
1. |
increases. |
2. |
decreases. |
3. |
remains constant. |
4. |
first increases, then decreases. |
166. The circuit shown in the diagram given below, is set up with all the capacitors initially uncharged.
The potential difference between
\(A\) and
\(B,\) after
\(A\) is connected to
\(Y\) and
\(B\) to
\(X,\) is:
1.
\(2.6\) V
2.
\(2.4\) V
3.
\(6\) V
4. zero
167. An elevator moving up is decelerating at \(1\) m/s2. Then, the apparent weight of a \(50\) kg man, on a weighing machine, will be: (Take \(g=\) \(10\) m/s2)
1. |
\(55\) kg |
2. |
\(45\) kg |
3. |
\(40\) kg |
4. |
none of the above |
168. A uniform ladder of mass
\(10\) kg is placed at an angle against a frictionless vertical wall, as shown in the figure, by applying a horizontal
force \(F\) at the
bottom \((B)\) of the ladder, towards the wall.
(Take \(g=10\) m/s2).
Assume that the ground is frictionless. The force
\(F\) equals:
1.
\(100\sqrt3\) N
2.
\(50\sqrt3\) N
3.
\(\frac{100}{\sqrt3}\) N
4.
\(\frac{50}{\sqrt3}\) N
169. A viscous liquid is flowing through a straight tube under the action of a pressure difference across the ends of the tube. The tube is aligned with the
\(x\)-axis. The force exerted on the tube by the liquid has the form:
\((a,b>0)\)
1.
\(a\hat i\)
2.
\(-a\hat i\)
3.
\(a\hat i+b\hat j\)
4.
\(-a\hat i+b\hat j\)
170. A particle of mass \(m\) collides with another particle of mass \(m',\) which is at rest and the combined mass moves with \(10\text{%}\) reduction in velocity. The ratio of the masses is:
1. \(\frac{m'}{m}=\frac{1}{10}\)
2. \(\frac{m'}{m}=\frac{1}{9}\)
3. \(\frac{m'}{m}=\frac{1}{8}\)
4. \(\frac{m'}{m}=\frac{1}{2}\)
171. An alternating emf (ac) is applied across the circuit shown in the figure. Let
\(V_{AX}\) be the voltage across the inductor
\(L,\) and
\(V_{XY}\) be the voltage across the resistor
\(R.\) Let the angular frequency be
\(\omega.\) The phase difference between
\(V_{XY}\) and
\(V_{AX}:\)
1. |
depends on the ratio \(\frac{\omega L}{R}\) |
2. |
depends on the quantity \(\sqrt{(\omega L)^2+R^2}\) |
3. |
depends on \(L\) and \(R,\) but not on \(\omega\) |
4. |
is independent of \(L,R,\omega\) |
172. A heavy uniform rope is suspended from the ceiling, and a block equal to \(3\) times the mass of the rope is suspended from the bottom. The ratio of the speed of a transverse pulse at the top \((v_t)\) to its speed at the bottom \((v_b)\) of the rope, \(\frac{v_t}{v_b}=\)
1. \(\frac43\)
2. \(\sqrt{\frac43}\)
3. \(\frac34\)
4. \(\sqrt{\frac34}\)
173. A boat, when rowed perpendicular to the flow of a
\(500\) m wide river, reaches its opposite bank in
\(10\) min. If the boat is rowed downstream at an angle of
\(30^\circ\) with the flow, it will cross in:
1. |
\(10\) min |
2. |
\(5\sqrt3\) min |
3. |
\(20\) min |
4. |
\(\dfrac{10}{\sqrt3}\) min |
174. A ray is incident normally onto the surface
\(AB\) of the prism
\((\angle A=30^\circ,\angle B=90^\circ).\) The refractive index of the material of the prism is
\(\sqrt2.\) The deviation of this ray is:
1.
\(30^\circ\) downward
2.
\(15^\circ\) downward
3.
\(30^\circ\) upward
4.
\(15^\circ\) upward
175. A piece of iron is heated until it is red hot. It is placed in a solenoid. As the temperature of the iron decreases, the magnetic field inside it:
1. first increases, then decreases.
2. first decreases, then increases.
3. increases.
4. decreases.
176. A straight horizontal wire
\(\mathrm{AB}\) of length
\(l\) falls from rest under gravity. A uniform horizontal magnetic field
\(B\) acts perpendicular to the plane of motion of
\(\mathrm{AB}\), as shown. The induced emf across
\(\mathrm{AB}\),
\(E\), is proportional to:
1.
\(B\)
2.
\(l\)
3. time,
\(t\)
4. all of the above
177. Assume that electron orbits around a nucleus in a circular orbit and Newton's Laws are valid. The ratio of the K.E. of the electron to the P.E. in orbit is (in magnitude):
1. \(1:2\)
2. \(2:1\)
3. \(1:1\)
4. none of the above
178. The left plate
\(A\) of an air capacitor is connected to the positive terminal while the right plate
\(B\) is connected to the negative terminal of a cell of voltage
\(V_0.\) Assume that the plate area is
\(A,\) and the plate separation is
\(d.\) If a slab of dielectric constant
\(K\) is inserted into the space between the plates, the electric field in the dielectric will be: (compared to the air capacitor)
1. |
more. |
2. |
less. |
3. |
equal. |
4. |
more or less or equal depending on the value of \(K\). |
179. Two cells are balanced on a potentiometer and give balance length readings of \(20~\text{cm}\) and \(30~\text{cm}\) respectively. If the cells are connected in parallel (with their like terminals connected together), the balance length of the combination is found to be \(28~\text{cm}\). Their resistances are in the ratio:
1. \(1 \over 3\)
2. \(3 \over 1\)
3. \(1 \over 4\)
4. \(4\over 1\)
180. If the volume of an ideal gas is doubled, isothermally, the final pressure is \(1\) atm. If the process were adiabatic, the pressure would have been:
1. \(1\) atm
2. \(0.5\) atm
3. less than \(1\) atm
4. greater than \(1\) atm
181. What does the following logic circuit represent?
1. AND
2. OR
3. NOR
4. XOR
182. The effective spring constant in calculating the time period of SHM of the system of springs and the block is:
1.
\((k_1+k_2)\)
2.
\(|k_1-k_2|\)
3.
\(\Big(\frac{1}{k_1}+\frac{1}{k_2}\Big)^{-1}\)
4.
\(\Big|\frac{1}{k_1}-\frac{1}{k_2}\Big|^{-1}\)
183. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: |
Gauss's law for electric fields is a consequence of the conservation of energy. |
Statement II: |
Coulomb's law for electric charges leads to a conservative electric field. |
1. |
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. |
2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
4. |
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. |
184. A simple pendulum is made with a thin wire (length: \(l,\) area: \(A,\) Young's modulus: \(Y\)) attached to a heavy bob of mass \(M.\) The pendulum is released from the rest with the bob at the same level as the point of suspension and swings down in a circular arc. The elongation in the wire when the bob reaches the lowest point is:
1. \(\frac{3 M g l}{A Y}\)
2. \(\frac{2 M g l}{A Y}\)
3. \(\frac{3 M g l}{2 A Y}\)
4. \(\frac{M g l}{A Y}\)
185. Find the dimension of the quantity: \(\varepsilon_0hc,\) where
\(\varepsilon_0\)=permittivity of free space
\(h\)=Planck's constant
\(c\)=speed of light in vacuum
1. \(\small\text{(charge)}\times\text{(energy)}\)
2. \(\small\text{(energy)}^2\)
3. \(\small\text{(charge)}^2\)
4. \(\large\frac{\text{charge}}{\text{energy}}\)
Physics - Section B
186. The potential difference
\(V_{AB}\) (in volts) is plotted as a function of the resistance
\(R.\) The graph is given by:
187. The electric field associated with a light wave is given by
\(E = E_0~ (\sin \omega_1 t)~ (\sin \omega_2 t)\).
This light wave falls on a metal having a threshold frequency,
\(\nu_o\). The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons will be: (
\(h\) is Planck's constant)
1. |
Either \(\frac{h \omega_{1}}{2 \pi}\) or \(\frac{h \omega_{2}}{2 \pi}\) |
2. |
Either\(\left(\frac{h \omega_{1}}{2 \pi}-h \nu_{0}\right)\) or \(\left(\frac{h \omega}{2 \pi}-h \nu_{0}\right)\) |
3. |
\(\frac{h\left(\omega_{1}+\omega_{2}\right)}{2 \pi}-h \nu_{0}\) |
4. |
Both \(\frac{h\left(\omega_{1}+\omega_{2}\right)}{2 \pi}-h \nu_{0}\) and \(\frac{h\left |\omega_{1}-\omega_{2}\right|}{2 \pi}-h \nu_{0}\) |
188. The magnitude of the integral of the quantity
\(\int\overrightarrow B\cdot\overrightarrow{dl}\) around the loop
\(PQR\) of the equilateral triangle is
\(K.\) The field at the center of the long solenoid is:
1.
\(\frac{K}{a}\)
2.
\(\frac{K}{b}\)
3.
\(\frac{K}{a-b}\)
4.
\(\frac{K}{a+b}\)
189. An elastic ball is projected vertically upward with a speed \(u,\) and it returns to the ground and rebounds, the motion is periodic with a period \(T.\) A simple pendulum, having a length equal to maximum altitude attained by this ball, would have a time period of:
1. \(T\)
2. \(\pi T\)
3. \(\pi\sqrt2T\)
4. \(\frac{\pi}{\sqrt 2}T\)
190. An astronaut, in a space shuttle, orbiting close to the earth's surface (take \(g= 10~\text{m/s}^2\)), suddenly fires his engines so as to give him a forward acceleration of \(\frac{3g}{4}\) along the direction of his motion. At that instant, his apparent weight is:
1. |
\(25\%\) more than his real weight. |
2. |
\(25\%\) less than his real weight. |
3. |
\(75\%\) more than his real weight. |
4. |
\(75\%\) less than his real weight. |
191. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is \(5.6~\text{V}\) in the given circuit.
The current \(I_Z\) through the Zener is:
1. \(7~\text{mA}\)
2. \(10~\text{mA}\)
3. \(17~\text{mA}\)
4. \(15~\text{mA}\)
192. A particle moves in a circle of radius \(R\) with a constant speed \(v.\) The average acceleration of the particle in during \(\Big(\frac16\Big)^{\mathrm{th}}\) revolution is:
1. \(\frac{v^2}{R}\)
2. \(\frac{2\pi v^2}{6R}\)
3. \(\frac{\pi v^2}{6 R}\)
4. \(\frac{3v^2}{\pi R}\)
193. As light traverses through an optical medium, it is observed that its wavelength decreases.
Statement I: |
In this case, the frequency of light increases. |
Statement II: |
In the above case, the refractive index of the medium increases. |
1. |
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. |
2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
4. |
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. |
194. The moment of inertia of a uniform semi-circular disc of
mass \(m\) and
radius \(r,\) about its open diameter is:
1. |
\(\frac{1}{2}mr^2\) |
2. |
\(\frac{1}{4}mr^2\) |
3. |
greater than \(\frac{1}{4}mr^2\) but less than \(\frac{1}{2}mr^2\) |
4. |
less than \(\frac{1}{4}mr^2\) |
195. A rod of mass M and length L is suspended vertically at its highest point. The rod is held so that it is horizontal and free to rotate about A and then released. There is no friction anywhere.
The angular speed of the road, when it reaches its lowest position, is \(\omega\). Then \(\omega^2\)=
1. \(\frac gL\)
2. \(\frac {2g}L\)
3. \(\frac {3g}L\)
4. \(\frac {12g}L\)
196. The quantity of heat required to take a system from \(\mathrm{A}\) to \(\mathrm{C}\) through the process \(\mathrm{ABC}\) is \(20\) cal. The quantity of heat required to go from \(\mathrm{A}\) to \(\mathrm{C}\) directly is:
1. |
\(20\) cal |
2. |
\(24.2\) cal |
3. |
\(21\) cal |
4. |
\(23\) cal |
197. A submarine having a fixed volume is floating submerged underwater. Air, at high pressure, is pumped into the submarine using pipes. Due to this, the submarine will:
1. |
rise. |
2. |
sink. |
3. |
float in the same position. |
4. |
either rise or sink depending on the air pressure. |
198. The unit of coefficient of volume expansion of metal is:
1. \((^\circ\text C)^ {-1}\)
2. \(\text{m}^3/^\circ\text C\)
3. \(^\circ\text C\)
4. \(^\circ\text C/\text{m}^3\)
199. Three charges are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. The potential at the mid-point of a side with opposite charges is
\(2\) V. The potential at the centre of the triangle is:
1.
\(2\) V
2.
\(3\) V
3.
\(2\sqrt3\) V
4.
\(\frac{2}{\sqrt3}\) V
200. Match the quantities in
List-I with their appropriate units in
List-II.
List-I |
List-II |
(a) inductance \(\times\) current |
(i) V |
(b) frequency \(\times\) capacitance |
(ii) Wb |
(c) frequency \(\times\) magnetic flux |
(iii) \(\Omega^{-1}\) |
(d) electric flux |
(iv) V-m |
1. |
a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii) |
2. |
a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv) |
3. |
a - (iii), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iv) |
4. |
a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i) |
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