Botany - Section A
1. In the given cross-section diagram of a tree A, B C and D respectively represent:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
Periderm |
Bark |
Secondary phloem |
Secondary xylem |
2. |
Periderm |
Bark |
Secondary xylem |
Secondary phloem |
3. |
Bark |
Periderm |
Secondary phloem |
Secondary xylem |
4. |
Bark |
Periderm |
Secondary xylem |
Secondary phloem |
2. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. |
Pericarp |
Wall of the fruit |
2. |
Perisperm |
Residual, persistent nucellus |
3. |
Perigynous |
A flower with superior ovary |
4. |
Perianth |
Floral structure comprised of calyx and corolla especially when the two whorls are fused |
3. The relationship between incident light and carbon dioxide fixation by photosynthetic plants, at low light intensities, is a:
1. | Straight line relationship | 2. | Hyperbola relationship |
3. | Parabola relationship | 4. | Ellipse relationship |
4. In cymose type of inflorescence:
1. |
the main axis terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in basipetal order |
2. |
the main axis continues to grow and the flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal order |
3. |
the main axis terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in an acropetal order |
4. |
the main axis continues to grow and the flowers are borne laterally in basipetal order |
5. The number of correct statements regarding anatomy of dicot stems is:
Statement I: |
Hypodermis consists of a few layers of collenchymatous cells. |
Statement II: |
The cells of the endodermis are rich in protein granules. |
Statement III: |
Pericycle is in the form of semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma. |
Statement IV: |
The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of dicot stem. |
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
6. The electrons excited to higher energy levels during photosynthesis belong to:
1. |
Water |
2. |
RuBP |
3. |
glucose |
4. |
chlorophyll |
7. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
In-situ conservation is preferred if the organism, needed to be protected, is facing a high threat of extinction. |
Reason (R): |
In-situ conservation is an on-site conservation where we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A) |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A) |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
8. Consider the given statements:
I: |
Griffith discovered the process of bacterial transformation. |
II: |
Hershey and Chase unequivocally proved that DNA is the genetic material. |
III: |
Meselson and Stahl showed that DNA replicated semi-conservatively. |
1. |
Only I and II are correct |
2. |
Only I and III are correct |
3. |
Only II and III are correct |
4. |
I, II and III are correct |
9. The endomembrane system is composed of the different membranes that are suspended in the cytoplasm within a eukaryotic cell. These membranes divide the cell into functional and structural compartments, or organelles. The system includes all the following except:
1. |
ER |
2. |
Golgi apparatus |
3. |
Chloroplasts |
4. |
Vacuoles |
10. Consider the given statements:
I: |
Prop roots are seen in Banyan tree |
II: |
Stilt roots are seen in maize and sugarcane |
III: |
Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora |
1. |
Only I and II are correct |
2. |
Only I and III are correct |
3. |
Only II and III are correct |
4. |
I, II and III are correct |
11. Consider the following statements about the different classes of algae:
I: |
The members of Chlorophyceae have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose |
II: |
The members of Rhodophyceae do not have a flagellum |
III: |
Members of Phaeophyceae store food as floridean starch which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure |
1. |
Only I and III are correct |
2. |
Only I and II are correct |
3. |
Only II and III are correct |
4. |
All I, II and III are correct |
12. The expression for arithmetic growth rate in plants can be
1. \(L_t=L_0+r t \)
2. \(W_t=W_0 . e^{r t} \)
3. \(L_t=L_0 \times r t \)
4. \(L_t=L_0+\frac{r}{t}\)
13. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
UV radiations can cause mutations in organisms – it is a mutagen. |
Reason (R): |
UV radiations are ionising radiations. |
1. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) |
4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
14. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in:
1. Endosperm
2. Cotyledons
3. Hypocotyl
4. Perisperm
15. What stage of prophase I of meiosis I:
a. is characterized by the visibility of chiasmata
b. can last for months and years in some vertebrate oocytes
1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene
3. Diplotene
4. Diakinesis
16. Normally, microinjection and biolistics [gene gun] are used, respectively, to transform:
1. plant cells and animal cells
2. animal cells and plant cells
3. animal cells and bacterial cells
4. plant cells and bacterial cells
17.
Assertion (A): |
In the respiratory pathway, different substrates would enter if they were to be respired and used to derive energy. |
Reason (R): |
Fatty acids would be broken down to acetyl CoA before entering the respiratory pathway. |
Choices for Assertions and reasons:
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
|
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
|
3. |
(A) is True, but (R) is False.
|
4. |
(A) is False, but (R) is True. |
18. While carrying out a dihybrid cross [a mating of two organisms heterozygous for two traits], a phenotype ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the offspring is expected when:
1. |
the genes are linked [located on the same chromosome |
2. |
each gene contains two mutations |
3. |
the gene pairs assort independently during meiosis |
4. |
the alleles of both genes show either co-dominance or incomplete dominance |
19. Identify the correct combination of A, B and C involved in lactic acid fermentation
\(\mathrm{C}_6 \mathrm{H}_{12} \mathrm{O}_6 \rightarrow \mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B} \rightarrow \text { Lactic acid }+\mathrm{C}\)
|
A |
B |
C |
1. |
2NADH + H+ |
2NAD+ |
Pyruvic acid |
2. |
2NADH + H+ |
Pyruvic acid |
2NAD+ |
3. |
Pyruvic acid |
2NADH + H+ |
2NAD+ |
4. |
Pyruvic acid |
2NAD+ |
2NADH + H+ |
20. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
Cryopreservation or cryoconservation is a process where biological material - cells, tissues, or organs - are frozen to preserve the material for an extended period of time. |
Statement II: |
It is not possible to store pollen grains of angiosperms by cryopreservation. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
21. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright. |
II: |
Energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level. |
1. Only
I is correct
2. Only
II is correct
3. Both
I and
II are correct
4. Both
I and
II are incorrect
22. Consider the given two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted. |
Reason (R): |
When energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A). |
2. |
(A) is True but (R) is False |
3. |
(A) is False but (R) is True |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A). |
23. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:
|
COLUMN I
[Family] |
|
COLUMN II
[Floral character] |
A |
Brassicaceae |
P |
Tetradynamous stamen |
B |
Fabaceae |
Q |
Obliquely placed ovary |
C |
Solanaceae |
R |
Epitepalous stamen |
D |
Liliaceae |
S |
Vexillary aestivation |
Codes:
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
S |
R |
Q |
P |
2. |
R |
Q |
S |
P |
3. |
P |
Q |
S |
R |
4. |
P |
S |
Q |
R |
24. Which component of the endomembrane system of a eukaryotic cell is frequently observed in cells involved in protein synthesis and secretion?
1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi complex
3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Chloroplasts
25. What is the number of correct statements from those given below?
I: |
Primary xylem is endarch in roots |
II: |
Phloem parenchyma is present in most of the monocots. |
III: |
Phloem fibers are generally absent in the primary phloem. |
IV: |
Companion cells are collenchymatous cells. |
V: |
Angiosperms lack vessels in their xylem. |
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
26. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
In vegetative reproduction, the offsprings are produced from the somatic cells |
2. |
There are usually two germ pores in the pollen wall of dicots |
3. |
In over 60 percent of angiosperms, the pollen grains are shed at 2 celled stage |
4. |
No enzyme that can degrade sporopollenin is so far known |
27. To promote stem elongation, gibberellins act in concert with:
1. Auxins |
2. Cytokinins |
3. Ethylene |
4. ABA |
28. DNA fragments created by the action of restriction enzymes can be separated by agar gel electrophoresis where:
I: |
larger the fragment size, the farther it moves in the gel |
II: |
the DNA fragments are forced to move towards anode under an electric field |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
29. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
That humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature is the broadly utilitarian argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. |
Statement II: |
That biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides is the narrowly utilitarian argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
3. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
30. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): |
Light is the main variable limiting primary production in the oceans. |
Reason (R): |
Solar radiation does not drive photosynthesis in oceans. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
31. Viruses:
1. contain both DNA and RNA as genetic material
2. are facultative parasites
3. cannot be crystallized
4. are nucleoproteins
32. Which of the following secondary metabolites is an alkaloid and is clinically used as a very potent analgesic?
1. | Morphine | 2. | Abrin |
3. | Lectin | 4. | Taxol |
33. Identify the option where the names of scientists given in Column I are not correctly matched with their contribution to the science of genetics:
|
COLUMN I |
COLUMN II |
1. |
De Vries, Correns, Tschermak |
Disproved Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment |
2. |
Sutton and Boveri |
Gave the chromosomal theory of inheritance |
3. |
Alfred Sturtevant |
Developed the first genetic map |
4. |
T. H. Morgan |
Discovery of the white-eyed mutation in the fruit fly |
34. GEAC stands for:
1. |
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee |
2. |
Green Environment Action Committee |
3. |
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Council |
4. |
Genetic Ethics Approval Committee |
35. In transcription:
1. |
RNA complement formed includes the nucleotide uracil (U) in all instances where thymine (T) would have occurred in a DNA complement. |
2. |
The template strand of DNA is called the coding strand. |
3. |
RNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to the 5' end of the growing mRNA chain. |
4. |
The error rate is much lower than that in DNA replication. |
Botany - Section B
36. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
1. | Lantana | 2. | Cynodon |
3. | Parthenium | 4. | Eichhornia
|
37. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): |
The maximum concentration of alcohol in beverages that are
naturally fermented with yeast is about 13%. |
Reason (R): |
In alcohol fermentation, yeast converts pyruvic acid to ethanol
and carbon dioxide. |
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are False. |
38. The mode of replication of B-DNA can best be described as:
1. Semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous
2. Semi-conservative and discontinuous
3. Conservative and semi-discontinuous
4. Conservative and discontinuous
39. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
Transcription and translation can be coupled in prokaryotes |
2. |
DNA is a better genetic material than RNA |
3. |
It is the presence of structural gene in a transcription unit that defines the template and coding strands |
4. |
RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNAs |
40. In the DNA double helix:
I: |
At each step of ascent, the strand turns 34º. |
II: |
The rise per base pair would be 0.36 nm. |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
41. After cytokinesis in a plant cell, which of the following is formed first?
1. The primary cell wall
2. The middle lamella
3. The secondary cell wall
4. There is no particular chronology
42. A plasmid contains two genes for resistance to separate antibiotics. One of the two is insertionally inactivated due to insertion of alien DNA.
I: |
The gene that was not inactivated helps in selecting the transformants. |
II: |
The gene that was insertionally inactivated helps in selection of recombinants. |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
I, II and III are correct |
43. Consider the two statements:
Statement I: |
In the photorespiratory pathway, there is synthesis of sugars, but not of ATP. |
Statement II: |
Photorespiratory pathway results in the release of CO2 with the utilization of ATP. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
44. The substrate has to go through a higher energy state or transition state during its conversion to a product in:
I: |
Exothermic spontaneous reactions |
II: |
Endothermic reactions |
III: |
Enzyme catalyzed reactions |
1. |
Only I and II |
2. |
Only I and III |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II, and III |
45. The terms that can be applied to all gymnosperms include:
1. |
Naked seeds, Homosporous, Dominant independent sporophyte |
2. |
Seeds enclosed in ovary wall, Heterosporous, Dominant independent sporophyte |
3. |
Naked seeds, Heterosporous, Dominant independent sporophyte |
4. |
Naked seeds, Heterosporous, Dominant independent gametophyte |
46. The term ' systematics' refers to:
1. Identification and classification of plants and animals
2. Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
3. Diversity of kinds of organism and their relationship
4. Different kinds of organism and their classification
47. In the formula for exponential growth (dN/dt = rN), what does ‘r’ stand for?
1. the carrying capacity of the environment
2. the change in time
3. the number of individuals in the population
4. the intrinsic rate of natural increase of the population
48. Given below is the photograph of a Judean date palm [Phoenix dactylifera] nicknamed Methuselah at Ketura, Israel. The primary reason for the fame of this plant is that:
1. |
It is the first plant whose entire genome has been sequenced. |
2. |
It is the only type of date palm capable of growing outside the Middle East. |
3. |
This plant is the oldest verified human-assisted germination of a seed. |
4. |
It is a genetically modified plant enriched with Vitamin A. |
49. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
In competitive enzyme inhibition, the substrate and inhibitor cannot bind to the enzyme at the same time. |
II: |
The inhibitor always has a much higher affinity for the active site than the normal substrate. |
1. |
Both I and II are correct and II explains I |
2. |
Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I |
3. |
I is correct but II is incorrect |
4. |
I is incorrect but II is correct |
50. Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding C4 plants and chose your answer from the codes given below:
Column I |
Column II |
I. Calvin cycle |
1. Bundle sheath cells |
II. Initial carboxylation |
2. Mesophyll cells |
III. Primary CO2 acceptor |
3. RuBP |
IV. Primary CO 2 fixation |
4. PEP product |
|
5. PGA |
|
6. OAA |
Codes:
|
I |
II |
III |
IV |
A. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
5 |
B. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
6 |
C. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
5 |
D. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
6 |
Zoology - Section A
51. A functional mammary gland is a characteristic feature of:
1. all mammals
2. all female mammals
3. only primate female mammals
4. all female vertebrates
52. Mycoplasma:
I: |
completely lack a cell wall |
II: |
are the smallest living cells known |
III: |
can survive without oxygen |
1. |
Only I and II are true |
2. |
Only I and III are true |
3. |
Only II and III are true |
4. |
All I, II and III are true |
53. For the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac how many of the nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells:
54. An endoparasite in the human alimentary canal is expected to possess:
I: |
Well-developed locomotion |
II: |
A means to protect itself against the digestive juices of humans |
III: |
A high reproductive capacity |
1. |
Only II |
2. |
Only I and II |
3. |
Only II and III |
4. |
I, II and III |
55. Saheli is:
1. |
a copper releasing intra-uterine device |
2. |
combination oral contraceptive pill |
3. |
non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI |
4. |
is an assisted reproductive technology centre located in New Delhi |
56. Typhoid is
1. |
Caused by bacterium which infects only small intestine by means of food and water that is contaminated
|
2. |
Caused by protozoan which infects small intestine by means of contaminated water and food and then migrates to other organs through blood
|
3. |
Caused by bacterium which infects small intestine by means of contaminated water and food and then migrates to other organs through blood
|
4. |
Caused by protozoan which infects only small intestine by means of food and water that is contaminated |
57. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. |
Morphine is a potent painkiller |
2. |
Excessive dose of cocaine can cause hallucinations |
3. |
Nicotine stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete mineralocorticoids |
4. |
Marijuana is derived from Cannabis sativa |
58. Which of the following can permanently cure ADA deficiency?
1. |
Bone marrow transplant |
2. |
Enzyme replacement therapy |
3. |
Introduction of the gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA at early embryonic stages. |
4. |
Introduction of a functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) into peripheral lymphocytes. |
59. The mRNA codons GAG and GUG respectively code for:
1. Valine and Glutamic acid
2. Glutamic acid and Valine
3. Tryptophan and Methionine
4. Methionine and Tryptophan
60. Which of the following hormones is most important for supporting pregnancy in a human female?
1. LH
2. FSH
3. Progesterone
4. Estrogen
61. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. |
Echinodermata |
Water vascular system |
2. |
Hemichordata |
Stomochord |
3. |
Cyclostomata |
Cartilaginous jaw |
4. |
Cephalochordata |
Notochord persistent throughout life |
62. At the end of the S-phase during the cell cycle in a typical eukaryotic animal cell [having 2N chromosome number and 2C DNA content at the G1 phase]:
1. |
The chromosome number and DNA content remain 2N and 2C respectively |
2. |
The chromosome number and DNA content are 4N and 2C respectively |
3. |
The chromosome number and DNA content are 2N and 4C respectively |
4. |
The chromosome number and DNA content are 4N and 4C respectively |
63. In bacteria:
1. |
translation can begin before the mRNA is fully transcribed |
2. |
removal of introns from hnRNA is carried out by ribozymes |
3. |
there are at least three different RNA polymerases to transcribe different RNA molecules |
4. |
the transcription of mRNA takes place in a template independent manner |
64. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
A. |
Porifera |
P |
Metagenesis |
B. |
Cnidaria |
Q |
Flame cells |
C. |
Ctenophora |
R |
Comb Plates |
D. |
Platyhelminthes |
S |
Choanocyte |
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
R |
Q |
S |
P |
2. |
S |
P |
R |
Q |
3. |
P |
S |
Q |
R |
4. |
Q |
R |
P |
S |
65. Taq polymerase is:
1. |
is a ribozyme involved in RNA splicing in eukaryotes |
2. |
is a thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR |
3. |
is a key reagent in ELISA |
4. |
an enzyme isolated from Thermus aquaticus, a fungus found in damp soils |
66. Regarding the regulation of respiration by brain:
I: |
The rhythm center is located in the medulla oblongata. |
II: |
Pneumotaxic center is located in the mid brain |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
3. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
4. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
67. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
ABO grouping is based on the presence or absence of three surface antigens on the RBCs namely A, B and O. |
Statement II: |
Rh grouping is based on the presence or absence of the type of antibody present in the plasma. |
1. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct |
2. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect |
3. |
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct |
4. |
Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect |
68. Identify the pair of white blood cells that are most effective phagocytes:
1. Neutrophils and Eosinophils
2. Basophils and Monocytes
3. Neutrophils and Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes and Eosinophils
69. For megasporogenesis ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell, (MMC) in:
1. the chalazal region of the nucellus.
2. the micropylar region of the nucellus.
3. the micropylar region of the embryo sac.
4. the chalazal region of the embryo sac.
70. Consider the given two statements:
Statement I: |
The fore limbs in frogs end in five digits and they are larger and muscular than hind limbs that end in four digits. |
Statement II: |
Feet in frogs have webbed digits that help in swimming. |
1.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is correct
2.
Statement I is correct;
Statement II is incorrect
3.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is correct
4.
Statement I is incorrect;
Statement II is incorrect
71. HIV infection can cause life-threatening opportunistic infections in humans as it attacks and destroys:
1. Helper T cells
2. Cytotoxic T cells
3. Suppressor T cells
4. B cells
72. Which of the following is not a salient feature of the human genome?
1. |
Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins |
2. |
Chromosome 1 has most genes [2969] and the Y has the fewest [231] |
3. |
The function of almost all the discovered genes is known |
4. |
Repeated sequences make up a very large portion of human genome |
73. Which of the following statements regarding epithelium is not correct?
1. |
Blood capillaries and alveoli are lined with simple sqamous epithelium |
2. |
Fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated epithelium |
3. |
Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron is lined with compound cuboidal epithelium |
4. |
Columnar brush bordered epithelium [with microvilli] is found in the lining of small intestine |
74. All the following are examples of synovial joints except:
1. joint between carpal bones
2. joint between adjacent thoracic vertebrae
3. joint between atlas and axis vertebra
4. joint between the humerus and pectoral girdle
75. Work of which of the following scientists was the basis upon which the discipline of biotechnology was founded?
1. |
Cohen and Boyer |
2. |
Watson and Crick |
3. |
Hershey and Chase |
4. |
Avery, Macleod and McCarty |
76. Cells in the human body that secrete products like lipids and steroids are likely to have an abundance of:
1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
3. Lysosomes
4. Mitochondria
77. The peak secretion of which of the following hormones does not coincide with the day, in the menstrual cycle, of the peak secretion of other three hormones?
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH
78. Approximately, what percent of all insects are phytophagous?
1. 1
2. 10
3. 25
4. 90
79. When two genes in a dihybrid cross are situated on the same chromosome close to each other, the proportion of parental gene combinations is:
1. |
much higher than the non-parental type |
2. |
much lower than the non-parental type |
3. |
equal to the non-parental type |
4. |
not seen at all |
80. The ‘H-zone’ in a sarcomere:
1. |
is the central part of thick filaments not overlapped by thin filaments |
2. |
is the peripheral part of thick filaments not overlapped by thin filaments |
3. |
is the central part of thick filaments overlapped by thin filaments |
4. |
is the peripheral part of thick filaments overlapped by thin filaments |
81. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
1. Nearly impermeable to potassium ions (K+)
2. Impermeable to positively charged proteins present in the axoplasm
3. Comparatively more permeable to K+
4. Completely permeable to sodium ions
82. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (1-4) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult.
|
Respiratory capacities |
Respiratory volume |
(a) |
Residual volume |
2500 mL |
(b) |
Vital capacity |
3500 mL |
(c) |
Inspiratory reserve volume |
1200 mL |
(d) |
Inspiratory capacity |
4500 mL |
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes?
1. (a) 2500 mL, (d) 4500 mL
2. (c) 1200 mL, (a) 2500 mL
3. (b) 4500 mL, (c) 2500 mL
4. (d) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
83. In human embryonic development, the first movements of the foetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed:
1. |
By the end of the second month |
2. |
During the third month |
3. |
By the end of the fourth month |
4. |
During the fifth month |
84. Consider the following statements:
I: |
Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria. |
II: |
Release of hemosiderin from burst RBCs is responsible for paroxysms of malarial attacks. |
III: |
Sporozoites are the infectious forms of Plasmodium. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III
|
85. An increase in the ventricular pressure during ventricular systole leads first to:
1. closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
2. opening of aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves
3. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
4. Closure of aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves
Zoology - Section B
86. Select the right match of the endocrine gland and their hormones among the options given below:
Column I
|
Column II
|
A. Pineal
B. Thyroid
C. Ovary
D. Adrenal medulla
|
1. Epinephrine
2. Melatonin
3. Estrogen
4. Tetraiodothyronine
|
Codes
Options: |
A |
B |
C |
D |
1. |
4 |
2 |
1 |
3 |
2. |
2 |
4 |
1 |
3 |
3. |
3 |
2 |
1 |
4 |
4. |
2 |
4 |
3 |
1 |
87. Sickle cell anaemia is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. What proportion of progeny will be normal as a result of mating between two individuals who are carriers for the trait but are themselves not affected?
1. 25%
2. 100%
3. 50%
4. 75%
88. In a healthy adult human being, on an average:
1. |
about 25 – 30 mg of urea is excreted out per day |
2. |
125 ml per minute urine is produced |
3. |
about 200 L carbon dioxide is removed by the lungs per minute |
4. |
1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute |
89. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Some infections with gram-negative bacteria can lead to life-threatening septic shock. |
Reason (R): |
Lipopolysaccharide layer in gram-negative bacteria can trigger an innate immune response. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is true but (R) is false. |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are false. |
90. Which of the following organic acids is produced by a fungus
1. |
Acetic acid |
2. |
Butyric acid |
3. |
Lactic acid |
4. |
Citric acid |
91. Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products can be created to treat all the following except:
1. emphysema.
2. phenylketonuria (PKU).
3. Down’s syndrome.
4. cystic fibrosis.
92. Consider the given two statements:
I: |
The type of antigen present on the RBCs of a person with blood group type A is A |
II: |
The type of antibodies present in the plasma of a person with blood group type A is anti-A |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
93. A process in which the fitness of one species (measured in terms of its ‘r’, the intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower in the presence of another species best describes:
1. competition
2. commensalism
3. predation
4. amensalism
94. Match the following column I with column II and select the correct option
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
A. |
Ladybird |
(i) |
Nucleopolyhedrovirus |
B. |
Bacillus thuringiensis |
(ii) |
Mosquito |
C. |
Baculoviruses |
(iii) |
Aphids |
D. |
Dragonflies |
(iv) |
Butterfly caterpillar |
A B C D
1. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
2. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
95. What restores the resting potential of the axonal membrane at the site of excitation after depolarisation?
1. Influx of sodium ions
2. Influx of potassium ions
3. Efflux of sodium ions
4. Efflux of potassium ions
96. Luteinizing hormone:
I: |
acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. |
II: |
acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis. |
1. |
Only I is correct |
2. |
Only II is correct |
3. |
Both I and II are correct |
4. |
Both I and II are incorrect |
97. Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) in humans is caused by:
1. |
An agent which consists of abnormally folded protein and is smaller in size to viruses |
2. |
An agent having DNA |
3. |
An agent which consists of abnormally folded protein and is similar in size to viruses |
4. |
The same agent which causes potato spindle tuber disease |
98. Adrenaline, Angiotensin II and ADH can all:
1. |
cross target cell membrane and influence gene activity |
2. |
cause vasoconstriction |
3. |
be secreted by postganglionic sympathetic neurons |
4. |
increase blood glucose levels |
99. What would be the number of intercostal spaces in the human thoracic cage?
100. Which of the following Intrauterine devices are most likely to make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms?
1. Lippes loop
2. Multiload 375
3. Progestasert
4. Cu T
102. The most paramagnetic species is
1. \(Ni^{2+}(Z = 28)\)
2. \(Fe^{2+}(Z = 26)\)
3. \(Mn^{2+}(Z = 25)\)
4. \(V^{3+}(Z = 23)\)
103. The correct order of the stability of ions is:
1. |
\(Ge^{2+} < Ge^{4+} \) |
2. |
\(Sn^{2+} < Sn^{4+} \) |
3. |
\(Pb^{2+} > Pb^{4+} \) |
4. |
All of the above |
104. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and 26 which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of electron?
1. [Cr(CO)6]
2. [Fe(CO)5]
3. [Fe(CN)6]4-
4. [Cr(NH3)6]3+
105. In the preparation of
\(H_2O_2\), when 50%
\(H_2SO_4\) the solution is electrolysed, the ion discharged at the anode is
1. |
\(SO^{2-}_4\) |
2. |
\(OH^-\) |
3. |
\(HSO^-_4\) |
4. |
\(Cl^-\) |
106. The IUPAC name of one super heavy element is ununquadium. The position of this element in periodic table is:
1. 12th group and 7th period
2. 16th group and 7th period
3. 14th group anf 7th period
4. 14th group and 6th period
107. \(\land^o_m\) for NaCl, HCl and \(\mathrm{CH_3COONa }\) are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.05 S cm2 mol–1 respectively. If the conductivity of 0.001028 mol L–1 acetic acid solution is \(4.95 \times 10^{-5} S ~cm^{-1} \), the degree of dissociation of the acetic acid solution is-
1. |
0.01233 |
2. |
1.00 |
3. |
0.1233 |
4. |
1.233 |
108. Which one of the elements has highest ionisation energy?
1. [Ne] 3s2 3p1
2. [Ne] 3s2 3p2
3. [Ne] 3s2 3p3
4. [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p2
109. The correct order of C-O bond length among CO, , CO2 is:
1. CO2<<CO
2. CO<<CO2
3. <CO2<CO
4. CO<CO2<
110. The correct name of the given compound is:
1. 2-Hydroxycyclopentanal
2. 2-Formyl-1-hydroxycyclopentane
3. 2-Hydroxycyclopentanecarbaldehyde
4. Cyclopentane-2-ol-1-al
111. The correct order of reactivity of the following compounds towards electrophilic substitution reaction will be
1. I > II > III > IV > V
2. I > II > IV > V > III
3. I > IV > II > V > III
4. I > II > IV > III > V
112. Match the following reactions in Column-I to the correct enthalpy associated with them given in Column-II:
Column-I |
Column-II |
A. \(C_6H_6(l)+\frac{15}{2}O_2\rightarrow6CO_2(g)+3H_2O(l) \) |
I. \(\Delta_{\text{lattice}}H^\circ\) |
B. \(NaCl(s)\rightarrow Na^+(g)+Cl^-(g) \) |
II. \(\Delta_{\text{hyd}}H^\circ\) |
C. \(AB(s)\rightarrow A^+(aq)+B^-(aq) \) |
III. \(\Delta_\text cH^\circ \) |
D. \(A^+(g)+B^-(g)\rightarrow A^+(aq)+B^-(aq) \) |
IV. \(\Delta_{\text{sol}}H^\circ \) |
Choose the correct option from the following:
1. A - (III); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (II)
2. A - (III); B - (I); C - (II); D - (IV)
3. A - (II); B - (I); C - (IV); D - (III)
4. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV)
113. Given below are pair of species. Which pair has the largest difference in sizes?
1. |
Na and K |
2. |
K and K+ |
3. |
Cl and Cl- |
4. |
Cl and Br |
114. The correct order among the following is:
1. |
\(\mathrm{I^- > I >I^+}\) (Radii) |
2. |
\(\mathrm{I^- > I > I^+}\) (Ionisation energy) |
3. |
\(\mathrm{Li^+}\) (aqueous) < \(\mathrm{Na^+}\) (aqueous) < \(\mathrm{K^+}\) (aqueous) (Radii) |
4. |
\(\mathrm{F > Cl > Br > I}\) (Electron Affinity) |
115. Which pair of compounds are anomers to each other?
1. Glucose & Mannose
2. Glucose & Galactose
3. \(\alpha\)-D Glucose & \(\beta\)-D Glucose
4. Glucose & Fructose
116. The correct order of boiling point of the hydrides of 15th group is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
117. Given the following reaction:
\(+HNO_2~\longrightarrow~A(\text{major}),\)
The compound
\('A'\) in the above reaction is
118. The most stable carbanion among the following is-
119. If an optically active alkyl halide is reacted with nucleophile through SN1 mechanism then which of the following statement is correct ?
1. 100% racemisation takes place
2. Maximum racemisation with partial inversion takes place
3. Maximum inversion with partial racemisation takes place
4. 100% inversion takes place
120. For an endothermic reaction, where \(\Delta H\) represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mole, the minimum value for the energy of activation will be
1. Less than \(\Delta H\)
2. Zero
3. More than \(\Delta H\)
4. Equal to \(\Delta H\)
121. Consider the following complexes:
1. K2[PtCl6]
2. PtCl4.2NH3
3. PtCl4.3NH3
4. PtCl4.5NH3
Their electrical conductances in aqueous solution respectively are:
1. |
256, 0, 97, 404 |
2. |
404, 0, 97, 256 |
3. |
256, 97, 0, 404 |
4. |
404, 97, 256, 0 |
122. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
Ionisation enthalpies of early actinoids are lower than for early lanthanoids. |
Reason (R): |
Electrons are entering 5f orbitals in actinoids which experience greater shielding from nuclear charge. |
1. |
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
2. |
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
3. |
(A) is True but (R) is False. |
4. |
(A) is False but (R) is True. |
123. Case Study:
A buffer solution is defined as a solution whose pH remains practically constant even when small amounts of an acid or a base are added to it.
Types of buffer solutions :
(i) Acidic buffer: It is a solution of a mixture of a weak acid and a salt of this weak acid with a strong base (e.g. CH3COOH + CH3COONa)
(ii) Basic buffer: It is the solution of a mixture of a weak base and a salt of this weak base with a strong acid (e.g. NH4OH + NH4Cl)
Henderson's equation is used to determine pH of buffer mixtures of differ types:
for acidic buffer Henderson's equation is
pH= pKa + log \([Salt] \over [Acid]\) (ka = ionisation constant of weak acid )
for basic buffer Henderson's equation is :
POH = Pkb + log \([Salt] \over [Base]\) (kb = ionisation constant of weak base )
How many moles of HCl are required with 0.01 mole NaCN to prepare a buffer solution of pH =9?
(ka of HCN = \(1 \times 10^{-10}\))
1. 0.009
2. 0.09
3. 0.9
4. Buffer solution cannot formed
124. Two electrolytic cells are connected in series containing \(CuSO_4\) solution and molten \(AlCl_3.\) If in electrolysis \(0.4\) moles of \('Cu'\) are deposited on cathode of first cell, the number of moles of \('Al'\) deposited on cathode of the second cell is
1. \(0.6\) moles
2. \(0.27\) moles
3. \(0.18\) moles
4. \(0.4\) moles
125. Which, of the following, laws of chemical combination is followed by \(N_2O~, NO \) and \(N_2O_3\) ?
1. Law of conservation of mass
2. Law of multiple proportions
3. Law of constant proportions
4. Gay Lussac's law of constant volume
126. Two sets of quantum numbers with the same number of radial nodes are -
1. n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0 and n = 2, l = 0, ml = 0
2. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0 and n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0
3. n = 3, l = 1, ml = –1 and n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0
4. n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1 and n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0
127. The correct increasing order of solubility of the following gases is:
(\(\mathrm{K_H}\) values for \(\mathrm{Ar_(g), CO_{2(g)} , HCHO_{(g)}}\) and \(\mathrm{CH_{4(g)}}\) are 40.39, 1.67, \(1.83 \times 10^{-5}\) and 0.413 respectively.)
1. \(\mathrm{HCHO < CH_4 < CO_2 < Ar}\)
2. \(\mathrm{HCHO < CO_2 < CH_4 < Ar}\)
3. \(\mathrm{Ar < CO_2 < CH_4 < HCHO}\)
4. \(\mathrm{Ar < CH_4 <CO_2< HCHO}\)
128. When \(KMnO_4\) is reacted with oxalic acid in presence of dilute \(H_2SO_4\) then decolourisation of \(KMnO_4\) takes place. In this reaction, the autocatalyst is
1. \(Mn^{2+}\)
2. \(SO^{2-}_4\)
3. \(CO_2\)
4. \(K^+\)
129. Carbonyl compounds reacts with ammonia derivatives through substitution reaction. In these reactions, what pH value needs to be maintained?
1. 2 to 3
2. 4 to 5
3. 6 to 7
4. 9 to 10
130. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The mixture shows
1. |
Negative deviation from Raoult’s law |
2. |
Positive deviation from Raoult’s law |
3. |
No deviation from Raoult’s law |
4. |
Deviation which cannot be predicted from the given information |
131. Select the correct option for the shape acquired by the following ions
\(BH^-_4; CO^{2-}_3 ; ClO^-_3 ; ClO^-_4 \) respectively:
1. |
Tetrahedral; Planar; Pyramidal; Tetrahedral |
2. |
Tetrahedral; Planar; Tetrahedral; Tetrahedral |
3. |
Pyramidal; Planar; Tetrahedral; Tetrahedral |
4. |
Tetrahedral; Planar; Pyramidal; Pyramidal |
132. Which of the following acts as a lewis acid?
1. \(NH_3\)
2. \(SnCl_4\)
3. \(CCl_4\)
4. None of these
133. At 300 K, when a solute is added to a solvent, its vapour pressure over the mercury reduces from 50 mm to 45 mm. The value of the mole fraction of the solute will be:
1. |
0.005 |
2. |
0.010 |
3. |
0.100 |
4. |
0.900 |
134. Which compound does not give Lassaigne's test for nitrogen?
1. Urea
2. \(H_2NOH\)
3. \(C_6H^-_5NO_2\)
4. \(C_6H^-_5NH_2\)
135. In which of the following neutralisation reactions, rise in temperature of the solution will be the highest?
1. 100 ml 0.1 M HCl + 150 ml 0.1 M NaOH
2. 50 ml 0.1 M HCl + 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH
3. 300 ml 0.1 M HCl + 400 ml 0.1 M NaOH
4. 75 ml 0.1 M HCl + 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH
Chemistry - Section B
136. The molarity of
\(NaNO_3 \) solution (molecular weight of
\(NaNO_3\) = 85) is 1M. The density of the solution is 1.25 gm/ml. The molality of the solution, approximately, will be
1. 0.80
2. 0.86
3. 0.96
4. 1
137. Match List I with List II and mark the appropriate option.
List I
(Types of bond) |
List II
(Molecules) |
A. Ionic |
I. NH3.BF3 |
B. Covalent |
II. HCl |
C. Hydrogen bond |
III. LiF |
D. Coordinate bond |
IV. HF |
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
1 |
II |
III |
IV |
I |
2 |
III |
II |
I |
IV |
3 |
III |
II |
IV |
I |
4 |
II |
III |
I |
IV |
138. Which of the ions among the following is the largest in size?
1. Li+ (aqueous)
2. Cs+ (aqueous)
3. Li+ (g)
4. Cs+ (g)
139. For the spontaneity of freezing of water, which condition must be imposed?
1. \(\Delta H>T\Delta S \)
2. \(\Delta H<T\Delta S \)
3. \(\Delta H=T\Delta S \)
4. Freezing of water is always non-spontaneous
140. Which of the following is not an ambidentate ligand?
1. \(CN^-\)
2. \(NH_3\)
3. \(SCN^-\)
4. \(NO^-_2\)
141. Given the equation
\(CH_3 - C \equiv CH + H_2O \xrightarrow [20\% ~H_2SO_4] {1\% ~HgSO_4} A\)
The product 'A' is:
1. \(CH_3 - CH_2 - CHO \)
2. \(CH_3 - CO - CH_3\)
3. \(CH_3 - CH_2 -CH_2 - OH\)
4. \( CH_3 - CH(OH) - CH_3\)
142. The hybridisation of Xe & shape of XeO
2F
2, respectively, are
1. |
sp3d & see saw |
2. |
sp3d & T-shape |
3. |
sp3d2 & square planar |
4. |
sp3d & Linear |
143.
Half-Reaction |
\(E^o(V)\) |
\(Zn^{2+} (aq) + 2 e^- \rightarrow Zn(s)\) |
-0.76 |
\(Cr^{3+} (aq) + 3 e^- \rightarrow Cr(s)\) |
-0.744 |
\(Fe^{2+} (aq) + 2 e^- \rightarrow Fe(s)\) |
-0.409 |
Use the E° values in the table above to determine which of the following reactions will give the highest potential in a voltaic cell.
1.
\(3 \mathrm{Zn}^{2+} (aq) +2 \mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{s}) \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{s})+2 \mathrm{Cr}^{3+} (aq) \)
2.
\(3 \mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{s})+2 \mathrm{Cr}^{3+}(\mathrm{aq}) \rightarrow 3 \mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})+2 \mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{s}) \)
3.
\(\mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})+\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{s}) \rightarrow \mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{Fe}^{2+} (aq) \)
4.
\(\mathrm{Zn}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{Fe}^{2+}(\mathrm{s}) \rightarrow \mathrm{Zn}^{2+}(\mathrm{aq})+\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{s})\)
144. Consider the following reaction and identify the product (P).
145. For a metal ion, \(\mu = 4.9 \ B.M\). The number of unpaired electrons present in the metal ion is-
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
146. For a reaction, A + B
\(^{\rightarrow}\) products, the rate is double when the concentration of B is halved (keeping [A] constant), while the rate is halved when the concentration of A is halved (keeping [B] constant). The overall order of the reaction is:
147. Given \(A(g) + 3B(g) \rightleftharpoons4C(g)\) and initial concentration of A is equal to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal. The value of \(K_C\) is
1. 0.08
2. 0.8
3. 8
4. 80
148. Compounds with molecular formula
\(C_5H_{12}O\) cannot show :
1. |
Tautomerism |
2. |
Position isomerism |
3. |
Metamerism |
4. |
Functional isomerism |
149. Which, of the following carbonyl oxygen, forms a stronger bond with
\(H_2O \) molecule?
150. Which, of the following, compounds is most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction?
1. Phenol
2. Toluene
3. Aniline
4. Methoxy benzene
Physics - Section A
151. An ideal gas forms the working substance of a Carnot engine, and is taken around the Carnot cycle. We form the integral:
\(I=\int\frac{dQ}{T},\)
where
\(dQ\) is the heat supplied to the gas and
\(T\) is the temperature of the gas. The integral is evaluated over the entire cycle. The value of the integral
\(I\) is:
1. |
zero |
2. |
negative |
3. |
positive |
4. |
non-negative(positive or zero) |
152. The gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass
\(m\) increases by
\(mgh,\) when it is raised through a height
\(h\) in a uniform gravitational field "
\(g\)". If a particle of mass
\(m\) is raised through a height
\(h\) in the earth's gravitational field (
\(g\): the field on the earth's surface) and the increase in gravitational potential energy is
\(U\), then:
1. |
\(U > mgh\) |
2. |
\(U < mgh\) |
3. |
\(U = mgh\) |
4. |
any of the above may be true depending on the value of \(h,\) considered relative to the radius of the earth. |
153. The speed of electromagnetic waves is:
1. |
higher in vacuum compared to other media. |
2. |
lower in vacuum compared to other media. |
3. |
independent of the medium. |
4. |
lower in some media than in vacuum, and higher in others. |
154. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: |
The centre of mass of a system of particles lying on a straight line must lie between the two extreme particles. |
Statement II: |
The centre of mass of a system of bodies moving with different velocities, cannot be moving with constant velocity. |
1. |
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. |
2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
4. |
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. |
155. Consider the circuit shown in the figure given below. The input voltage is
\(\mathrm{V_i}\), the current through the diode is
\(\mathrm{I_z}\), and the current through the load is
\(\mathrm{I_L}\).
1. |
\(\text{if} ~\mathrm{V_i}= 15~\text{V}~\text{and}~\mathrm{R_L}= 40~\Omega, ~\text{and}~\mathrm{I_z}= 0.375~\text{A}\) |
2. |
\(\text{if} ~\mathrm{V_i}= 10~\text{V}~\text{and}~\mathrm{R_L}= 5~\Omega, ~\text{and}~\mathrm{I_L}=1~\text{A}\) |
3. |
\(\text{if} ~\mathrm{V_i}= 20~\text{V}~\text{and}~\mathrm{R_L}= 20~\Omega, ~\text{and}~\mathrm{I_z}= 0.25~\text{A}\) |
4. |
\(\text{if} ~\mathrm{V_i}= 20~\text{V}~\text{and}~\mathrm{R_L}= 10~\Omega, ~\text{and}~\mathrm{I_z}= 0.5~\text{A}\) |
156. A horizontal
force \(F\) is applied to a uniform solid sphere at rest, so that its line of action passes through the
mid-point (\(P\)) of the vertical radius
\(OA;O\) being the centre of the sphere
(mass : \(m\)). The acceleration of the uppermost
point \(A\) is
1. |
equal to \(\frac{F}{m}.\) |
2. |
greater than \(\frac{F}{m}.\) |
3. |
less than \(\frac{F}{m}.\) |
4. |
unpredictable, and depends on the radius of the sphere. |
157. Two circuits: \((1)\) an \(L\text-R\) circuit and \((2)\) an \(R\text-C\) circuit are driven by the same alternating current. The phase difference between the current and the voltage is twice in the \(1\)st case with respect to the \(2\)nd case and both the angles add up to \(90^\circ.\) The resistances are equal in both cases. The ratio of their reactances (first: second) is:
1. \(\sqrt3:1\)
2. \(1:\sqrt3\)
3. \(3:1\)
4. \(2:1\)
158. Two cars
\(A\) &
\(B,\) each
\(5~\text{m}\) long, are travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of
\(36~\text{km/h}\) and
\(72~\text{km/h}\). Car
\(B\) is just behind car
\(A,\) but is beginning to overtake. What will be the distance covered by car
\(B\) by the time it is just ahead of car
\(A\)?
1. |
\(10~\text{m}\) |
2. |
\(15~\text{m}\) |
3. |
\(20~\text{m}\) |
4. |
\(25~\text{m}\) |
159. The \(dc\) time constant of an \(L\)-\(R\) circuit is the same as that of an \(R\)-\(C\) circuit where the inductor in the first circuit was replaced by a capacitor. The value of the resistance \(R\) equals
1. \(\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}\)
2. \(\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}\)
3. \(2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}\)
4. \(2\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}\)
160. A \(20\) V-cell delivers the same power to a \(2~\Omega\) resistor as it does to an \(8~\Omega\) resistor. The internal resistance of the cell is:
1. \(2~\Omega\)
2. \(4~\Omega\)
3. \(6~\Omega\)
4. \(1.6~\Omega\)
161. A uniformly charged metallic sphere holds a total charge \(Q_0\) and has a potential \(V_0.\) The total potential energy stored is:
1. \(Q_0V_0\)
2. \(\frac{Q_0V_0}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{Q_0V_0}{4}\)
4. \(-Q_0V_0\)
162. A charged particle of charge \(q,\) mass \(m\) moves in a circular path under the action of a uniform magnetic field, whose flux through this path is \(\phi.\) The magnetic moment due to the particle's motion is:
1. \(\dfrac{q^2\phi}{2m}\)
2. \(\dfrac{q^2\phi}{2\pi m}\)
3. \(\dfrac{q^2\phi}{m}\)
4. \(\dfrac{q^2\phi}{\pi m}\)
163. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: |
If an ideal gas expands without any heat being supplied to it, then its temperature does not change. |
Statement II: |
If an ideal gas expands freely without any heat being supplied to it, then its internal energy remains unchanged. |
1. |
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. |
2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
4. |
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. |
164. Consider an electric field of the form:
\(\overrightarrow E=K(y\hat i+x\hat j)\)
where
\(K\) is a constant, and
\(x,y\) are the coordinates.
Statement I: |
If a charged particle is taken along the \(x\)-axis, no work will be done by the electric field. |
Statement II: |
This electric field is conservative in nature i.e. it can be derived from a potential: \(V(x,y)=C-Kxy\) |
1. |
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. |
2. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. |
3. |
Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. |
4. |
Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. |
165. The breaking stress in two wires of different materials \(A,B\) are in the ratio: \(\frac{S_A}{S_B}=\frac12,\) while their radii are in the ratio: \(\frac{r_A}{r_B}=\frac12.\) The tensions under which they break are \(T_A\) and \(T_B.\) Then \(\frac{T_A}{T_B}=\)?
1. \(2\)
2. \(\frac14\)
3. \(\frac18\)
4. \(\frac1{2\sqrt2}\)
166. Consider a square carrom board \(ABCD\) of size \({3~ \text{ft}} \times 3~\text{ft}.\) A piece moves 'from' pocket \(A\) (close from a pocket), strikes side \(BC\) and then side \(AD\), and reaches pocket \(C\). If the piece is reflected perfectly from each side, then the ratio of the \(x,y\) components of velocity is given by \(\frac{v_x}{v_y}=\)
1. \(2\)
2. \(\frac{1}{2}\)
3. \(3\)
4. \(\frac{1}{3}\)
167. A straight wire
\(AB\) of length
\(L\) rotates about
\(A,\) with an angular speed
\(\omega.\) A constant magnetic field
\(\mathbf B\) acts into the plane, as shown.
Assertion (A): |
The average induced electric field within the wire has a magnitude of \(\frac12B\omega L.\) |
Reason (R): |
The induced electric field is the motional EMF per unit length, and the motional EMF is \(\frac12B\omega L^2.\) |
1. |
(A) is true but (R) is false. |
2. |
(A) is false but (R) is true. |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
168. A horizontal force
\(F\) acts on a
\(2\) kg block placed on a smooth horizontal plane. It varies with time
\(t\) as shown in the figure. The block is initially at rest.
The work done by the force until
\(t=2\) s, equals:
1.
\(6.25 \) J
2.
\(4.5 \) J
3.
\(2.25 \) J
4.
\(1.5\) J
169. A small sphere of density \(\rho\) is completely submerged in a liquid of density \(3\rho\) and released. The magnitude of its acceleration just after release equals:
1. \(g\)
2. \(\frac g3\)
3. \(2g\)
4. \(3g\)
170. If two convex lenses of powers \(P_1,P_2\) be placed close together, co-axially, the combination behaves as a lens of power:
1. \(P_1+P_2\)
2. \(|P_1-P_2|\)
3. \({\large\frac{P^2_1}{P_2}}\)
4. \({\large\frac{P^2_2}{P_1}}\)
171. Given below are two statements:
Assertion (A): |
The average velocity of the molecules of an ideal gas increases when the temperature rises. |
Reason (R): |
The internal energy of an ideal gas increases with temperature, and this internal energy is the random kinetic energy of molecular motion. |
1. |
(A) is true but (R) is false. |
2. |
(A) is false but (R) is true. |
3. |
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). |
4. |
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). |
172. A rod of mass \(M\) and length \(L\) is suspended vertically at its highest point. The rod is held so that it is horizontal and free to rotate about \(\text{A}\) and then released. There is no friction anywhere.
The force exerted by the hinge at \(\text{A}\), when the rod is at its lowest position is:
1. |
\(2~Mg\) |
2. |
\(3~Mg\) |
3. |
\(4~Mg\) |
4. |
\(2.5~Mg\) |
173. Two identical right-angled prisms are placed back to back as shown. A ray of light, incident on the first prism, making an angle
\(\theta\) with its surface – passes through the system and emerges parallel to itself. The refractive index of the material of the prism is:
1.
\(\sin\theta\)
2.
\(\cos\theta\)
3.
\(\tan\theta\)
4.
\(\cot\theta\)
174. The work done by a force \(F=2x^2\) (newton) in a displacement from \(x=0\) (origin) to \(x=3\) m is:
1. \(54\) J
2. \(27\) J
3. \(18\) J
4. \(9\) J
175. Light of wavelength \(4000~\mathring{A}\) is incident on a metal whose work function is \(2.0\) eV. The fastest photo-electrons emitted have an energy of:
(Take \(hc=12400\) eV-\(\mathring A\))
1. \(0.5\) eV
2. \(3.1\) eV
3. \(1.1\) eV
4. \(2\) eV
176. A block of mass
\(m\) is placed atop another block of
mass \(M,\) and the combination is at rest on a smooth horizontal table. A
force \(F_1\) is applied
to \(m\) and another
force \(F_2\) is applied to
\(M,\) the two acting horizontally and in opposite directions. Consider the following statements about the acceleration
\((a_{cm})\) of the centre of mass of the system).
(Take right as positive)
A. |
\(a_{cm}=\frac{F_1-F_2}{m+M},\) if there is no friction acting between \(m\) and \(M\) |
B. |
\(a_{cm}=\frac{F_1-F_2}{m+M},\) if there is static friction between \(m\) and \(M\) |
C. |
\(a_{cm}=\frac{F_1-F_2}{m+M},\) in all situations |
Choose the most appropriate option:
1. |
only (A) is true. |
2. |
only (B) is true. |
3. |
(C) is true. |
4. |
(A), (B) are true but (C) is false. |
177. Two particles move with the same uniform angular speed around two different circles of radii \(r,~ 2r.\) Their accelerations are in the ratio:
1. \(1:2\)
2. \(1:4\)
3. \(2:1\)
4. \(4:1\)
178. A small permanent magnet is placed 'antiparallel' to a uniform magnetic field \(B.\) A null point is found at a distance \(r,\) on the axis of the magnet. Then, \(r\) is proportional to (nearly):
1. \(B^{-3}\)
2. \(B^{-2}\)
3. \(B^{-1/2}\)
4. \(B^{-1/3}\)
179. A source of sound of frequency
\(160\) Hz, when moving with a
speed \(v\) towards a fixed identical vibrating source, produces a beat frequency of
\(10\) Hz in the ground frame. The speed of sound in air is
\(340\) m/s. The speed
\(v\) equals:
1. |
\(20\) m/s |
2. |
\({\large\frac{68}{3}}\) m/s |
3. |
\({\large\frac{85}{4}}\) m/s |
4. |
\(25\) m/s |
180. A particle moves in the x-y plane according to the equation
\(x = A \cos^2 \omega t\)
and \(y = A \sin^2 \omega t\)
Then, the particle undergoes:
1. |
uniform motion along the line \(x + y = A\) |
2. |
uniform circular motion along \(x^2 + y^2 = A^2\) |
3. |
SHM along the line \(x + y = A\) |
4. |
SHM along the circle \(x^2 + y^2 = A^2\) |
181. Equal and opposite charges are placed at the two vertices of an equilateral triangle, giving a dipole moment \(p.\) A small dipole \(p'\) is placed at the third vertex, parallel to the previous dipole. If the electric fields due to both dipoles \(p,~p',\) at the mid-point of the dipole \(p,\) are equal, then \(\frac{p'}{p}\) equals:
1. \(3\sqrt3\)
2. \(\frac{3\sqrt3}{2}\)
3. \(\sqrt3\)
4. \(\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
182. Light having the wavelength equal to the first line of the Lyman series is incident on a metal having a work function of \(6\) eV. The energy of the fastest photo-electron emitted is:
1. \(7.6\) eV
2. \(4.2\) eV
3. \(2.1\) eV
4. \(0.8\) eV
183. By writing down the truth table or otherwise, determine the output
\(X\) of the circuit given below.
1. |
\(A\) |
2. |
\(B\) |
3. |
\(A~\text{or}~B\) |
4. |
NOT \((A)\) |
184. Match the units of some physical quantities in List-I with their corresponding dimensions in List-II.
|
List-I |
|
List-II |
(a) |
Ohm |
(i) |
\([ML^2T^{-2}A^{-1}]\) |
(b) |
Farad |
(ii) |
\([ML^2T^{-2}A^{-2}]\) |
(c) |
Henry |
(iii) |
\([M^{-1}L^{-2}T^4A^2]\) |
(d) |
Weber |
(iv) |
\([ML^2T^{-3}A^{-2}]\) |
1. |
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) |
2. |
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) |
3. |
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) |
4. |
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) |
185. In a nuclear reaction (involving atomic nuclei only), the sum of kinetic energies of the product nuclei was found to be greater than that of the reactants. This means that:
1. |
some nucleons are created |
2. |
some nucleons are destroyed |
3. |
energy is converted into mass |
4. |
mass is converted into energy |
Physics - Section B
186. Light having a frequency, which is half the threshold frequency for photoelectric effect, is incident on a metal: however, it is emitted from a sodium lamp. If laser light is used, with the same frequency, then it:
1. |
will likely cause photoemission of electrons |
2. |
will not cause photoemission of electrons |
3. |
may or may not cause photoemission depending on the photon density |
4. |
will cause photoemission only if its intensity is above a threshold |
187. The moment of inertia of a uniform right-angled triangular lamina
(mass: \(m\)) \(\Delta ABC\) about an axis passing through
\(C,\) perpendicular to its plane is
1.
\(m\left(\frac{a^2 +b^2}{3}\right )\)
2.
\(m\left(\frac{a^2 +b^2}{6}\right)\)
3.
\(m\left(\frac{a^2 +b^2}{12}\right)\)
4.
\(m\left(\frac{a^2 +b^2}{2}\right)\)
188. A ball thrown vertically upward rises to a maximum height of \(8\) m, then falls down and rebounds to a height of \(2\) m. After the next rebound, it will rise to:
1. \(1\) m
2. \(0.5\) m
3. \(0.25\) m
4. \(0.125\) m
189. Two concentric metallic spheres, surface areas \(A_1,A_2\) and separation \(d\), have a capacitance \(C_0.\) If a parallel plate capacitor is built with the same separation \(d,\) and has the same capacitance \(C_0\) then its plate area will be:
1. \(\frac{A_1+A_2}{2}\)
2. \(\sqrt{A_1A_2}\)
3. \(\frac{2A_1A_2}{A_1+A_2}\)
4. \(\frac{A_1^2A_2^2}{A_1+A_2}\)
190. An ammeter having a resistance of
\(0.1~ \Omega\) can measure a maximum current of
\(2~\text{A}\). To convert it into a voltmeter that can measure upto
\(50~\text{V},\) one must add:
1. |
a resistance of \(25~\Omega\) in series |
2. |
a resistance of \(\frac1{25}~\Omega\) in series |
3. |
a resistance of \(25~\Omega\) in parallel |
4. |
a resistance of \(\frac1{25}~\Omega\) in parallel |
191. Take the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode used in the given circuit as \(6~\text{V}\). For the input voltage shown in figure below, the time variation of the output voltage is: (Graphs drawn are schematic and not to scale)
192. If the temperature (in
\(^\circ\text C\)) of a blackbody is increased
\(2\)-fold, then the rate of radiation from the body will become:
1. |
\(16\)-fold |
2. |
\(4\)-fold |
3. |
less than \(16\)-fold |
4. |
more than \(16\)-fold |
193. A simple pendulum is taken into an elevator that is moving up with an acceleration equal to \(g.\) If its time period was \(T\) before, the new time period will be:
1. \(2T\)
2. \(\sqrt2T\)
3. \(\frac{T}{2}\)
4. \(\frac{T}{\sqrt2}\)
194. A parallel beam of light of wavelength \(\lambda\) is incident normally on a single slit of width \(d,\) and a pattern of maxima and minima are observed on a screen placed far behind the slit. The first minimum (nearest to the central maximum) is formed at an angle \(\theta,\) where \(\sin\theta=\)
1. \(\frac{\lambda}{d}\)
2. \(\frac{\lambda}{2d}\)
3. \(\frac{2\lambda}{d}\)
4. \(\frac{\lambda}{4d}\)
195. When sound waves produced under water emerge into the air, then:
1. |
the frequency increases, and wavelength decreases. |
2. |
the frequency remains constant, but the wavelength decreases. |
3. |
the frequency decreases, wavelength remains constant. |
4. |
the frequency remains constant but the wavelength increases. |
196. The voltage drop across a silicon diode
\((D)\) which is in forward bias and conducting a small current is approximately
\(0.7\) V. Which, of the following sources, will deliver a voltage of
\(3\) V?
197. Water flows from a small hole at the bottom of a rectangular tank at \(10\) m/s after it had been filled for \(20\) min. For how much time should the empty tank be filled at the same rate so that the speed of efflux is doubled? (i.e. it becomes \(20\) m/s)
1. \(40\) min
2. \(80\) min
3. \(160\) min
4. \(320\) min
198. The circuit shown in the figure has ideal batteries wired up along with the resistances.
The power dissipated in the resistances in the circuit is:
1.
\(12~\text{J/s}\)
2.
\(9~\text{J/s}\)
3.
\(8~\text{J/s}\)
4.
\(5.5~\text{J/s}\)
199. Two smooth balls
\(A,B \) of radius
\(10\) cm each are placed in a cylinder of diameter
\(30\) cm, as shown. The upper ball
\((A)\) has a mass of
\(2\) kg, while the lower ball
\((B)\) has a mass of
\(4\) kg. The system is at rest. Let the force exerted on the ball
\(A\) by the cylinder be
\(F_1\) along the horizontal (as shown) and that on the ball
\(B,\) along the horizontal be
\(F_2\) (as shown). Then:
1. |
\(F_1 < F_2\) |
2. |
\(F_1 = F_2\) |
3. |
\(F_1 >F_2\) |
4. |
the relationship between \(F_1\) and \(F_2\) depends on the mass of the cylinder |
200. Two convex lenses
\((L_1,L_2)\) of focal lengths,
\(20\) cm \((L_1)\) and
\(40\) cm \((L_2),\) are placed co-axially at a separation of
\(60\) cm. If a parallel beam of light is incident on
\(L_1,\) the emerging beam from
\(L_2\)
1. |
is parallel but wider. |
2. |
is parallel but narrower. |
3. |
is convergent. |
4. |
is divergent. |
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