High Yield Test #7 (Level 1)

Botany - Section A

1.

During which stage of sewage treatment microbes are used?
1. Primary treatment
2. Secondary treatment
3. Tertiary treatment
4. All of these

2.

Mendel’s work remained unrecognised till 1900. Which of the following was not a reason for this?

1.	His work was widely publicised and it brought bad name to Mendel
2.	His concept of factors as stable and discrete units that did not ‘blend’ was not accepted.
3.	His approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomena was unacceptable.
4.	He could not provide any physical proof for the existence of factors or say what they were made of.

3.

It is said that elemental composition of living organisms and that of inanimate objects (like earth’s crust) are similar in the sense that all the major elements are present in both. Then what would be the difference between these two groups? Choose a correct answer from among the following.

1.	Living organisms have more gold in them than inanimate objects
2.	Living organisms have more water in their body than inanimate objects
3.	Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate objects
4.	Living organisms have more calcium in them than inanimate objects

4.

Parthenocarpic fruits lack:
1. Endocarp
2. Epicarp
3. Mesocarp
4. seed

5.

Untranslated regions (UTRs) are present:

1.	before and after the stop codon
2.	after the start codon and before the stop codon
3.	before and after the start codon
4.	before the start codon and after the stop codon

6.

a. Part marked as (B) has five types of histone proteins.
b. Part marked as (A) is rich in basic amino acid residues.
c. Part marked as (C) is made up of 400 nucleotides.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
1. a, c
2. a only
3. c only
4. a, b

7.

Placed below is a karyotype of a human being.

On the basis of this karyotype, which of the following conclusions can be drawn?
1. Normal human female
2. Person is suffering from colour blindness
3. Affected individual is a female with Down’s syndrome
4. Affected individual is a female with Turner’s syndrome

8.

Select the incorrect match:

1.	Universe	20 billion years old
2.	Earth	4.5 million years back
3.	UV rays	Broke up water into H2 and O₂
4.	Louis Pasteur	Demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life

9.

It takes very long time for pineapple plants to produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce flowering in pineapple plants throughout the year to increase yield?
1. Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
2. Auxin and Ethylene
3. Gibberellin and Cytokinin
4. Gibberellin and Abscisic acid

10.

Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from:
1. Sugarcane roots
2. Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter
3. Soil insects
4. Small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize

11.

Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding various classes of fungi and chose your answer from the codes given below:

Column I

Column II

I. Phycomycetes

II. Ascomycetes

III. Basidiomycetes

IV. Deuteromycetes

1. Sac fungi

2. Aseptate fungi

3. Imperfect fungi

4. Puffballs

Codes:

	I	II	III	IV
1.	1	2	3	4
2.	2	1	4	3
3.	2	1	3	4
4.	1	2	4	3

12.

Find the correct match with respect to gynoecium and placentation in the respective family:

	Column I		Column II
a.	$G_{(3)}$ , Axile	i.	Brassicaceae
b.	$G_{(2)}$ , Basal	ii.	Liliaceae
c.	$G_{(2)}$ , Parietal	iii.	Solanaceae
d.	$G_{(2)}$ , Axile	iv.	Asteraceae

1.	a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
2.	a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3.	a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
4.	a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

13.

Chloroplast differs from mitochondria in:

1.	Having circular DNA and 70S ribosomes
2.	The phase of division or duplication during cell cycle
3.	Having porins in the outer membrane
4.	Having enzymes for carbohydrates synthesis in the stroma

14.

Small protein attached to the outer surface of inner mitochondrial membrane and acting as a mobile $e^{-}$ carrier is:
1. Cytochrome $a_{3}$
2. Cytochrome $c_{1}$
3. Cytochrome a
4. Cytochrome c

15.

Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) has which of the following range of wavelength?
1. 400-700 nm
2. 450-920 nm
3. 340-450 nm
4. 500-600 nm

16.

Phloem in gymnosperms lacks:
1. Both sieve tubes and companion cells
2. Albuminous cells and sieve cells
3. Sieve tubes only
4. Companion cells only

17.

Gemmae are present in:
1. Some Gymnosperms
2. Some Liverworts
3. Mosses
4. Pteridophytes

18.

Which of the following is not correct?

1.	As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry(10-15% moisture by mass)
2.	The seed dormancy is the internal or innate inhibition of generation of normal or viable seeds
3.	Embryo in dormant seed shows higher rate of general metabolic rate
4.	Because of dormancy seeds remain viable for longer period and can be stored

19.

Which of the following is wrong about the diversity of Amazon Rain forest?
1. Mammals- 427
2. Fishes-3000
3. Birds-1300
4. Reptiles-278

20.

The formulation with suitable preservatives in the case of drugs has to undergo:
1. Thorough clinical trials
2. Thorough strict separation techniques
3. Thorough harsh heat shock control
4. Thorough long restriction digestion

21.

Which of the following organism is common in root ecosystems and acts as an effective biocontrol agent of several plant pathogens?
1. Nucleopolyhedrovirus
2. Lady bird beetle
3. Cactoblastis
4. Trichoderma

22.

Find the set of incorrect statements:

a.	RNA is labile, easily degradable, and reactive as compared to DNA
b.	Presence of thymine at the place of uracil confers additional stability to DNA
c.	Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate, viruses having DNA genome mutate and evolve faster
d.	DNA can easily express the characters directly

1.	b & d	2.	c & d
3.	b & c	4.	a & c

23.

In the equation GPP - R = NPP
R represents:
1. Environment factor
2. Respiration losses
3. Radiant energy
4. Retardation factor

24.

Which of the following statements is correct?
1. Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
2. Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont
3. Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont
4. Lichens are not good pollution indicators.

25.

Match the placental types (column-I) with their examples (column-II)

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Basal	(i)	Mustard
(b)	Axile	(ii)	China rose
(c)	Parietal	(iii)	Dianthus
(d)	Free central	(iv)	Sunflower

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

1.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2.	(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3.	(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4.	(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

26. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:

1.	Castor	2.	Papaya
3.	Maize	4.	Garden pea

27.

In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis:

1.	form gametes without further divisions
2.	Involve meiosis
3.	occur in ovule
4.	occur in anther

28.

Incomplete dominance is present in:
1. Snapdragon flower
2. Dog flower
3. Antirrhinum flower
4. All of the above

29.

What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
3' ATGCATGCATGCATG 5' TEMPLATE STRAND
5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3' CODING STRAND

1.	3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'
2.	5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'
3.	3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
4.	5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'

30. In the given diagram of corn plant, tassels are represented by the alphabet:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

31. Called ‘The Darwin of the 20th century’, identify the biologist who almost single-handedly made the origin of species diversity the central question of evolutionary biology that it is today:

1.	Ernst Mayr	2.	Louis Pasteur
3.	Charles Darwin	4.	Hugo de Vries

32. Microbes can be used as biocontrol agents. The Ladybird, and Dragonflies are useful to get rid, respectively, of:
1. Jassids and Dipterans
2. Aphids and Mosquitoes
3. Corn borers and Bollworms
4. Roundworms and Fungal spores

33. Regeneration of NAD⁺ is accomplished by:
I: Ethanol fermentation
II: Lactate fermentation
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

34. The respiratory pathway is best considered as:
1. a pure catabolic pathway
2. a pure anabolic pathway
3. an amphibolic pathway
4. a redundant pathway

35. If in a pond there were 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 16 new plants are added, taking the current population to 56, the birth rate will be calculated as:
1. 0.2 offspring per lotus per year.
2. 0.4 offspring per lotus per year.
3. 1.2 offspring per lotus per year.
4. 1.6 offspring per lotus per year.

Botany - Section B

36.

Choose the odd one with respect to composition of the cell wall of algae:
1. Cellulose, galactans
2. Mannans, minerals
3. Hemicellulose, pectin
4. Cellulose, minerals

37.

Which of the following occurs naturally in plants?
1. Kinetin
2. NAA
3. IBA
4. 2,4 D

38.

Flowers of aquatic plants like water hyacinth and water lily:
1. Are not pollinated by water
2. Emerge above the level of water for epihydrophily
3. Reach the surface of the water for hypohydrophily
4. Have exine in their pollen grains

39.

Which of the following is true for the reproduction of bacteria?
1. Reproduce mainly by fission.
2. Under unfavourable conditions, they produce spores.
3. Also reproduce by sort of sexual reproduction.
4. All of these

40.

Which of the following statement is correct about Leaf?

1.	It is attached to the stem by the leaf base
2.	It always bears two lateral small leaf-like structures called stipules
3.	All monocots have a small sheath-like leaf base that covers the stem wholly
4.	All leguminous plants have swollen leaf base

41.

How many statements are correct with respect to ETS?

(1)	ETS is helpful restoration of NAD⁺ & F A D⁺
(2)	O₂is terminal e^‐ acceptor in electron transport system
(3)	Ubiquinone & FMN are hydrogen carriers and helpful in the movement of H⁺ from matrix to space
(4)	Complex lV is also known as cytochrome C oxidase
(5)	Movement of e^‐in ETS is due to variable valency of metal ions present in carrier complexes

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2

42.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme
2.	In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is mesophyll cell
3.	The substrate molecule for RuBisCO activity is a 5-carbon compound
4.	RuBisCO action requires ATP and NADPH

43.

Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by:
1. Serving as a plant growth regulator
2. Absorbing inorganic ions from the soil
3. Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen
4. Protecting the plant from infection

44.

Match the following :

(a) Aquaporin	(i) Amide
(b) Asparagine	(ii) Polysaccharide
(c) Abscisic acid	(iii) Polypeptide
(d) Chitin	(iv) Carotenoids

Select the correct option :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
3.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)

45. Periderm and secondary phloem constitute:
1. bark
2. cork
3. heart wood
4. sap wood

46.

Select the correct statement about G₁ phase:
1. Cell is metabolically inactive
2. DNA in the cell does not replicate
3. It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
4. Cell stops growing

47. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In a normal flower which opens and exposes the anthers and the stigma, complete autogamy is rather rare.
Statement II:	Self-pollination can lead to inbreeding depression due to expression of deleterious recessive mutations.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

48. In angiosperms, after entering one of the synergids, the number of male gametes released into the cytoplasm of the synergid by the pollen tube is:

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

49. Biflagellate zoospores that are pear-shaped and have two unequal laterally attached flagella are involved in:
1. Asexual reproduction in brown algae
2. Asexual reproduction in red algae
3. Sexual reproduction in brown algae
4. Sexual reproduction in red algae

50. The RQ [respiratory quotient]:

I:	is 1, when carbohydrates are used as substrate and are completely oxidized
II:	is less than 1, when fats are used as substrate and are completely oxidized
III:	is more than 1, when proteins are used as substrate and are completely oxidized

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

Zoology - Section A

51.

The special system of blood vessel giving blood to heart is known as:
1. coronary system
2. systemic system
3. pulmonary system
4. fibrous system

52.

The cytoskeleton is made up of:
1. calcium carbonate granules
2. callose deposits
3. cellulosic microfibrils
4. proteinaceous filaments

53.

The sequence of amino acids forms the _________ structure of the protein. The left end amino acid is ___ terminal amino acid and the right end amino acid is ____ terminal amino acid.
1. Primary, N, C
2. Primary, C, N
3. Tertiary, N, C
4. Tertiary, C, N

54.

Match List - I with List - II

List - I	List - II
(a) Metamerism	(i) Coelenterata
(b) Canal system	(ii) Ctenophora
(c) Comb Plates	(iii) Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasts	(iv) Porifera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

55.

Down's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome both can be included in:
1. Autosomal trisomy
2. Monosomy
3. Trisomy
4. Allosomal trisomy

56. Surgical methods, tubectomy and vasectomy:

I.	are sterilization procedures
II.	are highly effective
III.	have very good reversibility

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

57.

Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?

1.	Cigarette smoking may not lead to inflammation of bronchi
2.	Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
3.	Workers in grinding and stone breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
4.	About 90% of carbon dioxide ( $C O_{2}$ ) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin

58.

For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to:
1. Wrist and arms
2. Abdomen
3. Chest region
4. All the fingers

59.

Fill in the blanks in different columns of the table given below with respect to regulation of kidney function.

	Hormone	Factor stimulating its release	Function
(i)	A	An excessive loss of fluid from the body	Prevents diuresis and caused increase in blood pressure
(ii)	Renin	B	Converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I
(iii)	C	An increase in blood flow to atria	Vasodilation decrease in blood pressure
(iv)	Angiotensin II	Fall in B.P. and blood volume	D

The correct option for all the four blanks is

	A	B	C	D
1.	A.N.F.	Increase in blood volume	ADH	Stimulates the release of aldosterone
2.	Vasopressin	Increase in blood pressure	ANF	Vasoconstrictor
3.	ADH	Fall in glomerular В.Р.	ANF	Vasoconstrictor
4.	Vasopressin	Increase in blood volume and blood pressure	ANF	Vasodilator

60. Hormones can be described by all the given features except:
1. Non-nutrient chemicals
2. Produced in traces
3. Act as intercellular messenger
4. Always work by suppressing gene expression

61.

Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are:
1. Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
3. Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
4. Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans

62. Apart from acting as contraceptives, which of the following also helps in preventing sexually transmitted infections?

1.	Intra Uterine Devices
2.	Oral Contraceptive Pills
3.	Male condoms
4.	Surgical methods like tubectomy

63. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is known as:
1. Precipitation
2. Elution
3. Spooling
4. Fragmentation

64.

Which of the following is seen in Gout?

1.	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
2.	Inflammation of bones due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
3.	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of calcium
4.	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of estrogens

65.

Menstrual bleeding is the result of:
1. low levels of ovarian hormones
2. high levels of ovarian hormones
3. high levels of LH
4. high levels of FSH

66.

According to NCERT data how many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use and how many are marketed in India?
1. 12, 6
2. 32, 16
3. 30, 12
4. 12, 10

67.

The detailed structure of the cell membrane was studied only after the advent of the:
1. compound microscope
2. cryo-electron microscopy
3. X-ray crystallography
4. electron microscope

68.

Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:

(a)	DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the Anode terminal.
(b)	DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect the movement of DNA.
(c)	Smaller the size of the DNA fragment, the larger is the distance it travels through it.
(d)	Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing to UV radiation.

1.	(a), (c) and (d)
2.	(a), (b) and (c)
3.	(b), (c) and (d)
4.	(a), (b) and (d)

69.

Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?

1.	Pills, Emergency contraceptives, barrier methods
2.	Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
3.	Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, pills
4.	CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives

70.

Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete are 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
1. 2700 mL
2. 1500 mL
3. 1700 mL
4. 2200 mL

71.

Match the following hormones with the respective disease:

(a)	Insulin	(i)	Addison's disease
(b)	Thyroxin	(ii)	Diabetes insipidus
(c)	Corticoids	(iii)	Acromegaly
(d)	Growth Hormone	(iv)	Goitre
		(v)	Diabetes mellitus

Select the correct option:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(v)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
4.	(v)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)

72.

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

Column I		Column II
(a)	6 - 15 pairs of gill slits	(i)	Trygon
(b)	Heterocercal caudal fin	(ii)	Cyclostomes
(c)	Air Bladder	(iii)	Chondrichthyes
(d)	Poison sting	(iv)	Osteichthyes

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
3.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

73.

The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by mammary glands of the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This type of immunity is called as :
1. Passive immunity
2. Active immunity
3. Acquired immunity
4. Autoimmunity

74.

Which of the following is associated with a decrease in cardiac output?
1. Sympathetic nerves
2. Parasympathetic neural signals
3. Pneumotaxic center
4. Adrenal medullary hormones

75.

Select the correct statement:

1.	Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases the blood pressure.
2.	Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator.
3.	Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed in vasa recta.
4.	Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG cells to release renin.

76.

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(a) Adaptive radiation	(i) Selection of resistant varieties due to excessive use of herbicides and pesticides
(b) Convergent evolution	(ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and Whale
(c) Divergent evolution	(iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird
(d) Evolution by anthropogenic action	(iv) Darwin Finches

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)

77. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?

	Column I	Column II
1.	Ovulation	LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
2.	Proliferative phase	Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
3.	Development of corpus luteum	Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
4.	Menstruation	Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilized

78.

Which of the following is correct?

1.	The chemical or metabolic conversion refers to a reaction.
2.	The chemical which is converted into a product is called a substrate.
3.	Proteins with three dimensional structures including an active site is called enzyme.
4.	All of these

79. Polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus:

1.	are all bacterial diseases
2.	are transmitted by arthropod vectors
3.	have been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines
4.	are invariably fatal

80. How many of the given statements are correct?

I:	Hind brain and midbrain make up the brain stem.
II:	The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla.
III:	The forebrain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

81. The sympathetic neural system and parasympathetic neural system are the subdivisions of:
1. Central neural system
2. Somatic neural system
3. Visceral neural system
4. Autonomic neural system

82. A neural signal reaching the neuro-muscular junction releases a neurotransmitter called:
1. Epinephrine
2. Substance P
3. Acetylcholine
4. Serotonin

83. The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column:
I: is a fibrous joint
II: permits limited movements
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

84. Which regions of the adult human vertebral column is formed by fusion of some vertebrae?
1. cervical and thoracic
2. thoracic and lumbar
3. lumbar and sacral
4. sacral and coccygeal

85. The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution. What will be true in this regard?

I:	In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
II:	With very few exceptions, tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Zoology - Section B

86.

All tetrapods have:

1.	internal fertilization	2.	direct development
3.	lungs	4.	endothermy

87.

The mechanism of breathing depends on the animal’s:
1. habitat
2. level of organisation
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Body segmentation

88.

What percentage of ventricular filling is achieved by atrial contraction?
1. 30
2. 50
3. 70
4. 90

89.

The patient of diabetes mellitus is characterized by:
1. Ketonuria
2. Glycosuria
3. Haematuria
4. Both 1 & 2

90.

Consider the following statements:

I.	Proximal radioulnar joint is a type of ellipsoidal joint.
II.	The first carpo-metacarpal joint is a saddle joint.
III.	Gleno-humeral joint is a ball and socket joint.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only
2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only
4.	I, II and III

91.

Which of the following is incorrect about hormones?

1. Highly specific in nature
2. released into blood
3. nutrient chemicals
4. primary messenger

92.

Mark the incorrect statement:

1.	Bipolar neurons (with one axon and one dendrite) are found in the retina of the eye
2.	The gaps between two adjacent internodes are called nodes of Ranvier
3.	Unmyelinated nerve fibres do not have myelin sheath around the axon
4.	Nissl's granules are found in cyton and are absent in dendrites

93.

Which of the following is wrong?

1.	Spermatogonia and leydig cells are present in seminiferous tubules
2.	Small blood vessels are present along with Leydig cells
3.	Leydig cells secrete Androgens
4.	Sertoli cell provide nutrition to the germ cell.

94.

Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle:
1. At the mid secretory phase
2. At the end of proliferative phase
3. Just before the end of secretory phase
4. At the beginning of the proliferative phase

95.

Select the correct statement with respect to figure given below:

1.	It is a sterilization method of contraception
2.	Mode of action is similar to that of contraceptive pills and their effective period is much longer
3.	Irreversible method of contraception
4.	One of the most widely accepted methods of contraception in India

96.

a.	Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during metaphase.
b.	Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
c.	Pachytene stage is relatively short-lived compared to the leptotene.
d.	Interkinesis is a short-lived stage characterized by duplication of DNA.

1.	a, b & c are correct
2.	Only c is incorrect
3.	b & d are correct
4.	a & b are correct

97.

How sickle cell anaemia is different from Thalassemia?

1.	Being autosomal recessive
2.	Being a blood disease
3.	Being a qualitative disorder
4.	Involvement of mutation

98.

Industrial melanism is an example of:
1. Neo Darwinism
2. Natural Selection
3. Mutation
4. Neo Lamarckism

99.

The IgG antibodies received by the developing fetus from the mother through the placenta will provide it with:
1. Naturally acquired passive immunity
2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
3. Naturally acquired active immunity
4. Artificially acquired active immunity

100.

There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does ‘co’ part in it stand for?

1.	Colon	2.	Coelom
3.	Coenzyme	4.	coli

Chemistry - Section A

101.

Xylene, on oxidation with acidic ${KMnO}_{4}$ , gives:

1.	Phthalic acid	2.	Isophthalic acid
3.	Terephthalic acid	4.	All of the above

102.

Match the catalyst with the process:

	Catalyst		Process
(i)	$V_2O_5$	(a)	The oxidation of ethylene to ethanal
(ii)	$TiCl_4 + Al(CH_3)_3$	(b)	Polymerisation of alkynes
(iii)	$PdCl_2$	(c)	Oxidation of $SO_2$ in the manufacture of $H_2SO_4$
(iv)	Nickel complexes	(d)	Polymerisation of ethylene

Which of the following is the correct matching of Catalyst & Process?

Options:	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
1.	c	d	a	b
2.	a	b	c	d
3.	a	c	b	d
4.	c	a	d	b

1. (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
2. (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
3. (i)-(a), (ii)-(n), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
4. (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)

103.

The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) for [CoCl₆]^4- is 18000 cm^-1.
The CFSE for [CoCl₄]^2- will be:
1. $6000$ $c m^{- 1}$
2. $16000$ $c m^{- 1}$
3. $18000$ $c m^{- 1}$
4. $8000$ $c m^{- 1}$

104.

Arrange the compounds in increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic substitution reaction:


(i)	(ii)	(iii)

1. (i) < (ii) < (iii)
2. (i) < (iii) < (ii)
3. (iii) < (ii) < (i)
4. (ii) < (iii) < (i)

105.

The following reaction is named as:
$\mathrm{Ar}^{+} \mathrm{Cl}_2 \mathrm{Cl}^{-} \xrightarrow{\mathrm{Cu}, \quad \mathrm{HCl}} \mathrm{ArCl}+\mathrm{N}_2+\mathrm{CuCl}$

1. Sandmeyer reaction
2. Gattermann reaction
3. Claisen reaction
4. Carbylamine reaction

106.

Which is the correct statement among the following?

1.	Starch is a polymer of α-glucose
2.	Amylose is a component of cellulose
3.	Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid
4.	In the cyclic structure of fructose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom

107.

The coordination numbers of Co and Al in [Co(Cl)₂(en)₂]Cl and K₃[Al(C₂O₄)₃], respectively, are :
(en = ethane-1, 2-diamine)
1. 3 and 3
2. 6 and 6
3. 5 and 3
4. 5 and 6

108.

Aqua regia is used for dissolving noble metals (Au, pt, etc.). The gas evolved in this process is:
1. N₂O₅
2. N₂O₃
3. N₂
4. NO

109.

The increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds in nucleophilic addition reaction is:
Propanal, Benzaldehyde, Propanone, Butanone
1. Butanone < Propanone < Benzaldehyde < Propanal
2. Propanal < Propanone < Butanone < Benzaldehyde
3. Benaldehyde < Propanal < Propanone < Butanone
4. Benzaldehyde < Butanone < Propanone < Propanal

110.

What is the final product (major) 'A' in the given reaction?

1.		2.
3.		4.

111.

Match List-I with List-II

List-I Electronic configuration of elements	List-II $∆$ ₁ in kJ mol^–1
$(a) 1 s^{2} 2 s^{2}$	(i) 801
$(b) 1 s^{2} 2 s^{2} 2 p^{4}$	(ii) 899
$(c) 1 s^{2} 2 s^{2} 2 p^{3}$	(iii) 1314
$(d) 1 s^{2} 2 s^{2} 2 p^{1}$	(iv) 1402

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below -
1. (a) $\to$ (ii), (b) $\to$ (iii), (c) $\to$ (iv), (d) $\to$ (i)
2. (a) $\to$ (i), (b) $\to$ (iv), (c) $\to$ (iii), (d) $\to$ (ii)
3. (a) $\to$ (i), (b) $\to$ (iii), (c) $\to$ (iv), (d) $\to$ (ii)
4. (a) $\to$ (iv), (b) $\to$ (i), (c) $\to$ (ii), (d) $\to$ (iii)

112.

The orbital having two radial as well as two angular nodes is-
1. 3p
2. 4f
3. 4d
4. 5d

113.

Consider separate solutions of 0.500 M C₂H₅OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg₃(PO₄)₂(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na₃PO₄(aq) at 25ºC. The correct statement about these solutions, assuming all salts to be strong electrolytes is-

1.	0.100 M Mg₃(PO₄)₂(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure
2.	0.125 M Na₃PO₄(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure
3.	0.500 M C₂H₅OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure
4.	They all have the same osmotic pressure

114.

What is the ratio of the number of molecules of oxygen to nitrogen in a specific gaseous mixture if their mass ratio is 1:4?

1.	7:32	2.	1:8
3.	3:16	4.	1:4

115.

Consider the following reaction :
$a\mathrm{Cu}+b\mathrm{HNO}_{3} \rightarrow c\mathrm{Cu}\left(\mathrm{NO}_{3}\right)_{2}+d\mathrm{NO}+e\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}$
The values of a, b and e in the reaction are, respectively-
1. 3, 8 and 4
2. 5, 2 and 8
3. 5, 2 and 16
4. 2, 5 and 8

116.

The amount of water in litres that must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2, is-
1. 2.0 L
2. 9.0 L
3. 0.1 L
4. 0.9 L

117.

Assertion (A):	Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen.
Reason (R):	The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires a high temperature.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

118.

The major product of the following reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

119.

Consider the reaction, 2A + B → Products.
When concentration of B alone was doubled, the half-life did not change. When the concentration of A alone was doubled, the rate increased by two times. The unit of rate constant for this reaction is:
1. L mol^–1 s^–1
2. no unit
3. mol L^–1s^–1
4. s^–1

120.

A metal having the strongest metallic bond among the following is:

1.	V	2.	Fe
3.	Cr	4.	Sc

121.

In the structure of silicon dioxide:

1.	There are double bonds between silicon and oxygen atoms.
2.	Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms.
3.	Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms.
4.	Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms.

122.

The value of the 'spin only' magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM. The correct one is:
1. d⁵ (in strong ligand field)
2. d³ (in weak as well as in strong fields)
3. d⁴ (in weak ligand field)
4. d⁴ (in strong ligand field)

123.

Which of the following reactions are not expected to give
in yields of more than 50%?

1.
2.
3.
4.	None of the above

124.

For a given solution, pH = 6.9 at 60 ℃, where K_w = 10^-12. The solution is:
1. Acidic
2. Basic
3. Neutral
4. Unpredictable

125.

The final product of the following sequence of reactions is-

1.		2.
3.		4.

126.

For the following cell with hydrogen electrodes at two different pressures p₁ and p₂
Pt(H₂) | H⁺(aq) |Pt (H₂)
p₁ 1M p₂
emf is given by -
1. $\frac{R T}{F} \log _{e} \frac{P_{1}}{p_{2}}$
2. $\frac{R T}{2F} \log _{e} \frac{P_{1}}{p_{2}}$
3. $\frac{R T}{F} \log _{e} \frac{P_{2}}{p_{1}}$
4. $\frac{R T}{2F} \log _{e} \frac{P_{2}}{p_{1}}$

127.

If a reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing point of water but is spontaneous at the boiling point of water, then-

	$\Delta H$	$\Delta S$
1.	+ve	+ve
2.	-ve	-ve
3.	-ve	+ve
4.	+ve	-ve

128.

Following types of compounds (as I, II)

(I)	CH₃CH=CHCH₃
(II)

are studied in terms of isomerism in:
1. Chain isomerism
2. Position isomerism
3. Conformers
4. Stereisomerism

129.

The correct statement among the following is-

1.	When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place
2.	Pure H₂O does not contain any ion
3.	A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces
4.	HF is less polar than HBr

130. K_H value for some gases at the same temperature 'T' are given:

gas	K_H/k bar
Ar	40.3
CO₂	1.67
HCHO	1.83 × 10^–5
CH₄	0.413

K_H is Henry's Law constant in water. The order of their solubility in water is :

1.	Ar < CO₂ < CH₄ < HCHO
2.	Ar < CH₄ < CO₂ < HCHO
3.	HCHO < CO₂ < CH₄ < Ar
4.	HCHO < CH₄ < CO₂ < Ar

131. The incorrect statement regarding $H_2 - O_2 $ fuel cell among the following is:

1.	The cell was used for providing electrical power in the Apollo space program.
2.	The energy of combustion is directly converted into electrical energy.
3.	Concentrated aqueous NaOH solution is used as an electrolyte.
4.	The reaction at anode is 4H₂O(l) + 4e^– → 2H₂(g) + 4OH^– (aq).

132. In a particular isomer of [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]°, the Cl–Co–Cl angle is 90°, and the isomer is known as:
1. Optical isomer
2. Cis-isomer
3. Position isomer
4. Linkage isomer

133. Phenol is distilled with Zn dust followed by Fridel Crafts alkylation with propyl chloride in the presence of AlCl₃ to give a compound (B). (B) is oxidized in the presence of air to form the compound (C). The structural formula of (C) is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

134. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is $1\times 10^{-4}$ in order to prepare a buffer solution with pH=5 the [salt]/ [Acid] ratio should be:
1. 4 : 5
2. 10 : 1
3. 5 : 4
4. 1 : 10

135. A diamagnetic compound among the following is:
1. [Co(F₆)]^3–
2. [Ni(CN)₄]^2–
3. [NiCl₄]^2–
4. [Fe(CN)₆]^3–

Chemistry - Section B

136.

Assertion (A):	Λ_m for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is diluted.
Reason (R):	For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with a dilution of the solution.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

137.

A brown ring is formed in the ring test for ${NO}_{3}^{-}$ ion. It is due to the formation of-
1. [Fe(H₂O)₅(NO)]²⁺
2. FeSO₄.NO₂
3. [Fe(H₂O)₄ (NO)₂]²⁺
4. FeSO₄. HNO₃

138.

Which of the following complexes formed by Cu⁺⁺ ions is most stable?

1.	Cu²⁺ + 4NH₃ → [Cu(NH₃)₄]²⁺ logK = 11.6
2.	Cu²⁺ + 4CN^- → [Cu(CN)₄]^2- logK = 27.3
3.	Cu²⁺ + 2en- → [Cu(en)₂]²⁺ logK = 15 .4
4.	Cu²⁺ + 4H₂O → [Cu(H₂O)₄]²⁺ logK = 8.9

139.

IUPAC name of m-cresol is:
1. 3-Methylphenol
2. 3-Chlorophenol
3. 3-Methoxyphenol
4. Benzene-1,3-diol

140.

Compounds A and C in the following reaction are:
$\mathrm{\small{{CH}_3 {CHO} \xrightarrow[{(ii) ~H_{2}O}]{(i) ~CH_{3}MgBr}({A}) \stackrel{{H}_2 {SO}_4}{\longrightarrow}({B}) \xrightarrow[]{Hydroboration \ oxidation}(C)}}$
1. Identical
2. Positional isomers
3. Functional isomers
4. Optical isomers

141.

16 g of oxygen has the same number of molecules as in-
(a) 16 g of CO
(b) 28 g of N₂
(c) 14 g of N₂
(d) 1.0 g of H₂
1. (a), (b)
2. (b), (c)
3. (c), (d)
4. (b), (d)

142.

For the reaction $2 A + B \to C$ , the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is:

[A] (mol L^-1)	[B] (mol L^-1)	Initial Rate (mol L^-1 s^-1)
0.05	0.05	0.045
0.10	0.05	0.090
0.20	0.10	0.72

1. Rate = k[A] [B]
2. Rate = k [A] ${[B]}^{2}$
3. Rate = $K {[A]}^{2} {[B]}^{2}$
4. Rate = $K {[A]}^{2} [B]$

143.

The correct statement about ICl₅ and ICl₄^- is:

1.	Both are isostructural
2.	ICl₅ is square pyramidal and ICl₄^- is square planar
3.	ICl₅ is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl₄^- is tetrahedral
4.	ICl₅ is square pyramidal and ICl₄^- is tetrahedral

144.

A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol^–1) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol^–1) in 100 mL of water at 27 ºC. The osmotic pressure of the solution is:
(R = 0.08206 L atm K^–1mol^–1)
1. 8.2 atm
2. 2.46 atm
3. 4.92 atm
4. 1.64 atm

145.

If the equilibrium constant for $A ⇌ B + C is K_{eq}^{(1)}$ and that of $B + C ⇌ P is K_{eq}^{(2)}$ , the equilibrium constant for $A ⇋ P$ is:
1. $K_{eq}^{(2)} - K_{eq}^{(1)}$
2. $K_{eq}^{(1)} \times K_{eq}^{(2)}$
3. $K_{eq}^{(1)} + K_{eq}^{(2)}$
4. $K_{eq}^{(2)} / K_{eq}^{(1)}$

146.

Lattice energy and enthalpy of the solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol^–1 and 4 kJ mol^–1 , respectively. The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is:
1. –780 kJ mol^–1
2. –784 kJ mol^–1
3. 780 kJ mol^–1
4. 784 kJ mol^–1

147.

The isostructural pairs among the following is-
$A. \mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-} \ and \ \mathrm{CrO}_{4}^{2-}$
$B. \mathrm{SiCl}_{4} \ and \ \mathrm{TiCl}_{4}$
$C. \mathrm{NH}_{3} \ and \ \mathrm{NO}_{3}^{-} \\ D. \mathrm{BCl}_{3} \ and \ \mathrm{BrCl}_{3}$
1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. B and C only

148.

The major product among the following reaction is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

149.

For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested by the Kjeldahl method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of M/10 sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:
1. 10%
2. 3%
3. 5%
4. 6%

150.

5.6 g of an organic compound on burning with excess of oxygen gave 17.6 g of 𝐶𝑂₂ and 7.2 g of 𝐻₂𝑂. The organic compound is-
1. C₆H₆
2. C₄H₈
3. C₃H₈
4. C₂H₂

Physics - Section A

151.

The wavelength of the photon emitted by a hydrogen atom when an electron makes a transition from $n=2$ to $n=1$ state is:
1. $194.8~\text{nm}$
2. $913.3~\text{nm}$
3. $490.7~\text{nm}$
4. $121.8~\text{nm}$

152.

A common transistor radio set requires $12~\text{V}$ (D.C.) for its operation. The D.C. source is constructed by using a transformer and a rectifier circuit, which are operated at $220~\text{V}$ (A.C.) on standard domestic A.C. supply. If the number of turns of secondary coil are $24$, then the number of turns of primary are:
1. $110$
2. $330$
3. $440$
4. $550$

153.

A person of $80~\text{kg}$ mass is standing on the rim of a circular platform of mass $200~\text{kg}$ rotating about its axis at $5$ revolutions per minute (rpm). The person now starts moving towards the centre of the platform. What will be the rotational speed (in rpm) of the platform when the person reaches its centre?
1. $3$
2. $5$
3. $7$
4. $9$

154.

The longitudinal strain of a string is equal to twice the magnitude of lateral strain. Poisson's ratio of the material of string is:

1.	$0.4$	2.	$0.5$
3.	$0.1$	4.	$0.2$

155. Two charges $Q_1$ and $Q_2$ are separated by a distance $D.$ If both $Q_1$ and $Q_1$ are doubled, the force is:

1.	increased by a factor of $2$
2.	decreased by a factor of $2$
3.	unchanged
4.	increased by a factor of $4$

156. Two dielectric slabs are inserted between plates of a parallel plate capacitor as shown in the figure. When connected to a battery, the ratio of the potential difference across the two layers is:

1. $\frac{{K}_{1}b}{{K}_{2}a}$
2. $\frac{{K}_{1}a}{{K}_{2}b}$
3. $\frac{{K}_{2}b}{{K}_{1}a}$
4. $\frac{{K}_{2}a}{{K}_{1}b}$

157. Two coils of self-inductance $2~\text{mH}$ and $8~\text{mH}$ are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is:
1. $16~\text{mH}$
2. $10~\text{mH}$
3. $6~\text{mH}$
4. $4~\text{mH}$

158.

A magnet is made to oscillate with a particular frequency through a coil as shown in figure. The time variation of magnitude of emf generated across the coil during one cycle is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

159. In a LCR circuit $100~\Omega$ resistance is connected to an a.c. source of $200~\text{V}$ and angular frequency $300~\text{rad/s}$. If only the capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current by phase angle $\mathit{\phi}$. If only the inductance is removed the current leads the voltage by phase angle $\mathit{\phi}$. The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is:
1. $500~\text{W}$
2. $400~\text{W}$
3. $300~\text{W}$
4. $200~\text{W}$

160. A cylindrical region contains a uniform electric field that is parallel to the axis and is changing with time. If $r$ is the distance from the cylinder axis, the magnitude of the magnetic field outside the region is:
1. 0
2. Proportional to $\frac{1}{r}$
3. Proportional to $r^2$
4. Proportional to $\frac{1}{r^2}$

161. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towards a cliff at 20 m/s. The driver of the car hears:
(velocity of sound = 320 m/s)

1.	no beats
2.	beats at a frequency of 64 Hz
3.	beats at a frequency of 30 Hz
4.	beats at a frequency of 32 Hz

162. Figure shows a parabolic graph between $\mathrm{T}$ and $\frac{1}{\mathrm{V}}$ for a mixture of gas undergoing an adiabatic process. What is the ratio of $v_{\text{rms}}$ and speed of the sound in the mixture?

1. $\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}$
2. $\sqrt{2}$
3. $\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}$
4. $\sqrt{3}$

163. The absolute temperature of a star increases from $T$ to $2T$ while the radius of the star shrinks from $R$ to $R/2$. As a result, the total power radiated by the star:

1.	increases by a factor of $16$
2.	decreases by a factor of $4$
3.	remains constant
4.	increases by a factor of $4$

164. Which of the following rays is emitted by a human body?
1. X-rays
2. Visible rays
3. UV -rays
4. IR -rays

165. A block of mass $5~\text{kg}$ is moving horizontally at speed of $1.5~\text{ms}^{-1}$ . A vertically upward force $5~\text{N}$ acts on it for $4~\text{s}$. What will be the distance of the block from the point where the force starts acting after $4~\text{s}$? (Ignore gravity)
1. $2~\text{m}$
2. $6~\text{m}$
3. $14~\text{m}$
4. $10~\text{m}$

166. The side of a cube is measured by vernier calipers ($20$ divisions of the vernier scale coincide with $19$ divisions of the main scale, where $1$ division of the main scale is $1~\text{mm}$). The main scale reads $10~\text{mm}$ and the first division of the vernier scale coincides with the main scale. The side length of a cube is:
1. $10.02$ mm
2. $10.05$ mm
3. $10.04$ mm
4. $10.06$ mm

167. A thin rod $\mathrm{AB}$ is moving in a vertical plane. At a certain instant when the rod is inclined at $30^\circ$ to the horizontal, point $\mathrm{A}$ is moving horizontally with $3~\mathrm{m/s}$ while $\mathrm{B}$ is moving in the vertical direction. The velocity of $\mathrm{B}$ is:

1.	$\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}~\mathrm{m/s}$	2.	$\sqrt{3}~\mathrm{m/s}$
3.	$3\sqrt{3}~\mathrm{m/s}$	4.	$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}~\mathrm{m/s}$

168. $(P-V)$ diagram of an ideal gas is shown in the figure. Work done by the gas in the process $ABCD$ is:

1. $4P_0V_0$
2. $2P_0V_0$
3. $3P_0V_0$
4. $P_0V_0$

169.

A particle is moving along a straight line such that its position depends on time as ${x}{=}{1}{-}{at}{+}{bt}^{2} $, where $a=2~\text{m/s}$, $b=1~\text{m/s}^2$. The distance covered by the particle during the first $3$ seconds from start of the motion will be:

1.	$2~\text{m}$	2.	$5~\text{m}$
3.	$7~\text{m}$	4.	$4~\text{m}$

170. A ball strikes against the floor and returns with double the velocity. In which type of collision is it possible?
1. Perfectly elastic
2. Inelastic
3. Perfectly inelastic
4. It is not possible

171. In a photoelectric cell, when photons of energy $6~\text{eV}$ are incident on the cathode, the most energetic photoelectron has energy of $2~\text{eV}$. When photons of energy $7~\text{eV}$ are incident on the cathode, no photoelectric current would be observed when the potential of the anode with respect to cathode is:
1. $7~\text{V}$
2. $3~\text{V}$
3. $-2~\text{V}$
4. $-3~\text{V}$

172. An AND gate is followed by a NOT gate in series. With two inputs $A$ and $B,$ the Boolean expression for the output $Y$ will be:
1. $\overline{{A}{+}{B}}$
2. $\overline{A.B}$
3. $A.B$
4. $\overline{\overline{A}{+}{B}}$

173.

The focal length of a convex lens is $f$. An object is placed at a distance $x$ from its second focal point. The ratio of the size of the real image to that of the object is:
1. $\frac{f}{x^2}$
2. $\frac{x^2}{f}$
3. $\frac{f}{x}$
4. ${x \over f}$

174. The x-z plane separates two media $A$ and $B$ of refractive indices ${\mathit{\mu}}_{1}{=}{1}{.}{5}$ and ${\mathit{\mu}}_{2}{=}{2}$. A ray of light travels from $A$ to $B$, its directions in the two media are given by unit vectors ${\overrightarrow{u}}_{1}{=}{a}\hat{i}{+}{b}\hat{j}$ and ${\overrightarrow{u}}_{2}{=}{c}\hat{i}{+}{d}\hat{j}$. Then:
1. $\frac{a}{c}{=}\frac{4}{3}$
2. $\frac{a}{c}{=}\frac{3}{4}$
3. $\frac{b}{d}{=}\frac{4}{3}$
4. $\frac{b}{d}{=}\frac{3}{4}$

175. Energy made available when free nucleons combine to form nucleus is called:

1.	Gibbs free energy	2.	Ionisation energy
3.	Potential energy	4.	Binding energy

176. Red light is used in a single slit diffraction experiment with a slit width of $0.6~\text{mm}$. If the red light is replaced by yellow light, then the observed pattern will reveal:

1.	that the central maximum is wider.
2.	more number of fringes.
3.	less number of fringes.
4.	no diffraction pattern.

177. A projectile with a linear momentum p makes an angle $\mathit{\theta}$ with the horizontal. The change in momentum of the projectile on return to the ground will be:

1.	2p	2.	${2}{p}\cos\mathit{\theta}$
3.	${2}{p}\sin\mathit{\theta}$	4.	${2}{p}\tan\mathit{\theta}$

178. A satellite with kinetic energy $E$ is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit. The minimum additional kinetic energy required for it to escape into outer space is:
1. $2E$
2. $E/\sqrt{2}$
3. $E/2$
4. $E$

179. A ball of mass $m$ and radius $r$ is released in a viscous liquid. The value of its terminal velocity is proportional to:
1. $\frac{1}{r}$ only
2. $\frac{m}{r}$
3. $ \left ( \frac{m}{r} \right )^{1/2} $
4. $m$ only

180. In a potentiometer experiment, a cell of emf $1.5~\text{V}$ connected in the secondary circuit gives a balancing length of $165~\text{cm}$ of the wire. If a resistance of $5~\Omega$ is connected in parallel to the cell, the balancing length of the wire is $150~\text{cm}$. The internal resistance of the cell is:
1. $5~\Omega$
2. $1.5~\Omega$
3. $1~\Omega$
4. $0.5~\Omega$

181. If a proton and an electron with equal kinetic energy enter a magnetic field perpendicularly, then:

1.	both remain unaffected
2.	path of $e^-$ will be more curved than the proton
3.	path of proton will be more curved than electron
4.	path of both particles will be equally curved

182. Match the types of motion in List-I with their corresponding examples in List-II.

List-I	List-II
(a) motion with constant speed	(i) SHM
(b) motion with constant acceleration	(ii) uniform circular motion
(c) oscillatory motion	(iii) projectile motion
(d) random motion	(iv) molecular motion in gas

Codes:

1.	a - (iv), b - (ii), c - (iii), d - (i)
2.	a - (i), b - (iii), c - (ii), d - (iv)
3.	a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (iv)
4.	a - (ii), b - (iii), c - (iv), d - (i)

183. When a $p$-type semi-conductor is put in an electric field $\overrightarrow E$ the electrons in the valence band, on average,

1.	flow in the direction of the $\overrightarrow E$ and cause a current opposite to $\overrightarrow E$
2.	flow opposite to $\overrightarrow E$ and cause a current along $\overrightarrow E$
3.	flow along $\overrightarrow E$ and cause a current along $\overrightarrow E$
4.	flow opposite to $\overrightarrow E$ and cause a current opposite to $\overrightarrow E$

184. A bar magnet of the magnetic moment $M$ is placed at right angles to a magnetic induction $B.$ If a force $F$ is experienced by each pole of the magnet, the length of the magnet will be:

1.	$\frac{MB}{F}$	2.	$\frac{BF}{M}$
3.	$\frac{MF}{B}$	4.	$\frac{F}{MB}$

185. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The motion of the centre-of-mass of a system of particles is not affected by internal forces within the system.
Statement II:	The internal forces within a system of particles constitute action-reaction pairs, and their vector sum is zero.

1.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

Physics - Section B

186.

The value of acceleration due to gravity at Earth's surface is $9.8~\text{ms}^{-2}$. The altitude above its surface at which the acceleration due to gravity decreases to $4.9~\text{ms}^{-2}$ is close to: (Radius of earth = $6.4\times 10^6~\text{m}$)
1. $ 6.4 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~m} $
2. $ 2.6 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~m} $
3. $ 1.6 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~m} $
4. $ 9.0 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~m}$

187.

A cricket ball of mass $0.15~\text{kg}$ is thrown vertically up by a bowling machine so that it rises to a maximum height of $20~\text{m}$ after leaving the machine. If the part pushing the ball applies a constant force $F$ on the ball and moves horizontally a distance of $0.2~\text{m}$ while launching the ball, the value of $F$ (in N) is: ($g=10~\text{m/s}^2$)
1. $50 \mathrm{~N} $
2. $100 \mathrm{~N} $
3. $150 \mathrm{~N} $
4. $200 \mathrm{~N}$

188.

Starting from the origin at time $t=0,$ with an initial velocity $5 \hat{j}~\text{ms}^{-1}$, a particle moves in the x-y plane with a constant acceleration of $10 \hat{i}+4 \hat{j} $ ms^-2. At time $t,$ its coordinates are $(20~\text{m},~y_0~\text{m}).$ The value of $y_0$ is:

1.	$52~\text{m}$	2.	$25~\text{m}$
3.	$18~\text{m}$	4.	$24~\text{m}$

189.

A closed vessel contains $0.1$ mole of a monatomic ideal gas at $200~\text{K}$. If $0.05$ mole of the same gas at $500~\text{K}$ is added to it, the final equilibrium temperature (in $\text{K}$) of the gas in the vessel is:
1. $100~\text{K}$
2. $200~\text{K}$
3. $300~\text{K}$
4. $400~\text{K}$

190.

If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube:

1.	air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes become equal.
2.	air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged.
3.	air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger.
4.	there is no flow of air.

191. For the circuit shown, find the potential difference between $A$ and $B$.

1. $E$
2. $ \frac{2E}{3}$
3. $ \frac{2E}{5}$
4. zero

192. An electron moving with a velocity ${\overrightarrow{\mathbf{v}}}_{1}{=}{1}\hat{i} $ m/s at a point in a magnetic field experiences a force ${\overrightarrow{\mathbf{F}}}_{1}{=}{-}{2}\hat{j} $ N. If the electron is moving with a velocity ${\overrightarrow{\mathbf{v}}}_{2}{=}{1}\hat{j}$ m/s at the same point, it experiences a force ${\overrightarrow{\mathbf{F}}}_{2}{=}{2}\hat{i}\;\text{N}$. The force that an electron would experience if it were moving with a velocity ${\overrightarrow{\mathbf{v}}}_{3}{=}{2}\hat{k}$ m/s at the same point is:
1. zero
2. $2\hat{k}~\text{N}$
3. ${-}{2}\hat{k}~\text{N}$
4. information is insufficient

193. Two blocks of equal masses ($M$) connected by a string are kept on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the blocks and the surface is µ.

If $0<F_1-F_2<2\mu mg$, then the correct statement is:

1.	the direction of friction on block A is towards right.
2.	the direction of friction on block B may be towards left or right.
3.	tension in the string must be zero.
4.	friction force on block B must be zero.

194.

The figure shows two blocks of masses $m$ and $M$ connected by a string passing over a pulley. The horizontal table over which the mass $m$ slides is smooth. The pulley has a radius $r$ and moment of inertia $I$ about its axis and it can freely rotate about this axis. The acceleration of the mass $M$ assuming that the string does not slip on the pulley is:

1. $\frac{mg}{M+m+I/r^2}$
2. $\frac{Mg}{M+m+I/r^2}$
3. $\frac{Mg}{M+m+2I/r^2}$
4. $\frac{mg}{M+m+2I/r^2}$

195. A wave is represented by the equation ${y}{=}{A}\sin\left({{10}\mathit{\pi}{x}{+}{15}\mathit{\pi}{t}{+}\frac{\mathit{\pi}}{3}}\right) $ where $x$ is in meters and $t $ is in seconds. The expression represents:

1.	a wave traveling in the positive x-direction with a velocity $1.5~\text{m/s}$
2.	a wave traveling in the negative x-direction with a velocity $2.5~\text{m/s}$
3.	a wave traveling in the negative x-direction having a wavelength $0.2~\text{m}$
4.	a wave traveling in the positive x-direction having a wavelength $0.2~\text{m}$

196. The displacement of a particle along $x$-axis is given by $x=a\sin2\omega t$. The motion of the particle corresponds to:

1.	simple harmonic motion of frequency $\mathit{\omega}{/}\mathit{\pi}$
2.	simple harmonic motion of frequency ${3}\mathit{\omega}{/}{2}\mathit{\pi}$
3.	non-simple harmonic motion
4.	simple harmonic motion of frequency $\mathit{\omega}{/}{2}\mathit{\pi}$

197. An electron with speed $v$ and a photon with speed $c$ have the same de Broglie wavelength. If the kinetic energy and momentum of electron is $E_e$ and $P_e$ and that of photon is $E_{ph}$ and $P_{ph}$ respectively, then the correct option is:
1. $\frac{{E}_{e}}{{E}_{ph}}{=}\frac{2c}{v}$
2. $\frac{{E}_{e}}{{E}_{ph}}{=}\frac{v}{2c}$
3. $\frac{{P}_{e}}{{P}_{ph}}{=}\frac{2c}{v}$
4. $\frac{{P}_{e}}{{P}_{ph}}{=}\frac{v}{2c}$

198. The maximum amount of heat that can be given to $1~\text{g}$ of water without a change of temperature is:
1. $ 2268 \mathrm{~J} $
2. $ 6468 \mathrm{~J} $
3. $ 336 \mathrm{~J} $
4. $ 4200 \mathrm{~J}$

199.

The output of the logic circuit shown is equivalent to a/an:

1. $\mathrm{OR}$ gate
2. $\mathrm{NOR}$ gate
3. $\mathrm{AND}$ gate
4. $\mathrm{NAND}$ gate

200. The potential difference across the $2~\Omega$ resistance is:

1.	$6~\text V$	2.	$4~\text V$
3.	$2~\text V$	4.	$1~\text V$

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	Column I		Column II
a.	\(G_{(3)}\) , Axile	i.	Brassicaceae
b.	\(G_{(2)}\) , Basal	ii.	Liliaceae
c.	\(G_{(2)}\) , Parietal	iii.	Solanaceae
d.	\(G_{(2)}\) , Axile	iv.	Asteraceae

	Catalyst		Process
(i)	\(V_2O_5\)	(a)	The oxidation of ethylene to ethanal
(ii)	\(TiCl_4 + Al(CH_3)_3\)	(b)	Polymerisation of alkynes
(iii)	\(PdCl_2\)	(c)	Oxidation of \(SO_2\) in the manufacture of \(H_2SO_4\)
(iv)	Nickel complexes	(d)	Polymerisation of ethylene

1.	increased by a factor of \(2\)
2.	decreased by a factor of \(2\)
3.	unchanged
4.	increased by a factor of \(4\)

1.	increases by a factor of \(16\)
2.	decreases by a factor of \(4\)
3.	remains constant
4.	increases by a factor of \(4\)

1.	\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}~\mathrm{m/s}\)	2.	\(\sqrt{3}~\mathrm{m/s}\)
3.	\(3\sqrt{3}~\mathrm{m/s}\)	4.	\(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}~\mathrm{m/s}\)

1.	\(2~\text{m}\)	2.	\(5~\text{m}\)
3.	\(7~\text{m}\)	4.	\(4~\text{m}\)

1.	2p	2.	\({2}{p}\cos\mathit{\theta}\)
3.	\({2}{p}\sin\mathit{\theta}\)	4.	\({2}{p}\tan\mathit{\theta}\)

1.	both remain unaffected
2.	path of \(e^-\) will be more curved than the proton
3.	path of proton will be more curved than electron
4.	path of both particles will be equally curved

1.	flow in the direction of the \(\overrightarrow E\) and cause a current opposite to \(\overrightarrow E\)
2.	flow opposite to \(\overrightarrow E\) and cause a current along \(\overrightarrow E\)
3.	flow along \(\overrightarrow E\) and cause a current along \(\overrightarrow E\)
4.	flow opposite to \(\overrightarrow E\) and cause a current opposite to \(\overrightarrow E\)

1.	\(\frac{MB}{F}\)	2.	\(\frac{BF}{M}\)
3.	\(\frac{MF}{B}\)	4.	\(\frac{F}{MB}\)

1.	\(52~\text{m}\)	2.	\(25~\text{m}\)
3.	\(18~\text{m}\)	4.	\(24~\text{m}\)

1.	simple harmonic motion of frequency \(\mathit{\omega}{/}\mathit{\pi}\)
2.	simple harmonic motion of frequency \({3}\mathit{\omega}{/}{2}\mathit{\pi}\)
3.	non-simple harmonic motion
4.	simple harmonic motion of frequency \(\mathit{\omega}{/}{2}\mathit{\pi}\)

1.	\(6~\text V\)	2.	\(4~\text V\)
3.	\(2~\text V\)	4.	\(1~\text V\)

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