Target Test

Botany - Section A

1.

When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, then plant is said to be:
1. Bisexual
2. Monoecious
3. Unisexual
4. Dioecious

2.

Dioecy in plants prevents:
1. Autogamy but not geitonogamy
2. Geitonogamy but not autogamy
3. Both autogamy and geitonogamy
4. Neither autogamy nor geitonogamy

3.

Double fertilisation is exhibited by
(1) gymnosperms
(2) algae
(3) fungi
(4) angiosperms

4.

In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
1. Xenogamy
2. Chasmogamy
3. Cleistogamy
4. Geitonogamy

5.

Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine is composed of
1. cutin
2. suberin
3. sporopollenin
4. callose

6.

Sporopollenin is a constituent of pollen exine.
It can be degraded by the action of
(1) enzymes
(2) high temperature
(3) strong acids
(4) cannot be degraded

7.

Which among the following is attached to the proximal end of filament?
(1) Stamen
(2) Anther
(3) Petal
(4) Pollen sac

8.

Match the following:

1	Sporogenous tissue	I	Process of formation of microspores from PMC by meiosis
2	Microspore tetrad	II	Microspores arranged in cluster of four cells
3	Microsporogenesis	III	Formation of microspore tetrad by meiosis
4	Tapetum	IV	Nourishes pollen grains

1. 1-III ; 2-I ; 3-II ; 4-IV
2. 1-III ; 2-II ; 3-I ; 4-IV
3. 1-II ; 2-III ; 3-I ; 4-IV
4. 1-II ; 2-III ; 3-IV ; 4-I

9.

The layers in the walls of the microsporangium that helps in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen include:

I:	Epidermis
II:	Endothecium
III:	Middle layers
IV:	Tapetum

1.	I and II only	2.	I, II, and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, III, and IV

10.

Look at the diagram given below and answer appropriately

(i) Since ___A___ is associated with fruit, it is called as ___(i)___ .
(ii) Since ___B___ is present, fruit cannot be called as ___(ii)___ .
1. A - Pericarp, (i) - True fruits
2. B - Seed, (ii) - Ex-albuminous
3. A - Thalamus, (i) - True fruit
4. B - Seed, (ii) - Parthenocarpic

11.

Arrange the following stages of microspore development into pollen grain, in the correct sequence

1. b, c, d, and a
2. b, d, a and c
3. a, c, b and d
4. b, a, d and c

12.

Choose the correct statements
a. Perisperm is the persistant nucellus in the seeds of black pepper.
b. Single large cotyledon in grass is situated towards lateral side of the embryonal axis.
c. Seeds are the basis of agriculture.
d. Citrus has only one embryo in a seed.
1. Only a
2. Only a & b
3. Only a, b & c
4. a, b, c & d

13.

When the embryosac develops from a single functional megaspore [the other three get generate], it is called as:

1.	Monosporic	2.	Bisporic
3.	Trisporic	4.	Tetrasporic

14.

Identify the plant pollinated by insects that, in many species, emit a scent of decaying flesh from the inflorescence, in order to attract insects:

1.	Yucca	2.	Amorphophallus
3.	Zostera	4.	Vallisneria

Botany - Section B

15.

Which of the given is not related to wind pollination?
1. Flowers are nectraless, odourless and colourless
2. Versatile statements in grasses
3. Dry, unbranched short stigma
4. Winged pollens in Pinus

16.

Find the incorrect statement with respect to Commelina
1. Cleistogamous flowers
2. Assured seed set
3. Abiotic pollinators
4. No anthesis

17. Identify the correct relationship of an ovary and an ovule in angiosperms:

1.	ovary is the enlarged apical portion of the pistil; the ovary contains ovules, which develop into seeds upon fertilization
2.	ovary is the enlarged basal portion of the pistil; the ovary contains ovules, which develop into seeds upon fertilization
3.	ovary is the enlarged basal portion of the pistil; the ovary contains ovules, which develop into fruits upon fertilization
4.	ovary is the enlarged apical portion of the pistil; the ovary contains ovules, which develop into fruits upon fertilization

18. Endosperm may persist in mature seed in:
1. Pea and Apple
2. Groundnut and Wheat
3. Beans and Mango
4. Castor and Coconut

19.

What will be the ploidy of endosperm of a seed produced after crossing tetraploid female plant with tetraploid male plant?
1. Pentaploid
2. Hexaploid
3. Diploid
4. Triploid

20. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Cultivation of hybrids has tremendously increased the productivity.
Reason (R):	If hybrids are made into apomicts, there is segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny.-

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

Zoology - Section A

21.

The function of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by:
1. Hypothalamic releasing hormone
2. Pitutary gonadotropins
3. Adrenal cortex steroids
4. Testicular androgens

22.

In 'test-tube baby' procedure:
1. Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development is in-vivo
2. Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development is in-vitro
3. Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vitro
4. Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vivo

23.

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into

1.	uterus	2.	Fallopian tube
3.	fimbriae	4.	cervix

24.

Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
1. Decrease in oestradiol
2. Full development of Graafian follicle
3. Release of secondary oocyte
4. LH surge

25.

Pills, implants and IUDs are very effective if taken within __________ of coitus.
1. 5 days
2. 72 hours
3. 30 days
4.15 days

26.

Milk produced by alveoli is stored in

1.	Lobes	2.	Lumen
3.	Duct	4.	Glandular Tissue

27.

At puberty, how many primary follicles are there in each ovary in a female?

1. 60000-80000
2. 120000-160000
3. 30000-40000
4. 12000

28.

Identify the hormones that are secreted in large amount prior to ovulation :

A.	LH
B.	FSH
C.	Estrogen
D.	Progesterone

1. A only
2. A & B only
3. A,B & C only
4. A,B,C & D

29.

Which is not a common mode of action between LNG20 and oral pill?
1. Inhibition of ovulation
2. Suppression of sperm motility and reduction of fertilizing ability of sperm
3. Alteration in quality of cervical mucus
4. Inhibition of implantation

30.

Which of the following statements are true with respect to polar body?
1. Non functional by-products of oogenesis
2. First polar body is formed during the reductional division of the primary oocyte
3. Second polar body is formed during unequal division of the secondary oocyte
4. All of these

31.

Which one of the following structures is last to appear during foetal development ?
1. Heart
2. Limbs and digits
3. Appearance of hair on head
4. Formation of eyelashes

32.

Oral contraceptives do not work by

1.	Inhibition of ovulation
2.	Changing the consistency of cervical mucus
3.	Antagonistic action on gonadotropins
4.	Spermicidal action

33.

During parturition, a pregnant woman is having prolonged labour pains and child birth has to be fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone that can

1.	increase the metabolic rate.
2.	release glucose in the blood.
3.	stimulate the ovary.
4.	activate smooth muscles.

34. A functional mammary gland is a characteristic feature of:
1. all mammals
2. all female mammals
3. only primate female mammals
4. all female vertebrates

Zoology - Section B

35. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Cleavage divisions in early embryonic stages are mitotic divisions.
2.	Embryo with 4-8 cells is called as morula.
3.	Implantation occurs at the stage of blastocyst.
4.	Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and produces some hormones.

36.

Which one of the following is not an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) used by childless couples to have children?

1.	ZIFT	2.	IUD
3.	IVF	4.	IUT

37. How many of the given are early symptoms of STIs?
(a) Slight pain and swellings in genital region
(b) Stillbirths
(c) Infertility
(d) Itching
(e) Fluid discharge
Select the correct option
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

38. Use of spermicidal creams, jellies and foams along with diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults leads to

1.	Increased contraceptive efficiency
2.	Prevention of ovulation
3.	Prevention of implantation
4.	Increased sexual desire and drive

39. All of the following can be considered as complications of sexually transmitted diseases except
1. Pelvic inflammatory disease
2. Still birth
3. Down's syndrome
4. Infertility

40. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the female. They work by

1.	Inhibiting ovulation
2.	Inhibiting implantation
3.	They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
4.	All of these

Chemistry - Section A

41.

The IUPAC name of the compound

1. 3,3-diethyl-4-methyl-5 (methylethyl)octane
2. 3,3-diethyl-5-isopropyl-4-methyloctane
3. 4-isopropyl-5-methyl-6,6-diethyloctane
4. 6,6-diethyl-4-isopropyl-5-methyloctane

42.

The correct structure of 3,3-dimethyl butyne is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

43.

The IUPAC name of the compound is-
$CH_2=C-CH_2-C \equiv CH\\ ~~~~~~~~~~~~~|\\ ~~~~~~~~~~~~CH_3$
1. 2-Methylpent-1-en-4-yne
2. 4-Methylpent-4-en-1-yne
3. 2-Methylpent-2-en-4-yne
4. 4-Methylpent-1-en-4-yne

44.

The IUPAC name of the compound CH₃CONH(Br) is:
1. 1-Bromoacetamide
2. N-Bromoethanamide
3. Ethanoyl bromide
4. None of the above

45.

The correct order of resonance energy among the given below compounds is:

1. III>I>II
2. II>I>III
3. I>II>III
4. III>II>I

46.

In the following mechanism, the chain termination step is:

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

1. (i)
2. (ii)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)

47.

The IUPAC name of is:

(1) propene-1, 3-dial
(2) Propene-1, 3-dicarbaldehyde
(3) Pent-3-ene-1, 5-dial
(4) Pent-2-ene-1, 5-dial

48.

The IUPAC name of
$N C ‐ C H_{2} ‐ C H_{2} ‐ C N$ is:
(1) Butane-1,4-dicarbonitrile
(2) Ethane-1, 2-dicarbonitrile
(3) Ethane-1, 2-dinitrile
(4) Butane-1, 4-dinitrile

49.

The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

1. 2, 3-Dihydroxy-4-methylpentanal
2. 1-oxo-2,3-Dihydroxy-4-methylpentane
3. 2,3-Dihydroxy-4-methylpentanone
4. 1, 2-Dihydroxy-3-methylbutanecarbaldehyde

50.

Ph-CH=CH-COOH
The IUPAC name is:
1. 3-Phenyl prop-2-enoic acid
2. 3-Phenol prop-1-enoic acid
3. 3-Carboxy-prop-1-ene benzene
4. But-2-enoic acid

51.

The stability of 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene is more than 2-butene. This can be explained in terms of:
1. resonance
2. hyperconjugation
3. electromeric effect
4. inductive effect

52.

Only two isomeric monochloro derivatives are possible for:
(1) n-butane
(2) 2,4-dimethylpentane
(3) benzene
(4) 2-methylbutane

53.

Which amongst the following is the most stable carbocation :-

1.	$\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}_2$	2.	$\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3$
3.		4.

54.

Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement for a nucleophilic reaction to take place?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Chemistry - Section B

55.

The incorrect IUPAC name among the following is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

56.

Rank the following in order of decreasing nucleophilicity in an aprotic solvent: $R O^{-}, R C O O H, R O H, O H^{-}$
1. $R C O O H > R O H > R O^{-} > H O^{-}$
2. $O H^{-} > R O H > R O^{-} R C O O H$
3. $R O^{-} > H O^{-} > R O H > R C O O H$
4. $R C O O H > R O^{-} > H O^{-} R O H$

57.

The pair of structures that does not represent isomers is:

1.		2.
3.		4.

58.

The $C - H$ bond distance is longer in -

1.	$C_2H_2$	2.	$C_2H_4$
3.	$C_2H_6$	4.	$C_2H_2Br_2$

59.

Which of the following has a zero dipole moment?
1. 1-butene
2. cis-2-butene
3. trans-2-butene
4. 2 methyl-1-propene

60.

The total number of isomers possible for the molecular formula C₇H₈O are:
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Physics - Section A

61.

Two charges each equal to 2μC are 0.5m apart. If both of them exist inside the vacuum, then the force between them is
(1) 1.89 N
(2) 2.44 N
(3) 0.144 N
(4) 3.144 N

62.

The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron placed in it would experience an electrical force equal to its weight is given by
(1) mge
(2) $\frac{m g}{e}$
(3) $\frac{e}{m g}$
(4) $\frac{e^{2}}{m^{2}} g$

63.

The electric intensity due to an infinite cylinder of radius R and having charge q per unit length at a distance r(r > R) from its axis is
(1) Directly proportional to r²
(2) Directly proportional to r³
(3) Inversely proportional to r
(4) Inversely proportional to r²

64.

Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ . The line AB is perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good. Where $V_{A}, V_{B}$ and V_C represent the electric potential at points A, B and C respectively

1. $V_{A} = V_{B} = V_{C}$
2. $V_{A} = V_{B} > V_{C}$
3. $V_{A} = V_{B} < V_{C}$
4. $V_{A} > V_{B} = V_{C}$

65.

The capacity of parallel plate condenser depends on
1. The type of metal used
2. The thickness of plates
3. The potential applied across the plates
4. The separation between the plates

66.

Eight small drops, each of radius r and having same charge q are combined to form a big drop. The ratio between the potentials of the bigger drop and the smaller drop is
1. 8 : 1
2. 4 : 1
3. 2 : 1
4. 1 : 8

67.

When air in a capacitor is replaced by a medium of dielectric constant K, the capacity:
1. Decreases K times
2. Increases K times
3. Increases K² times
4. Remains constant

68.

In an adjoining figure are shown three capacitors C₁, C₂ and C₃ joined to a battery. The correct condition will be (Symbols have their usual meanings) :

1. Q₁ = Q₂= Q₃ and V₁ = V₂= V₃ = V
2. Q₁ = Q₂+ Q₃and V = V₁ + V₂+ V₃
3. Q₁ = Q₂+ Q₃ and V = V₁+ V₂
4. Q₂= Q₃ and V₂= V₃

69.

Three condensers each of capacitance 2F are put in series. The resultant capacitance is
1. 6F
2. $\frac{3}{2} F$
3. $\frac{2}{3} F$
4. 5F

70.

Four condensers are joined as shown in the adjoining figure. The capacity of each is 8 μF. The equivalent capacity between the points A and B will be

1. 32 μF
2. 2 μF
3. 8 μF
4. 16 μF

71.

Two capacitors $C_1 = 2~\mu\text{F}$ and $C_2 = 6~\mu \text{F}$ in series, are connected in parallel to a third capacitor $C_3= 4~\mu\text{F}$. This arrangement is then connected to a battery of $\text{emf}= 2~\text{V}$, as shown in the figure. How much energy is lost by the battery in charging the capacitors?

1. $22\times 10^{-6}~\text{J}$
2. $11\times 10^{-6}~\text{J}$
3. $\frac{32}{3}\times 10^{-6}~\text{J}$
4. $\frac{16}{3}\times 10^{-6}~\text{J}$

72.

A capacitor of capacity C₁ is charged upto V volt and then connected to an uncharged capacitor of capacity C₂. Then final potential difference across each will be
1. $\frac{C_{2} V}{C_{1} + C_{2}}$
2. $(1 + \frac{C_{2}}{C_{1}}) V$
3. $\frac{C_{1} V}{C_{1} + C_{2}}$
4. $(1 - \frac{C_{2}}{C_{1}}) V$

73.

A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to $C_{1} = C, C_{2} = 2 C, C_{3} = 3 C$ and C₄ = 4 C are connected in a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on C₂ and C₄ is

(1) $\frac{22}{3}$
(2) $\frac{3}{22}$
(3) $\frac{7}{4}$
(4) $\frac{4}{7}$

74.

An isolated sphere of radius $R$ contains a uniform volume distribution of positive charge. Which of the curve on the graph below correctly illustrates the dependence of the magnitude of the electric field of the sphere as a function of the distance $r$ from its centre?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Physics - Section B

75. Two charges $2~\mu\text{C}$ and $8~\mu\text{C}$ are separated by $6~\text{cm}.$ The neutral point is at:

1.	$4~\text{cm}$ from $2~\mu\text{C}.$
2.	$2~\text{cm}$ from $2~\mu\text{C}.$
3.	$2~\text{cm}$ from $8~\mu\text{C}.$
4.	$3~\text{cm}$ from $8~\mu\text{C}.$

76.

A cube of side a has a charge $q$ at each of its vertices. The net electric field intensity at its centre is:
($r$ is the distance between a corner and the centre, and $k=1/4\pi \varepsilon_0$)
1. zero
2. $kq/r^2$
3. $12kq/r^2$
4. $6kq/r^2$

77.

Which of the following is not the property of charge?
1. Like point charges repel each other
2. For an isolated system, the net charge is conserved
3. Specific charge is invariant
4. Charge is quantized

78.

Charge Q is distributed uniformly in a spherical region of radius R. Which if the following roughly represents the variation of the electric field (E) versus distance (r) from the center of the sphere?

1.		2.
3.		4.

79.

Two charges are placed at a certain distance apart in the air. If a glass slab is introduced between them, then the force between the two charges will
1. Become zero
2. Decrease
3. Increase
4. Remain the same

80.

A long thin rod is charged such that charge per unit length of the rod is $λ$ . The rod is inserted into a hollow spherical surface of radius R. Maximum electric flux coming out the surface is
1.   $\frac{λ R}{ε_{0}}$
2.   $\frac{2 λ π R^{2}}{ε_{0}}$
3.   $\frac{2 λ R}{ε_{0}}$
4.   $\frac{2 λ R^{2}}{ε_{0}}$

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1.	\(\mathrm{CH}_3 \stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}}\mathrm{H}_2\)	2.	\(\stackrel{+}{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_3\)
3.		4.

1.	\(4~\text{cm}\) from \(2~\mu\text{C}.\)
2.	\(2~\text{cm}\) from \(2~\mu\text{C}.\)
3.	\(2~\text{cm}\) from \(8~\mu\text{C}.\)
4.	\(3~\text{cm}\) from \(8~\mu\text{C}.\)

1.	\(C_2H_2\)	2.	\(C_2H_4\)
3.	\(C_2H_6\)	4.	\(C_2H_2Br_2\)

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