An innermost oblique muscle layer is present in the wall of:
1. Oesophagus | 2. Stomach |
3. Ascending colon | 4. Rectum |
Lipases can be activated by:
1. Bile
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Enterokinase
4. Bicarbonate secretions of the Brunner’s glands
Vomiting is a reflex controlled by a vomiting center located in:
1. The Broca’s area of the cerebral cortex
2. Hypothalamus
3. Pons Varolii
4. Medulla oblongata
Contraction of the diaphragm:
1. increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis.
2. increases the volume of the thoracic chamber in antero-posterior axis.
3. decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in dorso-ventral axis.
4. decreases the volume of the thoracic chamber in antero-posterior axis.
The maximum amount of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration is called as:
1. Expiratory capacity
2. Expiratory reserve volume
3. Functional residual capacity
4. Vital capacity
Pulmonary fibrosis is a characteristic feature of:
1. Emphysema
2. Bronchial asthma
3. Bacterial pneumonia
4. Occupational respiratory disorders
Platelets, also called thrombocytes, are cell fragments, produced from:
1. Megaloblasts
2. Megakaryocytes
3. Macrocytes
4. Rediculoendothelial cells
The atrium and the ventricle on the same side in the human heart are separated by:
1. a thin muscular wall
2. a thick muscular wall
3. a thin fibrous tissue
4. a thick fibrous tissue
What percentage of the ventricular filling is contributed by the atrial contraction?
1. 30
2. 50
3. 70
4. 100
Angina pectoris is:
1. an intravascular clot
2. a symptom of decreased oxygen supply to the heart muscles
3. shortness of breath due to pulmonary congestion
4. the most common cause of a cardiac arrest
Match the incorrectly matched pair:
Nitrogenous waste/ Excretory organ |
Animal |
|
1. |
Ammonia |
Aquatic insects |
2. |
Uric acid |
Land snails |
3. |
Protonephridia |
Urochordate-Amphioxus |
4. |
Antennal glands |
Prawns |
The proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron in the human kidney is lined with:
1. Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
2. Simple columnar brush bordered epithelium
3. Transitional epithelium
4. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
The amount of carbon dioxide removed by our lungs per day would be approximately:
1. 200 L
2. 288 L
3. 336 L
4. 424 L
The neurotransmitter released by the motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction is:
1. Adrenaline
2. Dopamine
3. Acetylcholine
4. Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Identify the incorrect feature of the red muscle fibers [with respect to the white muscle fibers]:
1. High myoglobin content
2. Plenty of mitochondria
3. High amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. Dependence on aerobic metabolism
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
|
Type of synovial joint |
Example |
1. |
Gliding |
Between carpals and radius |
2. |
Pivot |
Atlanto-axial |
3. |
Saddle |
Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb |
4. |
Hinge |
Knee |
A major coordinating center in the human brain for sensory and motor signaling to and from the cerebrum is:
1. Cerebellum
2. Thalamus
3. Pons Varolii
4. Hypothalamus
A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the:
1. Forebrain
2. Midbrain
3. Hindbrain
4. Spinal cord
Olfactory bulbs are the extension of the human brain’s:
1. Reticular formation
2. Corpora quadrigemina
3. Telencephalon
4. Limbic system
In the human eye, visual acuity is highest at:
1. Fovea centralis
2. Macula lutea
3. Optic disc
4. Tapetum
An oversecretion of growth hormone in human adults can cause:
1. Cushing’s disease
2. Conn’s syndrome
3. Acromegaly
4. Addison’s disease
Exophthalmic goiter is seen in:
1. Iodine deficiency
2. Hashimoto’s disease
3. Myxedema
4. Graves’ disease
The innermost layer of the adrenal cortex is called as:
1. Adrenal medulla
2. Zona glomerulosa
3. Zona fasciculata
4. Zona reticularis
The hormone that acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions is:
1. Gastrin
2. Secretin
3. Cholecystokinin
4. Gastric inhibitory peptide
The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vas differentia through:
1. Tubuli recti
2. Vas deferens
3. Rete testis
4. Epididymis
An antrum is a fluid-filled cavity seen in:
1. Primordial follicle
2. Primary follicle
3. Secondary follicle
4. Tertiary follicle
The pregnancy is established by the implantation on the uterine endometrium of:
1. Zygote
2. Morula
3. Blastocyst
4. Gastrula
The signals for parturition originate from:
1. Fully developed fetus and placenta
2. Maternal pituitary
3. Maternal hypothalamus
4. Umbilical cord
What percent of conceived pregnancies in a year are terminated medically all over the world?
1. | 5 | 2. | 10 |
3. | 20 | 4. | 33 |
A completely curable STI will be all the following except:
1. | Chlamydiosis | 2. | Trichomoniasis |
3. | Syphilis | 4. | Genital herpes |
An ultrasound examination at 18 weeks of pregnancy reveals gross structural deformities in the skull and head of the fetus making it highly likely that the newborn will be suffering from severe mental abnormalities not amenable to treatment and is likely to have a very short life span. Which of the following will be true for such a situation?
1. | The pregnancy cannot be legally terminated as 18 weeks is beyond the statutory limit of legalized abortions. |
2. | The couple should be advised to get the MTP performed illegally by a quack as the child will suffer whatever short life it may have. |
3. | The pregnancy must continue till 24 weeks and if a repeat examination confirms the conditions, MTP should be performed as then it would be legal. |
4. | The MTP should be advised to the couple if two separate registered medical practitioners share the view that sufficient grounds exist to terminate the pregnancy. |
All the following are the reasons for the increase in the population of present-day India except:
1. An increasing birth rate
2. A rapidly declining death rate
3. Decreasing maternal mortality rate
4. Decreasing infant mortality rate
A high success rate of preventing pregnancy by the insertion of IUD as an emergency contraceptive within 72 hours of coitus suggests that:
1. | There is a latency between the release of the ovum and it getting ready for fertilization |
2. | The journey from the point of insemination to the site of fertilization is very long for a very small-sized sperm and takes considerable time. |
3. | IUDs may also make the uterine endometrium hostile to implantation. |
4. | If the secretion of hCG by the trophoblast cells can be stopped, it will lead to spontaneous abortion as happens due to the insertion of IUDs. |
The importance of the colostrum for the neonate [newborn] is due to the fact that:
1. | The colostrums has large amounts of antibodies that can cross the placenta. |
2. | It can provide protection to the neonate against the pathogens to which the mother is immune. |
3. | The high amounts of brown fat in the colostrum enable neonate to achieve adequate thermoregulation. |
4. | The neonate does not have a well-developed adaptive [acquired] immunity. |
When sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida:
1. | The secondary oocyte completes meiosis II |
2. | Steps are taken to prevent polyspermy |
3. | Zona pellucida ruptures and the oocyte is hatched that can be fertilized |
4. | The sperm loses its tail and body |
A decrease in the secretion of FSH in males would:
1. | affect the formation of differentiated sperms. |
2. | have no effect as males do not have any follicle for FSH to act upon. |
3. | lead to the lack of development of secondary sexual characters post-puberty. |
4. | cause impotence and hence sterility. |
Inadvertently, during a surgical procedure, the ducts of the seminal vesicles in a male were cut and ligated. The semen ejaculated by this male would be:
1. | Devoid of sperms | 2. | Acidic in nature |
3. | Highly reduced in volume | 4. | Lacking any mucus |
Which of the following hormones does not act through a second messenger?
1. Adrenocorticotropin
2. Insulin
3. Thyrocalcitonin
4. Triiodothyronine
Glucagon is antagonistic to insulin in the regulation of blood glucose levels. It means it does not:
1. promote glycogenolysis
2. stimulate gluconeogenesis
3. retard the uptake of glucose by body cells
4. promote utilization of glucose by body cells for ATP formation
Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal tubules [DCT, in particular] and does not stimulate:
1. Reabsorption of sodium ions
2. Reabsorption of phosphate ions
3. Excretion of potassium ions
4. Reabsorption of water
The MRI of a person shows damage to the basal part of the diencephalon. The most adversely affected function of the body is expected to be:
1. Ability to launch a fight or flight response
2. Ability to speak and comprehend language
3. Regulation of basal metabolic rate and reproductive functions
4. Glucose homeostasis
The hearing will be most affected by:
1. Rupture of the tympanic membrane
2. Stiffness of the joints between ear ossicles
3. Blockage of the Eustachian tube
4. A damage to the organ of Corti
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the human eye:
1. The diameter of the pupil is regulated by the muscle fibers of the iris
2. Scotopic vision is the function of rods
3. When all cones are stimulated equally, a person would see the white color
4. Light induces an association of opsin and retinal forming visual purple
If the rise in stimulus-induced permeability of Na+ is not extremely short-lived as it is:
1. the refractory period of the axon will increase
2. action potential of smaller amplitude will be produced
3. repolarization would be caused by efflux of potassium
4. the sodium-potassium pump will fail to induce depolarization in an axon
Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. | Pubic symphysis | Hyaline cartilage |
2. | Floating ribs | No attachment ventrally |
3. | Spine of scapula | Acromion |
4. | Atlas | Articulates with occipital condyles |
Which of the following is not a bone of human facial skeleton?
1. Lacrimal
2. Ethmoid
3. Zygomatic
4. Nasal
To form a cross-bridge between the myosin head and the active sites on the actin filament, all the following must happen except:
1. ATP hydrolysis
2. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
3. Generation of the action potential in the sarcolemma
4. End of the action of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase
Microfilaments are involved in:
1. contraction of actin myofilaments
2. movement of leucocytes
3. transport of substances from the cell body to axon
4. ciliary movements
Vasoconstriction can be brought about by:
I. ADH
II. Angiotensin
III. ANF
1. Only II
2. Only I and II
3. Only I
4. I, II, and III
Failure of a thick segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle will adversely affect:
1. Ability of the nephron to secrete toxins into the urine
2. Dilution of the urine if needed
3. Conservation of water in case of dehydration
4. The acid-base balance in the blood
During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete all the following into the filtrate except:
1.
2. Ammonia
3.
4.
The correct statements amongst the following are:
I. The primary function of protonephridia is osmoregulation
II. Malpighian tubules are not involved in osmoregulation
III. Antennal glands are excretory organs in prawns and are not involved in osmoregulation
IV. Nephridia are excretory structures in roundworms and help in osmoregulation
1. Only I
2. Only I and III
3. Only I and IV
4. Only II, III, and IV
Sinoatrial arrest wherein the sinoatrial node of the heart transiently ceases to generate the electrical impulses will most likely lead to:
1. Recording a large P wave on the ECG
2. Impulse generation by some other part of the nodal tissue
3. Myocardial infarction
4. Cardiac arrest
The correct statements amongst the following are:
I: | Cardiac output is volume of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute |
II: | All the four chambers of human heart are never in diastole together |
III: | The first heart sound is associated with opening of atrioventricular valves |
IV: | The pressure in pulmonary artery is equal to the pressure in aorta |
1. | Only I | 2. | Only I and IV |
3. | Only I and III | 4. | Only I, II and IV |
The Rh incompatibility between pregnant women and fetus should not be a concern if:
I. The mother is Rh –ve and the fetus is Rh +ve and it is the first pregnancy
II. The Rh –ve mother has received anti-Rh immunoglobulin during the second pregnancy even if she was not immunized at the time of her first delivery
III. The mother is Rh +ve and the fetus is Rh –Ve and it is the second pregnancy
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III
Thrombokinase:
1. activates thrombin, already present in plasma, into its active form
2. converts fibrinogen into fibrin
3. is formed by a cascade involving a number of factors present in plasma
4. is released at the site of injury by activated thrombocytes
The binding of Hb to oxygen is primarily related to
1. Partial pressure of oxygen
2. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
3. Hydrogen ion concentration
4. Temperature
Which of the following values is not equal? [Page 272]
1. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in deoxygenated blood and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in tissues
2. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in oxygenated blood and partial pressure of oxygen in tissues
3. Partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli
4. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli and partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood pumped by left ventricle
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Kwashiokor?
1. Caused by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency
2. Generally affects child less than one year of age
3. Some subcutaneous fat is left under the skin
4. Extensive swelling of body parts
Non-function of parietal or oxyntic cells of the gastric mucosa can cause:
1. Pernicious anemia
2. Gastric ulcer
3. Abnormal peristalsis
4. Complete non-digestion of proteins
Both cholecystokinin and secretin:
I. are secreted by duodenal mucosa
II. stimulate pancreas
III. act on the gall bladder
IV. is enterogastrone
1. Only I, II, and III are correct
2. Only I, II, and IV are correct
3. Only II, III, and IV are correct
4. I, II, III, and IV are all correct
Antibiotics can be used to treat many cases of:
1. Peptic ulcer disease
2. Jaundice
3. Dyspepsia
4. Constipation
Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and from the lumen passes first to epithelial cell and then to the blood. What would be true regarding absorption of glucose?
1. It enters from the epithelial cell to the blood vessel against its concentration gradient
2. The movement of glucose from the lumen into the epithelial cell requires a facilitated transport protein
3. The movement of glucose from the lumen into the epithelial cell requires an active transport protein and an energy source
4. The movement of glucose from the epithelial cell into the blood vessel requires an active transport protein and an energy source
A patient of emphysema is unlikely to have:
1. An increase in carbon dioxide levels in blood
2. A decrease in oxygen levels in the blood
3. An increase in RBC count
4. A decrease in breathing rate
Hypercapnia [an abnormal increase of carbon dioxide in blood] results in an increased ventilation rate. The correct interpretation of this observation would be:
1. Increased ventilation rate will increase the amount of oxygen entering the lungs.
2. The decrease in blood pH stimulates breathing to in order to expel excess carbon dioxide.
3. Carotid and aortic bodies stimulate the breathing to attain more oxygen.
4. An increase in blood carbon dioxide leads to increased erythropoietin to attain more oxygen.
Erythrocytes lack mitochondria. What can be the biggest advantage of this unusual feature?
1. This leaves more space for carrying oxygen
2. This makes oxygen transport by them more efficient
3. It prevents oxidative damage to their membranes
4. This allows them to transport some carbon dioxide as well
Which of the following is/are adaptations in a physically trained person in comparison to an untrained person?
I. The heart rate reaches a higher level during exercise
II. The stroke volume is greater
III. The activity of the vagus nerve is higher
IV. Left ventricular stroke volume is smaller
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. II, III, and IV only
4. I, II, III, and IV
Hypertensives are advised not to consume large amounts of salt [NaCl]. Because if they do:
1. | Blood osmolarity increases and ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water. |
2. | Blood osmolarity decreases and ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water. |
3. | Blood osmolarity decreases and ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb less water. |
4. | Blood osmolarity increases and ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb less water. |
A drug furosemide is commonly used in treatment of hypertension. It acts on the thick segment of the ascending limb of loop of Henle and inhibits the membrane proteins that actively pump and ions across the cell membranes in this region. What would be the effect of this drug?
1. Reduced retention of and in the urine and an increase in total blood volume.
2. Reduced retention of and in the urine and a decrease in total blood volume.
3. Higher retention of and in the urine and an increase in total blood volume.
4. Higher retention of and in the urine and a decrease in total blood volume.
What is correct about osmoregulation in marine fishes?
1. The kidneys excrete concentrated urine; excess sodium and chloride ions are actively transported out of the body through the gills.
2. The kidneys excrete concentrated urine; excess sodium and chloride ions diffuse out of the body through the gills.
3. The kidneys excrete dilute urine; excess sodium and chloride ions diffuse out of the body through the gills.
4. The kidneys excrete dilute urine; excess sodium and chloride ions are actively transported out of the body through the gills.
Marathon runners have less bulk of muscle and run slower than a sprinter who generally has a large bulk of muscle and runs much faster. The difference can be explained by:
1. Long-distance runners run more slowly because lactic acid quickly builds up in their muscles and causes fatigue. Sprinters do not run long enough for lactic acid to build up in their muscles.
2. The large muscles of the sprinters increase the oxygen supply to each muscle preventing the lactic acid from forming.
3. Long-distance runners burn more energy than sprinters, which makes it difficult for them to gain weight.
4. Sprinters do not run long enough for lactic acid to build up in their muscles, therefore can have large muscles for more power. Long-distance runners run more slowly and ensure their muscles receive enough oxygen for aerobic respiration.
Analysis of the properties of a toxin present in a pesticide reveals that it mimics hormone and:
I. It binds to a receptor within the cells
II. It inhibits the release of the luteinizing hormone
What is most likely to be true about this hormone?
1. It is a polypeptide; it can cause sterility
2. It is actually a second messenger; it would cause increased estrogen levels
3. It is lipid-soluble; it could cause impaired ovulation
4. It is a steroid; it can cause increased cortisol levels
The procedure shown is:
1. | GIFT | 2. | ZIFT |
3. | ICSI | 4. | AIH |
What is true regarding the part labeled A in the given diagram?
1. It is called the infundibulum or pituitary stalk.
2. It transports ADH and oxytocin hormones.
3. If it is cut the secretion of prolactin may be increased
4. It is an artery that connects two capillary beds.
The type of control mechanism shown in the given figure is
1. rare in the human body
2. leads to stability in the body.
3. an example of positive feedback
4. not used in the regulation of blood sugar
In the schematic diagram of calcium regulation, A, B, and C respectively can be
1. ↑ calcium absorption;↑phosphate excretion; ↑ Bone resorption
2. ↓ calcium absorption; ↑ calcium absorption; ↓Bone resorption
3. ↑ calcium absorption;↓ calcium absorption; ↑ Bone resorption
4. ↑ calcium absorption;↑phosphate absorption; ↓Bone resorption
Identify the correct statements regarding the diagram
I. Threshold of excitation is shown by 1
II. All Na+ channels close at 2
III. Hyperpolarization is shown by 3
1. I & II only
2. I & III only
3. II & III only
4. I, II, and III
The part labeled ‘X’ in the given diagram
1. Is the olfactory receptor
2. Regenerates supporting cell
3. Secretes mucus
4. Is the bipolar neuron
The diagram represents the tertiary follicle. Identify the correct matched-pair :
1. | Secondary oocyte arrested at Meiosis I | ||
2. | Zona pellucida mode of glycoprotein | ||
3. | Trophoblast cells | 4. | Theca internal |
5. | Ovarian cortex | 6. | Antrum |
7. | Cumulus oophorus | 8. | Corona Radiata |
1. | 1,2,4,6,7 | 3. | 2,3,5,7,8 |
2. | 2,4,6,7 | 4. | 1,2,3,4,6,7 |
In the diagram A, B, C, D, and E respectively are :
1. | Mammary lobe, Mammary alveolus, mammary duct, ampulla, Lactiferous |
2. | Mammary alveolus, Mammary lobe, ampulla, mammary duct, Lactiferous |
3. | Mammary duct, ampulla, Lactiferous, Mammary lobe, Mammary alveolus |
4. | Ampulla, Lactiferous, Mammary lobe, Mammary alveolus, mammary duct |
How many of the following statements are correct?
I. Cyanosis is the blue color of skin caused by the presence of oxyhemoglobin.
II. A large reticulocyte count in the blood could indicate that there is a slow production of erythrocytes from the bone marrow.
III. A deficiency of the oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood will cause the production of more red blood cells.
IV. A drop in osmotic pressure of blood with resulting edema can be caused by a poor diet or liver disease.
V. Serum is the liquid portion of the blood that cannot clot.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
How many of the following statements are correct?
I. There is a higher concentration of K+ outside of a resting neuron than Na+.
II. Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine and serotonin are classed as monoamine neurotransmitters.
III. Neurotransmitters are usually released into the synaptic vesicles during depolarization.
IV. An effector is usually a muscle or motor nerve.
V. Somatic afferent fibers would carry sensory impulses away from the brain, towards areas such as the eye.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
How many of the following statements are correct?
I: | For most women who decide to breastfeed, it will be easier to become pregnant during the first month after delivery than it will be one year later. |
II: | Oral contraceptives usually contain doses of synthetic estrogen and progesterone and act by inhibiting FSH and LH. |
III: | A vasectomy is the male equivalent of tubal ligation regarding the efficacy of contraception. |
IV: | Semen contains chemicals that cause female smooth muscle to contract. |
V: | Ciliated epithelium and peristaltic waves help move the oocyte through the Fallopian tubes. |
1. | 1 | 2. | 2 |
3. | 3 | 4. | 4 |
How many of the following statements are correct?
I. Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone released from the heart in response to low blood pressure.
II. The chordate tendineae are fibrous strings that attach the papillary muscles to the semilunar valves.
III. The tricuspid valve prevents a backflow of blood into the right atrium.
IV. Pulmonary edema [lung congestion] may be caused by damage to the heart that has weakened the left ventricle.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
How many of the following statements are correct?
I. An increase in the level of blood urea usually indicates renal or liver dysfunction.
II. High blood pressure is inversely proportional to the rate of urine formation.
III. During trauma with significant loss of blood, the release of renin will be inhibited.
IV. The appearance of glycosuria indicates that the renal plasma threshold has been exceeded.
V. An increase in ADH production will tend to make the blood more hypertonic.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Consider the given two statements:
I. Aldosterone and ADH tend to have the same effect on blood concentration.
II. ADH tends to cause blood to be hypotonic while aldosterone conserves salt and keep the blood isotonic or makes it hypertonic.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
Consider the given two statements:
I. Hormones exert their effects by causing organs to perform functions they could not otherwise perform.
II. Hormones are chemical messengers.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
Consider the given two statements:
I. Action potentials produced by a given axon is always of the same size.
II. Action potentials are ‘all or none’ phenomena.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
Consider the given two statements:
I. A low level of blood calcium could be the cause that increases the activity of the osteoclasts.
II. A low blood calcium level will trigger the release of parathyroid hormone.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct
Consider the given two statements:
I. The tropomyosin-troponin complexes block the active sites on the actin preventing the contraction.
II. Troponin is a protein that acts to block the contraction of a sarcomere.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct