FORTIUS - PYQ based Unit Test # 4

Botany - Section A

1.

Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

1.	Green sulphur bacteria	2.	Nostoc
3.	Cycas	4.	Chara

2. The reaction centre in PS II has an absorption maxima at:

1.	780 nm	2.	680 nm
3.	700 nm	4.	660 nm

3.

Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly - cut coleoptile stumps. What is the significance of this experiment?

1.	It made possible the isolation and exact identification of cytokinins.
2.	It is the basis for the quantitative determination of small amounts of growth-promoting substances.
3.	It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin.
4.	It demonstrates polar movements of auxins.

4.

All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:

1.	lactate dehydrogenase	2.	isocitrate dehydrogenase
3.	malate dehydrogenase	4.	succinate dehydrogenase

5.

Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is:

1.	0.09	2.	0.9
3.	0.7	4.	0.007

6.

Photosynthesis in C₄ plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric $C O_{2}$ levels because

1.	The primary fixation of CO₂ is mediated via PEP carboxylase
2.	Effective pumping of CO₂ into bundle sheath cells
3.	Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products
4.	RuBisCO in C₄ plants has a higher affinity for CO₂

7.

Which one is the correct sequence occurring in glycolysis?
1. G-6-P →PEP →3-PGAL →3-PGA
2. G-6-P →3-PGAL → 3-PGA →PEP
3. G-6-P →PEP →3-PGA →3-PGAL
4. G-6-P →3-PGA →3-PGAL →PEP

8.

How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?

1.	It includes the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
2.	It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
3.	The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
4.	It releases wound hormones

9.

Oxidative phosphorylation is

1.	formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP
2.	oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
3.	addition of phosphate group to ATP
4.	formation of ATP by energy release from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

10.

Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants:

1.	Red and green	2.	Green and red
3.	Red and violet	4.	Violet and blue-green

11.

The maximum growth rate occurs in:-

1.	Senescent phase	2.	Lag phase
3.	Exponential phase	4.	Stationary phase

12.

The living differentiated cells, that lost the capacity to divide anymore, can regain the capacity of division under certain conditions. This phenomenon is termed as:

1.	Redifferentiation	2.	Maturation
3.	Differentiation	4.	Dedifferentiation

13.

Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins ?

1.	Ethylene	2.	ABA
3.	IAA	4.	Zeatin

14. Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	Phase of cell elongation of plant cells is characterized by increased vacuolation.
2.	Cells in the meristematic phase of growth exhibit abundant plasmodesmatal connections
3.	Plant growth is generally determinate
4.	Plant growth is measurable

15.

The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:

1.	2, 4-D	2.	IBA
3.	IAA	4.	NAA

16. Which hormone promotes internode / petiole elongation in deep water rice?

1.	2, 4-D	2.	GA₃
3.	Kinetin	4.	Ethylene

17.

You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
1. IAA and gibberellin
2. Auxin and cytokinin
3. Auxin and abscisic acid
4. Gibberellin and abscisic acid

18.

Identify the cytochrome which acts as a mobile carrier for the transfer of electrons between complex III and IV?

1.	Cytochrome a	2.	Cytochrome a₃
3.	Cytochrome b c₁	4.	Cytochrome c

19.

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:

1.	Cyt b₆f complex to PS-I
2.	PS-I to NADP⁺
3.	PS-I to ATP synthase
4.	PS-II to Cytb₆f complex

20.

Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed

1.	catabolic	2.	parabolic
3.	amphibolic	4.	anabolic

21.

How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO₂ and H₂O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical energy available in the high energy phosphate bond of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal?

1.	Two	2.	Thirty
3.	One	4.	Fifty seven

22.

The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called

1.	glycolysis	2.	fermentation
3.	aerobic respiration	4.	photorespiration

23. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	The primary $CO_2$ acceptor in $C_4$ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II:	Mesophyll cells in $C_4$ plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

24.

“Foolish seedling" disease of rice led to the discovery of:

1.	GA	2.	ABA
3.	2,4-D	4.	IAA

25.

After glycolysis, the fate of glucose in the mitochondrial matrix is
1. oxidation
2. reduction
3. oxidative decarboxylation
4. hydrolysis

26. How many times decarboxylation occurs during each TCA cycle?

1.	Thrice	2.	Many
3.	Once	4.	Twice

27. "Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
1. osmosis is observed
2. water is transported
3. food is transported
4. for both water and food transportation

28.

In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

1.	thick walls, many intercellular spaces and few chloroplasts
2.	thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no chloroplasts
3.	thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large number of chloroplasts
4.	thin walls, no intercellular spaces and several chloroplasts

29. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about 13 percent.
Reason (R):	Alcoholic beverages of alcohol content greater than 13 percent are obtained through distillation, not natural fermentation.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

30. Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis:

a.	Splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane.
b.	Protons accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.
c.	Primary acceptor of electron transfers the electrons to an electron carrier.
d.	NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
e.	Protons increase in number in stroma.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (b) and (e)	2.	(a), (b) and (d)
3.	(b), (c) and (d)	4.	(b), (c) and (e)

31.

The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:

1.	cytochrome	2.	iron-sulphur protein
3.	ferredoxin	4.	quinone

32. Study the pathway given below. In which of the following options, correct words for all the three blanks a, b and c are indicated?

	(a)	(b)	(c)
1.	Carboxylation	Decarboxylation	Reduction
2.	Decarboxylation	Reduction	Regeneration
3.	Fixation	Transamination	Regeneration
4.	Fixation	Decarboxylation	Regeneration

33.

Which of the following statement regarding mitochondrial membrane is not correct?

1.	Outer membrane resembles a sieve
2.	Outer membrane is permeable to all kinds of molecules
3.	Enzymes of electron transport chain are embedded in outer membrane
4.	Inner membrane is highly convoluted, forming a series of infoldings

34.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	ATP is synthesized through complex V.
2.	Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.
3.	During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
4.	In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH+H⁺ gives rise to 2ATP molecules, and one FADH₂ gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.

35. When one CO₂ molecule is fixed as one molecule of triose phosphate, which of the following photochemically made, high energy chemical intermediates are used in the reduction phase?

1.	1 ATP + 1 NADPH	2.	1 ATP + 2 NADPH
3.	2 ATP + 1 NADPH	4.	2 ATP + 2 NADPH

Botany - Section B

36.

For assimilation of one CO₂ molecule in C₃ plants, the energy required in form of ATP and NADPH₂is

1.	2 ATP & 2 NADPH₂	2.	5 ATP & 3 NADPH₂
3.	3 ATP & 2 NADPH₂	4.	18 ATP & 12 NADPH₂

37.

Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in plants?

1.	Cytokinin	2.	ABA
3.	Gibberellin	4.	Ethylene

38. The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and also played a major role in its discovery is:

1.	Phototropism	2.	Root initiation
3.	Gravitropism	4.	Apical Dominance

39.

In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the :

1.	Matrix	2.	Outer membrane
3.	Inner membrane	4.	Intermembrane space

40.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1.	Grana lamellae have both PSI and PS II.
2.	Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.
3.	Both ATP and NADPH+H⁺ are synthesised during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
4.	Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.

41. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Chlorophyll a	(I)	Yellow to yellow orange
(B)	Chlorophyll b	(II)	Yellow green
(C)	Xanthophyll	(III)	Blue green
(D)	Carotenoids	(IV)	Yellow

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	III	II	IV	I
2.	III	I	IV	II
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	IV	III	II	I

42.

Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of

1.	cytokinins	2.	ethylene
3.	auxins	4.	gibberellic acid

43.

In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO₂ acceptor is -

1.	Oxaloacetic acid	2.	Phosphoglyceric acid
3.	Phosphoenol pyruvate	4.	RuBisCO

44. The number of time(s) decarboxylation of isocitrate occurs during single TCA cycle is :

1.	One	2.	Two
3.	Three	4.	Four

45. The Krebs cycle is best described as:
1. Catabolic
2. Anabolic
3. Holometabolic
4. Amphibolic

46. Which plant hormone, often referred to as the stress hormone, is involved in the closure of stomata and induction of seed dormancy?
1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Abscisic acid
4. Cytokinin

47.

In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by -
1. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
2. NAD⁺
3. Molecular oxygen
4. ATP

48.

In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop, which of the following plant growth regulators should be sprayed ?

1.	Ethylene	2.	Auxins
3.	Gibberellins	4.	Cytokinins

49.

The three boxes in this diagram represents the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.
308753
Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be:

1.	ATP	2.	A₂O
3.	FAD⁺ or FADH₂	4.	NADH

50.

The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed because

1.	there is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
2.	high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
3.	ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space
4.	a proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

Zoology - Section A

51.

Fight or flight reactions cause activation of

1.	the parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
2.	the kidney, leading to suppression of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
3.	the adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
4.	the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels

52.

Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

1.	there is a negative pressure in the lungs
2.	there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
3.	there is a positive intrapleural pressure
4.	pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

53.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1.	Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa.
2.	Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous system regulates endocrine glands.
3.	Neither hormones control neural activity nor do the neurons control endocrine activity.
4.	Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa.

54.

Which one of the following items gives its correct total number?
1. Floating ribs in humans - 4
2. Amino acids found in proteins - 16
3. Types of diabetes - 3
4. Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8

55.

Consider the following four statements (A-D) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo rat:

A.	they have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine.
B.	they do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs.
C.	they feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water.
D.	they excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature.

Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?

1.	C and D	2.	B and C
3.	C and A	4.	A and B

56.

Given diagram shows bone of the left human hind limb as seen from front. It has certain mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly labelled bones are

1.	tibia and tarsals	2.	femur and fibula
3.	fibula and phalanges	4.	tarsals and femur

57.

Which one of the following hormones though synthesized elsewhere, is stored and released by the master gland?
1. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
2. Antidiuretic hormone
3. Luteinizing hormone
4. Prolactin

58.

Given ahead is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C.

Gland	Secretion	Effect on Body
A	Oestrogen	Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans	B	Raises blood sugar level
Anterior pituitary	C	Oversecretion leads to gigantism

Options:	A	B	C
1.	Placenta	Insulin	Vasopressin
2.	Ovary	Insulin	Calcium
3.	Placenta	Glucagon	Calcitonin
4.	Ovary	Glucagon	Growth hormone

59. Match List - I with List - II

	List-I		List-II
(A)	Eosinophils	(I)	6-8%
(B)	Lymphocytes	(II)	2-3%
(C)	Neutrophils	(III)	20-25%
(D)	Monocytes	(IV)	60-65%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	IV	I	II	III
2.	IV	I	III	II
3.	II	III	IV	I
4.	II	III	I	IV

60.

Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

1.	Hypothalamus - Production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
2.	Limbic system - Consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
3.	Medulla oblongata - Controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
4.	Corpus callosum - Band of fibres connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

61.

Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
1. hot and humid environment
2. eating fruits preserved in tin containers
3. inhalation of seasonal pollen
4. low temperature

62. A sagittal section of human brain is shown here. Identify at least two labels from A-D :

1. C-Mid brain D-Cerebellum
2. A-Cerebrum C-Pons
3. B-Corpus callosum D-Medulla
4. A-Cerebral hemispheres B-Cerebellum

63.

Low Ca²⁺ in the body fluid may be the cause of

1.	tetany	2.	anaemia
3.	angina pectoris	4.	gout

64. Given below are two statements:

Statement I:	Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption
Statement II:	Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

65.

Human urine is usually acidic because

1.	hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate.
2.	the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular capillaries.
3.	excreted plasma proteins are acidic.
4.	Potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity.

66.

Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

Select the correct option from the following:

1.	A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone receptor Complex; C = Protein
2.	A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP
3.	A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second Messenger
4.	A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor Complex

67.

An acromion process is characteristically found in the
1. Skull of frog
2. Sperm of mammals
3. Pelvic girdle of mammals
4. Pectoral girdle of mammals

68.

Which of the following is true for the labelled parts in the figure below?

1.	A - Z-line - located at centre of I - band
2.	B - Thin filament - occurs in A-band only
3.	C - Thick filament - confined to I-band
4.	D - H-zone - located at centre of M-line

69.

Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and / or functions.

1.	B-pelvis - broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.
2.	C- Medulla- inner zone of kidney and contains complex nephrons.
3.	D- Cortex- outer part of kidney and does not contain any part of nephrons.
4.	A- Adrenal gland- located at the anterior part of kidney; secretes catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown.

70.

The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesized
1. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
2. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
3. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
4. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys

71.

Select the correct statement:

1.	Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.
2.	Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
3.	Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
4.	Expiration is initiated due to the contraction of the diaphragm.

72.

Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

1.	Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction only
2.	Complex QRS- One complete pulse
3.	Peak T- Initiation of total cardiac contraction
4.	Peak P and Peak R together- systolic and diastolic blood pressures

73.

Bundle of His is a network of: -
1. Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
2. Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
3. Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
4. Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

74.

There is no DNA in:

1.	an enucleated ovum	2.	mature RBCs
3.	a mature spermatozoan	4.	hair root

75.

During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur?
(i) H-zone disappears
(ii) A band widens
(iii) I band reduces in width
(iv) Width of A band is unaffected
(v) M line and Z line come closer

1.	(i), (iii), (iv) and (v)	2.	(i), (ii) and (v)
3.	(ii), (iv) and (v)	4.	(i), (ii) and (iii)

76.

Conversion of ammonia to urea is done by ……..... Cycle :
1. Ornithine cycle
2. Arginine cycle
3. Fumaric cycle
4. Citrulline cycle

77.

The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80%) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
1. Proximal convoluted tubule
2. Descending limb of loop of Henle
3. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
4. Distal convoluted tubule

78.

Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete are 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
1. 2700 mL
2. 1500 mL
3. 1700 mL
4. 2200 mL

79.

Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has:

1.	both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
2.	both A and B antibodies in the plasma
3.	no antigen on RBC and no antigens in the plasma
4.	both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

80.

Match the items given in Column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below:

	Column I		Column II
a.	Fibrinogen	i.	Osmotic balance
b.	Globulin	ii.	Blood clotting
c.	Albumin	iii.	Defence mechanism

	a	b	c
1.	iii	ii	i
2.	i	ii	iii
3.	i	iii	ii
4.	ii	iii	i

81.

Depolarization of axolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of:

1.	Equal amount of Na⁺ & K⁺ moves out across axolemma
2.	Na⁺ ions move inside
3.	More Na⁺ ions are outside
4.	None of the above

82.

Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

1.	B-Pulmonary artery- takes blood from heart to lungs, PO₂ = 90mm Hg
2.	C-Vena Cava- takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO₂ = 45mm Hg
3.	D-Dorsal aorta- takes blood from heart to body parts, PO₂ = 95mm Hg
4.	A- Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood from body parts, PO₂ = 60mm Hg

83.

Select the correct statement.
1. Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
2. Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
3. Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
4. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

84.

Arteries are best defined as the vessels which

1.	carry blood away from the heart to different organs
2.	break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
3.	carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
4.	supply oxygenated blood to the different organs

85.

The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is:

1.	Cerebellum	2.	Hypothalamus
3.	Spinal	4.	Corpus callosum

Zoology - Section B

86.

Exchange of bicarbonates and chloride ions between RBC and plasma is called:

1.	Chloride shift	2.	Bohr's effect
3.	Haldane's effect	4.	Intra cellular respiration

87.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is:
1. equal to that in the blood
2. more than that in the blood
3. less than that in the blood
4. less than that of carbon dioxide

88.

Which of the following is associated with a decrease in cardiac output?
1. Sympathetic nerves
2. Parasympathetic neural signals
3. Pneumotaxic center
4. Adrenal medullary hormones

89.

Nissl bodies are mainly composed of:
1. Proteins and lipids
2. DNA and RNA
3. Nucleic acids and SER
4. Free ribosomes and RER

90. Select the option which correctly matches the endocrine gland with its hormone and its function:

	Endocrine gland	Hormone	Functions
1.	Placenta	estrogen	initiates secretion of the milk
2.	Corpus luteum	estrogen	essential for maintenance of endometerium
3.	Leydig cells	androgen	initiates the production of sperms
4.	Ovary	FSH	stimulates follicular development and the secretion of estrogens

91. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
Reason (R):	Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

92.

Match the items given in Column I with those Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I		Column II
(Function)		(Part of the Excretory system)
(a)	Ultrafiltration	(i)	Henle's loop
(b)	Concentration of urine	(ii)	Ureter
(c)	Transport of urine	(iii)	Urinary bladder
(d)	Storage of urine	(iv)	Malpighian corpuscle
		(v)	Proximal convoluted tubule

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(v)	(ii)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(v)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(v)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)

93.

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?

1.	100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure
2.	105/50 mm Hg makes one very active
3.	190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
4.	130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment

94.

Select the correct statement :

1.	Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases blood pressure.
2.	Angiotensin II is a powerful vasodilator.
3.	Counter current pattern of blood flow is not observed in the vasa recta.
4.	Reduction in Glomerular Filtration Rate activates JG cells to release renin.

95.

In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to:
1. pushing open of the venous valves
2. suction pull
3. stimulation of the sino auricular node
4. pressure difference between the caval and atrium

96.

The type of muscles present in our:

1.	upper arms are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
2.	heart is involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
3.	intestine are striated and involuntary
4.	thighs are striated and voluntary

97.

The increase in osmolarity from outer to inner medullary interstitium is maintained due to:

(i)	Close proximity between Henle's loop and vasa recta
(ii)	Counter current mechanism
(iii)	Selective secretion of HCO^3– and hydrogen ions in PCT
(iv)	Higher blood pressure in glomerular capillaries

1.	Only (ii)	2.	(iii) and (iv)
3.	(i), (ii) and (iii)	4.	(i) and (ii)

98.

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

	Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Pituitary hormone	(i)	Steroid
(b)	Epinephrine	(ii)	Neuropeptides
(c)	Endorphins	(iii)	Peptides, proteins
(d)	Cortisol	(iv)	Biogenic amines

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
2.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

99.

During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

1.	First positive, then negative and again back to positive.
2.	First negative, then positive and again back to negative.
3.	First positive, then negative and continue to be negative.
4.	First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.

100.

When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
1. Falling O₂ concentration
2. Rising CO₂ concentration
3. Falling CO₂ concentration
4. Rising CO₂ and falling O₂ concentration

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Statement I:	The primary \(CO_2\) acceptor in \(C_4\) plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II:	Mesophyll cells in \(C_4\) plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.

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