ALTIUS - Unit Test # 4

Botany - Section A

1.

If the threat of extinction is high, the preferred strategy for the conservation of this threatened species would be:

1.	In-situ conservation	2.	Ex-situ conservation
3.	Either of the two	4.	Neither of the two

2.

Assertion (A):	Ex-situ conservation is advisable if the organism is facing a high threat of extinction.
Reason (R):	Ex-situ conservation is an on-site conservation where we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

3. Intangible benefits like aesthetic pleasures of walking through thick woods is a strong argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. This type of argument is called as:
1. Narrowly utilitarian
2. Ethical
3. Broadly utilitarian
4. Sustainable

4.

Assertion (A):	It makes sense to make concentrated efforts to conserve hotspots of biodiversity.
Reason (R):	They cover majority of the area of the planet earth.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

5. All the following are hotspots of biodiversity covering India except:
1. Eastern Ghats and Bangladesh
2. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
3. Indo-Burma
4. Himalaya

6. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Connell	Competitive release
2.	Gauss	Competitive exclusion principle
3.	MacArthur	Resource partitioning
4.	Tillman	Rivet popper hypothesis

7.

Which of the following forests is known as the ‘lungs of the planet Earth’?
1. Taiga forest
2. Tundra forest
3. Amazon rainforests
4. Rainforests of North East India

8. GEAC stands for:

1.	Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
2.	Green Environment Action Committee
3.	Genetic Engineering Appraisal Council
4.	Genetic Ethics Approval Committee

9.

Antisense technology:

1.	selectively blocks the expression of a gene.
2.	combines genetic material from different species.
3.	combines organelles and cells.
4.	alters or transfers cells.

10. Which of the following is probably the most economically important plant-parasitic nematode species among the tropical and subtropical regions?
1. Meloidogyne incognita
2. Coenorhabditis elegans
3. Heterodera glycines
4. Arthrobotrys dactyloides

11. The discipline of biotechnology was founded on the breakthrough work of:

1.	Bolivar and Rodriquez	2.	Cohen and Boyer
3.	Nathans and Daniels	4.	Redi and Spallanzani

12.

The steps included in a cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction are:

1.	initiation, elongation, and termination
2.	transfection, transformation, and transduction
3.	denaturation, annealing, and extension
4.	restriction, electrophoresis, and elution

13.

Bioprocessing engineering deals with:

1.	the search for plant and animal species from which medicinal drugs and other commercially valuable compounds can be obtained.
2.	developing methods and software tools for understanding biological data.
3.	production of active pharmaceutical substances in genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
4.	maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes.

14.

Assertion (A):	Traditional hybridization for crop improvement very often leads to inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desirable gene
Reason (R):	Genetic engineering allows isolation and introduction one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

15.

Restriction enzymes do not act on the DNA of the Host cell in which they are produced because:

1.	Host DNA is packed into chromosomes
2.	Restriction enzymes are ineffective on host DNA
3.	Host DNA does not have the restriction site for the Restriction enzymes
4.	Restriction site of host DNA is methylated

16.

Restriction endonucleases present in bacterial cells provide an advantage to the cell because these enzymes:

1.	can identify the mutated sequences on the chromosomal DNA and help in their repair
2.	selectively bind to particular nucleotide sequences that may appear in viral DNA preventing its replication in the cell
3.	can cut the plasmid DNA of the bacterial cell that allows them to recombine foreign DNA into their plasmid DNA
4.	help the bacterium take up foreign DNA from their environment and combine it into their genome

17.

A gene of interest is inserted into Lac z gene in a plasmid. The plasmid also carries the gene for ampicillin resistance. Recombinant transformants can be identified as:
1. A clone that did not grow on the ampicillin plates
2. A white colony on the ampicillin plates
3. A blue colony on the ampicillin plates
4. A red colony on the ampicillin plates

18. Consider the two statements:

I:	Agar Gel electrophoresis is useful in analysis of DNA.
II:	DNA is generally positively charged due to its nitrogenous bases so an electrical field forces it to move toward a negative pole.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

19.

A limitation associated with traditional hybridization procedures used in plant and animal breeding overcome by genetic engineering is:

1.	Traditional hybridization is difficult to practice
2.	Traditional hybridization is labor and cost-intensive
3.	Traditional hybridization may lead to the inclusion and multiplication of non-desirable genes
4.	The progeny generated by traditional hybridization have lower reproductive potential

20.

DNA can be visualized through UV rays if it is stained with:

1.	Ethidium bromide	2.	Polyethylene glycol
3.	Tritiated thymidine	4.	Colchicine

21. Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?

1.	DNA ligase	cutting DNA, creating sticky ends of restriction fragments
2.	DNA polymerase	polymerase chain reaction to amplify sections of DNA
3.	Electrophoresis	separation of DNA fragments
4.	Reverse transcriptase	production of cDNA from mRNA

22. Consider the following two statements:

I:	Plasmid can be used as a vector in recombinant DNA technology experiments.
II:	Plasmid is an extrachromosomal, circular, double-stranded DNA found in some bacteria.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

23. Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects the plant through its:

1.	Chromosomal DNA	2.	Complementary DNA
3.	F plasmid	4.	Ti plasmid

24.

The rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophs to organic substances is called as:
1. biomass
2. transpiration
3. net primary productivity
4. gross primary productivity

25.

Lichens are association of:

1.	Bacteria and fungus	2.	Alga and bacterium
3.	Fungus and alga	4.	Fungus and virus

26.

The chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem is finally:
1. removed in the feces
2. recycled by decomposers
3. used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate.
4. dissipated into space as heat

27. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Most ecosystems would vanish if the sun were not continuously providing energy to Earth.
Reason (R):	Both energy and matter are transformed in ecosystems through photosynthesis and feeding relationships.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R)are False.

28. Stratification in an ecosystem refers to:

1.	The division of ecosystems into terrestrial and aquatic categories.
2.	The movement of energy through trophic levels.
3.	The horizontal distribution of species across an area.
4.	The arrangement of species in different vertical layers based on their height.

29. Identify the option where the relationship between given organisms is correctly described:

1.	Flamingoes visiting American lakes and resident fishes: Commensalism
2.	Yucca plant and Tegeticula yuccasella, the yucca moth: Mutualism
3.	Female Anopheles and humans: Parasitism
4.	Lichens: Predation

30.

Which of the following fungi is an important biocontrol agent for fungal diseases?
1. Trichoderma polysporum
2. Trichoderma viridae
3. Trichoderma longibrachiatum
4. Trichoderma harzianum

31.

The ecological niche is:

1.	The surface area of the ocean
2.	An ecologically adapted zone
3.	The physical position and functional role of a species within the community
4.	Formed of all plants and animals living at the bottom of a lake

32.

What is true about the population growth curves shown in the figure given below:

I:	Curve a is seen when resources are not limiting
II:	Curve b is seen when resources are limiting
III:	[K-N]/K is the carrying capacity

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

33.

You won’t see cattle and goats browsing on Calotropis plants because the plant:
1. has a large number of thorns
2. does not bear any leaves
3. produces cardiac glycosides
4. produces strychnine

34. Sacred groves of Khasi and Jaintia hills are located in:

1.	Assam	2.	Meghalaya
3.	Manipur	4.	Arunachal Pradesh

35. Who popularised the term ‘Biodiversity’ to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organisation?
1. Robert May
2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Edward Wilson
4. Alexander von Humboldt

Botany - Section B

36.

The relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa on alogarithmic scale is a:

1.	rectangular hyperbola	2.	straight line
3.	sigmoid curve	4.	circular circle

37.

The Earth Summit was held in Rio do Janeiro in:

1.	1987	2.	1990
3.	1992	4.	2002

38.

What exotic introduction is threatening indigenous catfishes in our rivers?

1.	Carassius auratus	2.	Carcinus maenas
3.	Centaurea solstitialis	4.	Clarias gariepinus

39. Eicchornia crassipes, Parthenium hysterophorus, and Lantana camara are:

1.	native species of India
2.	critically endangered plants of India
3.	invasive plant species
4.	medicinal plants

40.

The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because:

1.	the biomass of fish far exceeds that of phytoplankton at any given time
2.	the major primary production to the sea is actually contributed by the terrestrial ecosystems
3.	the flow of energy level does not follow the laws of thermodynamics in the sea
4.	It is not true. The pyramid of biomass can never be inverted in any ecosystem

41.

In RNAi, genes are silenced using:

1.	ss DNA	2.	ds DNA
3.	ds RNA	4.	ss RNA

42.

Which among the following is a cloning vector?

1.	EcoRI	2.	BamHI
3.	pUC18	4.	Sal I

43.

A key feature of insertional mutagenesis for the identification of plasmids containing recombinant DNA is:

1.	the production of nutritional auxotrophs.
2.	the DNA sequencing of recombinant plasmids.
3.	the production of restriction endonuclease maps of recombinant plasmids.
4.	the disruption of a gene on the plasmid by the inserted recombinant DNA.

44.

Using recombinant DNA technology, genes from a donor cell can be implanted into a bacterium for DNA replication and protein synthesis. The kind of cell(s) that can be used as gene donors in this technology is/are:
1. Bacteria only
2. Either yeast or bacteria only
3. Eukaryotic cells only
4. Any kind of cell

45.

Which of the following should be chosen for the best yield if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?

1.	Laboratory flask of the largest capacity
2.	A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets
3.	A continuous culture system
4.	Any of the above

46. Glomus is:

1.	the genus of fungus, the members of which help symbiont plants get phosphorus
2.	the genus of fungus, the members of which help symbiont plants get nitrogen
3.	the genus of plants, the members of which are symbionts of mycorrhizae
4.	the genus of fungus, the members of which help processing of certain varieties of cheese

47. Thermus aquaticus is the source bacterium of:
1. a heat-resistant enzyme used in PCR
2. an acid-resistant enzyme used in biological detergents
3. a reporter enzyme used in recombinant procedures
4. a key enzyme involved in ELISA

48.

High species richness in the tropics can be explained by the following except:

1.	High productivity allows for high structural complexity and more niches
2.	Greater vertical stratification allows for more niches
3.	Abundant soil nutrients promote long food chains
4.	A period without significant change reduces the extinction rate

49.

Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in:

1.	Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
2.	Increasing its tolerance to drought
3.	Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
4.	Increasing its resistance to insects

50. If N is the population size, r is the intrinsic growth rate, K is the carrying capacity of the local environment, and dN/dt is the rate of change in population with time, then the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic growth equation is correctly written as:

1.	dN/dt = rN[1- N/K]	2.	dN/dt = rN[1- K/N]
3.	dN/dt = rN + [1- N/K]	4.	dN/dt = rN + [1- K/N]

Zoology - Section A

51. The first transgenic cow produced:

1.	enzyme to treat emphysema
2.	human protein enriched milk
3.	enzyme to treat phenylketonuria
4.	organs for xenotransplantation

52. The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA techniques was:
1. getting insulin assembled into a mature form.
2. isolating DNA in pure form from human cell
3. selecting the vector for cloning the gene
4. purification of the human insulin

53.

Assertion (A):	The current sixth mass extinction is happening at a lower pace than the previous mass extinctions.
Reason (R):	Human beings have been highly successful in conserving biodiversity across the globe.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the reason is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the reason is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

54.

What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia, and African catfish?

1.	All are endangered species in India.
2.	All are keystone species.
3.	All are mammals found in India.
4.	All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous species of India.

55. Consider the following statements:

I:	Among invertebrates maximum species richness is seen in insects
II:	Among vertebrates maximum species richness is seen in mammals

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

56.

Symptoms of allergy in a person can be reduced with the help of the following except:

1.	Adrenaline	2.	Steroids
3.	Anti-histamines	4.	Antibiotics

57.

The most common source of HIV infection is:
1. Blood transfusion
2. Intravenous drug addiction
3. Homosexual contact
4. Heterosexual promiscuity

58.

ELISA is based on the principle of:

1.	Complementary base pairing between nucleic acid strands
2.	Antigen-antibody interaction
3.	Movement of different proteins under an electric field
4.	Amplification of DNA in a sample

59.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Colostrum adds to the immunity of, especially, pre-term infants.
II:	Colostrum delivers its nutrients in a very concentrated low-volume form.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

60.

Immunodeficiency symptoms, particularly opportunistic infections in AIDS patients become prominent as the HIV starts selectively infecting and destroying:

1.	T Helper cells	2.	T Cytotoxic cells
3.	T suppressor cells	4.	B cells

61.

How can a healthy man get filariasis?

1.	Through droplet infection from an affected person
2.	Through contaminated water or food
3.	Through sexual contact with an infected person
4.	Through the bite by the female mosquito vector

62. Both Wuchereria and Ascaris:

1.	are trandmitted by the bite of a female mosquito vector
2.	are transmitted by contaminated food and water
3.	are nematodes
4.	can cause intestinal obstruction in affected children

63.

Why do cancer cells kill?

1.	They press upon the vital organs of the body
2.	They deprive the normal cells of their nutrition
3.	They release large amounts of toxins into the body
4.	They lead to a heightened immune response against themselves

64.

Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are:

1.	Undergoing rapid division
2.	Different in structure
3.	Non-dividing
4.	Starved of mutation

65.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cancerous cell?

1.	It is capable of unlimited cell division
2.	It becomes independent from normal cellular controls that limit growth and division
3.	It becomes invasive by spreading to other tissues
4.	It becomes highly differentiated

66.

Which of the following disease is not correctly matched with the pathogen causing it?

1.	Dengue	Aedes aegypti
2.	Ringworm	Trichophyton
3.	Pneumonia	Haemophilus influenzae
4.	Diphtheria	Corynebacterium

67. Rhino viruses:
1. are same as the coronaviruses
2. are transmitted by arthropod vectors
3. do not generally infect the lungs
4. are DNA viruses

68.

Interferons have been produced by rDNA technology. Interferons help to prevent and treat:

1.	bacterial infections	2.	viral infections
3.	rickettsial infections	4.	protozoal infections

69.

Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva, and tears destroys:

1.	certain fungi	2.	certain types of bacteria
3.	all viruses	4.	most virus-infected cells

70.

The abuse of which of the following is least likely to cause hallucinations?

1.	Cocaine	2.	Atropine
3.	Datura	4.	Benzodiazepine

71.

Which of the following would be true for innate immunity?

1.	each time the body is exposed to a substance, the response is the same.
2.	specificity and memory are involved.
3.	the body may become immune to a disease.
4.	antibodies may be produced.

72.

Humans have acquired an immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it:

1.	is very specific and uses different macrophages
2.	produces memory cells for mounting a fast secondary response
3.	has natural killer cells that can phagocytose and destroy microbes
4.	provides passive immunity

73. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the lymphoid organs in human body:

I:	MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.
II:	Spleen and lymph nodes are primary lymphoid organs
III:	Bone marrow and thymus are secondary lymphoid organs

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

74.

Widal test is a clinical test used in the diagnosis of:
1. Syphilis
2. Acariasis
3. Diphtheria
4. Typhoid

75.

A source of a ‘clot buster’ enzyme used in patients of CAD is the bacterium:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Streptomyces griseus
3. Pseudomonas putida
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

76.

Which fungus is an important source for the production of citric acid?
1. Aspergillus niger
2. Aspergillus flavus
3. Trichoderma polysporum
4. Trichoderma harzianum

77.

The ‘eyes’ [round holes] seen in Swiss cheese are due to:

1.	bubbles of carbon dioxide that are produced by bacteria in the cheese.
2.	the metabolisation of citrate by citrate-positive strains of lactococci.
3.	fermentation of lactose into lactic acid by bacteria.
4.	added rennet that causes precipitation of milk protein casein.

78. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	LAB check disease causing microbes in our stomach.
2.	Dough for making foods like dosa and idli are fermented by yeast.
3.	Swiss cheese is fermented by Propionibacterium shermanii
4.	Roquefort cheeses is an unripened cheese

79.

Wastewater treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can be treated by:

1.	anaerobic digesters	2.	floc
3.	chemicals	4.	oxidation pond

80.

Methanogenic bacteria are not found in:
1. rumen of cattle
2. gobar gas plant
3. bottom of water-logged paddy fields
4. activated sludge

81.

A country is experiencing a mass exodus of its population due to an ongoing civil war. The growth rate of its population in the present scenario will primarily be decided by:

1.	Natality	2.	Mortality
3.	Emigration	4.	Immigration

82.

Assertion (A):	Competition can be avoided even if two species compete for the same resource
Reason (R):	The competition species can partition their resources to avoid competition

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False

83.

If a population of 50 Paramoecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the percent growth or birth rate per individual per hour?

1.	100	2.	200
3.	50	4.	150

84. Which of the following is not an example of commensalism?
1. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch
2. Barnacles growing on the back of a whale
3. Cuckoo laying eggs in the nests of crow
4. Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone

85. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	For competition to occur between species, resources must be limited.
Reason (R):	Totally unrelated species cannot compete for the same resources.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and reason are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A)and (R) are False.

Zoology - Section B

86.

A good candidate for a possible gene therapy treatment will include all the following diseases except:

1.	SCID ADA deficiency	2.	Sickle cell anemia
3.	Down’s syndrome	4.	Cystic fibrosis

87.

A single-stranded DNA or RNA fragment used in genetic engineering to search for a particular gene or other DNA sequence is called as a :

1.	probe	2.	vector
3.	restriction sequence	4.	retrovirus

88. What is common to diabetes mellitus type 1, Graves' disease, inflammatory bowel disease, multiple sclerosis, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus?
1. All are genetic and heritable disorders
2. All are autoimmune disorders
3. All are pre-cancerous conditions
4. All are communicable diseases

89. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In almost all cases, habitat fragmentation leads to species loss.
Reason (R):	Human alteration of habitat is the single greatest threat to diversity throughout the biosphere.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

90.

The scientists who cloned DNA from the Salmonella typhimurium streptomycin resistance plasmid into the Escherichia coli plasmid, observed tolerance to streptomycin among the transformants and thus laying the foundations of genetic engineering were:

1.	Cohen and Boyer	2.	Millstein and Kohler
3.	Bolivar and Rodriguez	4.	Fire and Mello

91.

The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing and recovering from a disease is:

1.	naturally acquired active immunity
2.	artificially acquired active immunity
3.	artificially acquired passive immunity
4.	naturally acquired passive immunity

92.

Which of the following viruses is not transferred through the semen of an infected male?
1. Hepatitis-B virus
2. Human immunodeficiency virus
3. Chikungunya virus
4. Ebola virus

93.

Cancer cells:

1.	exhibit contact inhibition
2.	show metastasis
3.	undergo controlled and regulated cell division
4.	do not need any nutrients

94.

The SARS CoV 2 is not transmitted by:

1.	Droplet from cough and sneeze
2.	Contact with a contaminated surface
3.	Mosquito bite
4.	Droplet from speaking

95.

The class of immunoglobulins that attach to mast cells and basophils to initiate an inflammatory response are:

1.	IgA	2.	IgM
3.	IgG	4.	IgE

96.

What type of immunity is induced by the hepatitis B vaccine?
1. naturally acquired active immunity.
2. naturally acquired passive immunity.
3. artificially acquired active immunity.
4. artificially acquired passive immunity.

97.

Cyclosporin A is used in people who have received an organ graft because it primarily lowers the activity of:
1. Macrophages
2. B lymphocytes
3. T lymphocytes
4. Bone marrow

98.

The full potential of penicillin as an antibiotic was established by:

1.	Alexander Fleming	2.	Florey and Chain
3.	Avery and McCarty	4.	Hershey and Chase

99.

Whale barnacles attach typically to baleen whales without harming them. This relationship is called as:

1.	vitalism	2.	mutualism
3.	parasitism	4.	commensalism

100. A drug identical to monacolin K is the principal statin produced by Monascus purpureus. This drug is used as:

1.	an antihypertensive
2.	an anticoagulant
3.	a blood cholesterol lowering agent
4.	a source of cyanocobalamin

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