ALTIUS - Unit Test # 3

Botany - Section A

1. Intangible benefits like aesthetic pleasures of walking through thick woods is a strong argument for the need to conserve biodiversity. This type of argument is called as:
1. Narrowly utilitarian
2. Ethical
3. Broadly utilitarian
4. Sustainable

2.

To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must:

1.	cover a major portion of the land area in the region
2.	have a high number of endemic species with a high threat of extinction
3.	be located in a biodiversity-rich but biotechnology-poor developing nations
4.	have a high level of industrialization that threatens the ecosystem

3.

The main difference between the “Sixth Extinction” and the previous five extinctions is that the sixth extinction:
1. is mainly occurring on islands
2. is mainly affecting plants
3. is occurring at a faster rate
4. does not involve human activities

4.

The most direct threat to biodiversity in the present time is due to:
1. Exotic introductions
2. Habitat loss and fragmentation
3. Co-extinction
4. Over-exploitation

5. Currently. what is the most important cause that is driving animals and plants to extinction?
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Alien species invasion
3. Over-exploitation
4. Co-extinction

6. The number of species known and described of algae is more than that of all the following except:

1.	Ferns	2.	Lichens
3.	Mosses	4.	Fungi

7. India’s share of world’s land area and global species diversity respectively is:

1.	2.4 % and 8.1 %	2.	1.7 % and 12 %
3.	2.1 % and 9.5 %	4.	3.4 % and 16 %

8. The biggest advantage of growing Bt cotton instead of non-Bt varieties is:

1.	reductions in pesticides to be sprayed on a crop and the ecological benefits which stem from that.
2.	increased yield of cotton due to effective control of three types of bollworms
3.	Reduction in predators which help in controlling the bollworms by feeding on larvae and eggs of bollworm
4.	Potential reduction in the cost of cultivation

9.

RNA interference has been used to produce transgenic tobacco plant resistant to a nematode. It involves silencing gene expression at the:
1. initiation of transcription level
2. post-transcriptional but pre-translational level
3. level of translation
4. post-translational level

10. As a method of cellular defence, the RNA interference takes place in all:

1.	nematodes	2.	bacteria and archaea
3.	eukaryotic cells	4.	plant cells

11.

Agrobacterium mediation is least likely to be successful when used to create transgenic:

1.	Sugar cane	2.	Cotton
3.	Tobacco	4.	Tomato

12.

To ensure that an alien piece of DNA replicates and multiplies itself in the host organism, it is important that it:
1. is single-stranded
2. is linked with an ori
3. is heterochromatic
4. is not associated with any proteins

13.

When isolating the pure DNA from a bacterial cell, the cell should not be treated with:

1.	lysozyme	2.	proteases
3.	ribonuclease	4.	deoxyribonuclease

14. Beginning with a single template DNA, a PCR reaction is allowed to continue for 30 cycles. The number of copies of the template DNA at the end is expected to be about:

1.	256	2.	256,000
3.	1 million	4.	1 billion

15.

You are using a plasmid to clone a gene of interest from a donor organism. Why is it desirable to use the same restriction enzyme to cut both the donor DNA and plasmid that also creates ‘sticky ends’?

1.	For easy identification of plasmids containing inserts
2.	For easy identification of plasmids with antibiotic resistance
3.	For easy insertion into plasmids of DNA segments from different sources
4.	For ease of transformation

16.

'Restriction' in Restriction enzyme refers to:

1.	Cleaving of the phosphodiester bonds in DNA by the enzyme
2.	Cutting of DNA at a specific position only
3.	Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host bacteria
4.	All of the above

17. The DNA sequence shown below is:
5’ – GAATTC – 3’
3’ – CTTAAG – 5’

1.	the consensus sequence for prokaryotic promoter
2.	the most common VNTR in the human genome
3.	the recognition sequence of a common restriction endonuclease EcoR I
4.	an intron within the eukaryotic split gene

18.

The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA molecule is:

1.	Formation of a phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
2.	Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA fragments
3.	Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
4.	None of the above

19. The fragments created by cutting DNA with restriction endonucleases can be separated by gel electrophoresis. What is incorrect regarding this procedure?

1.	The fragments move towards anode.
2.	Agar gel is used for sieving effect.
3.	DNA fragments can be visualized moving in the medium if stained with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.
4.	The larger fragments move farther in the medium.

20. While cutting dsDNA the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion can be checked by employing:
1. Agarose gel electrophoresis
2. FISH
3. Ethidium bromide
4. Autoradiography

21.

Which of the following pyramids can never be inverted in any ecosystem?
1. Pyramid of numbers
2. Pyramid of biomass
3. Pyramid of energy
4. All ecological pyramids can be inverted

22.

In a food chain, the transition from an earlier trophic level to the next trophic level will lead to:

1.	a gain of 50% of energy	2.	a gain of 1% of energy
3.	a loss of 90% of energy	4.	a loss of 10% of energy

23. Which of the following best explains why logistic growth is considered more realistic than exponential growth for most animal populations?

1.	It assumes unlimited resources for growth.
2.	It takes into account limitations due to resource competition and carrying capacity.
3.	It models the exact number of individuals in every age group.
4.	It shows continuous, unimpeded growth without environmental limits.

24.

Which of the following ‘flows’ through an ecosystem and does not ‘cycle’?

1.	Water	2.	Nitrogen
3.	Energy	4.	Carbon

25.

The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
1. killing insects
2. biological control of plant diseases
3. controlling butterfly caterpillars
4. producing antibiotics

26. An ecosystem can be visualized as:

1.	A small, isolated environment where only biotic interactions occur.
2.	A functional unit of nature where living organisms interact with each other and their physical environment.
3.	A community of only aquatic organisms.
4.	A unit that only includes plants and animals.

27. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Bio-control agent	Pest controlled
1.	Lady bird	Aphids
2.	Dragon fly	Mosquito
3.	Trichoderma	Fungi
4.	Baculoviruses	Nematodes

28. Consider the two statements:

I:	Baculoviruses are considered a safe option for use in research applications.
II:	They have a broad range of organisms that can act as their hosts.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct

29.

Who is revered as the father of ecology in India?
1. Gurdev Singh Khush
2. Ramdeo Mishra
3. Panchanan Maheshwari
4. Jawahar Sharma

30.

Amensalism is an association between two species where:
1. One species is harmed and the other is benefitted
2. One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
3. One species is benefitted and the other is unaffected
4. Both species are harmed

31.

Co-evolution will be promoted in all the following symbiotic relationships except:
1. Commensalism
2. Interspecific competition
3. Mutualism
4. Parasitism

32. In the logistic growth of a population, the acceleration phase is followed by a/an:

1.	Lag phase	2.	Deceleration phase
3.	Asymptote	4.	Sudden crash phase

33. A population’s age pyramid shows a broad base and narrow top. This indicates that:

1.	The population is growing, with more young individuals than old.
2.	The population is declining, with a large number of deaths.
3.	The population is stable, with balanced age groups.
4.	The population has reached its carrying capacity.

34.

The pollinator of the fig plant:

I:	Uses fruit as an oviposition site
II:	Uses seeds for nourishing its larvae

1.	I only	2.	II only
3.	Both I and II	4.	None

35. An epiphyte is a plant that:

I:	grows on other plants for physical support
II:	affects the host negatively

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Botany - Section B

36. Calotropis are avoided by grazing herbivores because they produce:

1.	stipules	2.	thorns
3.	mustard oils	4.	cardiac glycosides

37. The Amazon Forest:

I:	is a largely tropical rainforest in South Africa
II:	has the greatest biodiversity on Earth
III:	produces about 20% of total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere through photosynthesis

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

38. Sacred groves of Khasi and Jaintia hills are located in:

1.	Assam	2.	Meghalaya
3.	Manipur	4.	Arunachal Pradesh

39. What controls the copy number of linked DNA in a transformed bacterial cell?

1.	Ori	2.	Cloning sites
3.	Selectable marker	4.	Reporter gene

40.

A gene carried by recombinant DNA is cloned when:
1. Its host bacterium divides by binary fission
2. It is transcribed
3. It is fragmented by restriction enzymes
4. It is hybridized

41.

Which of the following bacteria is not a source of restriction endonuclease?
1. Haemophilusinfluenzae
2. Escherichia coli
3. Entamoeba coli
4. Bacillus amyloliquefaciens

42.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding restriction endonucleases:

1.	They mostly cut dsDNA at specific base sequences.
2.	They are produced by bacterial cells as a mechanism of self-defence.
3.	They digest DNA by removing nucleotides from a free 3' end.
4.	They often generate short single-stranded sequences at the ends of the resultant fragments.

43.

If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, the protein formed is called:

1.	Recombinant protein	2.	Native protein
3.	Pro-protein	4.	Exotic protein

44.

In an ecological pyramid, the saprotrophs:
1. are primary producers
2. can be at any trophic level
3. are not given any place
4. are kept with apex predators

45.

The percent of the sun’s energy captured by plants is approximately:

1.	1%	2.	10%
3.	20%	4.	50%

46.

Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing organism?

1.	Anabaena	2.	Nostoc
3.	Azotobacter	4.	Pseudomonas

47.

Potential competitors can co-exist through:
1. niche differentiation
2. contest competition
3. interference competition
4. scramble competition

48.

Identify the incorrectly matched row:

	Species A	Species B	Name of interaction
1.	+	0	Commensalism
2.	+	–	Predation
3.	+	+	Mutualism
4.	–	–	Amensalism

49.

In the Verhulst-Pearl logistic model of population growth, the determinant which increases as the population increases towards the carrying capacity will be:

1.	r	2.	N
3.	K	4.	[K – N] / K

50.

If you want to regenerate virus-free plants in micropropagation, the best explants to choose will be:

1.	Embryo	2.	Meristem
3.	Anther	4.	Carpel

Zoology - Section A

51. Which of the following is an in-situ strategy to conserve biodiversity?
1. Seed bank
2. National park
3. Cryopreservation
4. Botanical garden

52. Who popularised the term ‘Biodiversity’ to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organisation?
1. Robert May
2. Paul Ehrlich
3. Edward Wilson
4. Alexander von Humboldt

53.

Assertion (A):	The current sixth mass extinction is happening at a lower pace than the previous mass extinctions.
Reason (R):	Human beings have been highly successful in conserving biodiversity across the globe.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the reason is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but the reason is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

54. Identify the incorrectly matched row:

	Extinct animal	Category	Country/Continent
1.	Dodo	Bird	Mauritius
2.	Quagga	Subspecies of Zebra	India
3.	Thylacine	Marsupial	Australia
4.	Stellar’s sea cow	Mammal	Russia

55. In humans, maternal antibodies passing through the placenta to the fetus provide the latter:

1.	an artificially acquired passive immunity
2.	a naturally acquired passive immunity
3.	an artificially acquired active immunity
4.	a naturally acquired active immunity

56.

Opportunistic infections are seen in AIDS when HIV significantly destroys:
1. T helper cells
2. T cytotoxic cells
3. B cells
4. Macrophages and dendritic cells

57.

Which of the following diseases in man is not transmitted by a mosquito bite?

1.	Dengue fever	2.	Filariasis
3.	Ascariasis	4.	Malaria

58. Cells of a malignant tumour reach distant sites through blood and wherever they get lodged in the body, start a new tumour there. This property is called:
1. Oncogenic transformation
2. Contact inhibition
3. Metastasis
4. Carcinogenesis

59.

The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further infection is:

1.	serotonin	2.	colostrum
3.	interferon	4.	histamine

60.

Which of the following glands is large-sized at birth but reduces in size with aging?
1. Pineal
2. Pituitary
3. Thymus
4. Thyroid

61. Identify the pair of white blood cells that are most effective phagocytes:
1. Neutrophils and Eosinophils
2. Basophils and Monocytes
3. Neutrophils and Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes and Eosinophils

62.

Nicotine functions as a stimulant because it stimulates the release of:
1. Adrenaline
2. Thyroxine
3. Dopamine
4. Acetylcholine

63.

Long-term steroid abuse in human males does not cause a decrease in:
1. size of testicles
2. sperm production
3. kidney and liver function
4. size of the prostate gland

64.

Which of the following drugs exerts its effects due to inhibition of selective re-uptake of neurotransmitters like dopamine and serotonin?

1.	Cocaine	2.	Cannabinoids
3.	Opioids	4.	Nicotine

65. All the following are cannabinoids except:

1.	Hashish	2.	Charas
3.	Ganja	4.	Afeem

66.

Which of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm?

1.	Microsporum	2.	Trichophyton
3.	Epidermophyton	4.	Macrosporum

67.

Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue/organ in our body?

1.	Payer’s patches	2.	Tonsils
3.	Lymph nodes	4.	Thymus

68.

Antivenom against snake poison contains:
1. Antigens
2. Antigen-antibody complexes
3. Antibodies
4. Enzymes

69.

The Hepatitis B vaccine is produced in recombinant:

1.	E. coli	2.	Yeast
3.	Stem cells	4.	Fibroblasts

70. Consider the following statements:

I:	Immunity provided by antibodies is called humoral immunity.
II:	Antibodies are secreted by B cells.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is incorrect but II is correct
4. I is correct but II is incorrect

71.

Commercially citric acid can be produced with the help of:

1.	Aspergillus niger	2.	Tolypocladium inflatum
3.	Lactic Acid Bacillus	4.	Xanthomonas citri

72.

Transmission through water and contaminated food is primarily responsible for the spread of all of the following infectious diseases except:

1.	Polio	2.	Dysentery
3.	Ascariasis	4.	Pneumonia

73. What is incorrect regarding typhoid fever in human beings?

1.	It is caused by a bacterium
2.	The pathogen is transmitted through contaminated food and water
3.	It can be confirmed by the Widal test
4.	No carrier state is seen in typhoid fever

74.

Biogas is primarily composed of:
1. Methane and Ammonia
2. Carbon dioxide and Hydrogen
3. Methane and Carbon dioxide
4. Hydrogen and Oxygen

75. Clearing of bottled fruit juices is achieved by treatment with:

1.	Lipases and Proteases	2.	DNase and RNase
3.	Proteases and Pectinases	4.	Cellulase and Chitinase

76.

Which of the following alcoholic drinks are produced without distillation?

1.	Whiskey and Brandy	2.	Brandy and Rum
3.	Wine and Beer	4.	Wine and Brandy

77.

Lactic Acid Bacillus, while used for converting milk to curd, increases the nutritional value of curd by adding vitamin:

1.	A	2.	B₁₂
3.	C	4.	D

78.

In a typical sewage treatment plant:

1.	The primary treatment of waste treatment uses microbes
2.	The BOD of waste water is enhanced during purification
3.	Activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic digesters
4.	Biogas, consisting of methane and ammonia, may be produced as an additional benefit

79.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	BOD is an indirect measure of the organic matter present in the water.
II:	The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by microorganisms in a sample of water.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	Only II is correct.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

80.

A population of 100 organisms has a birth rate of 0.6 and a death rate of 0.1. What is the expected number of organisms in this population at the end of one year?

1.	90	2.	110
3.	150	4.	160

81.

The association between the cattle egret and the grazing cattle is a classical example of:

1.	Mutualism	2.	Competition
3.	Parasitism	4.	Commensalism

82.

Abingdon tortoise became extinct in the Galapagos islands due to:
1. introduction of a predator
2. presence of competitively superior grazer
3. co-extinction of plants favored by tortoises as a food
4. sudden climatic change

83.

In Connell’s experiment:

1.	Balanus excluded Chathamalus from the intertidal area.
2.	Chathamalus excluded Balanus from the intertidal area.
3.	Balanus is smaller than Chathamalus.
4.	Both are equally competitive.

84.

Predators in nature are ‘prudent’ because:

1.	This keeps their own population in check
2.	Prudence keeps their hunting skills up to date
3.	Lack of prudence can lead to their own extinction
4.	This helps in the maintenance of genetic diversity in their gene poll

85.

Assertion (A):	The female anopheles mosquito is not considered a parasite
Reason (R):	The bite of the female anopheles mosquito injects infective stage of malarial parasite into human blood

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

Zoology - Section B

86.

The argument that biodiversity provides many direct economic benefits to humans and therefore must be preserved is:
1. Narrowly utilitarian view
2. Broadly utilitarian view
3. Ethical argument
4. Holistic approach

87.

Match the animals given in column I with their location in column II:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Dodo	i.	Africa
B.	Quagga	ii.	Russia
C.	Thylacine	iii.	Mauritius
D.	Stellar’s sea cow	iv.	Australia

Choose the correct match from the following:

1.	A-i	B-iii	C-ii	D-iv
2.	A-iv	B-iii	C-i	D-ii
3.	A-iii	B-i	C-ii	D-iv
4.	A-iii	B-i	C-iv	D-ii

88.

Amongst the vertebrates, the maximum species number is found in:
1. Mammals
2. Birds
3. Fishes
4. Amphibians

89.

The first recombinant therapeutic product approved for human use is:

1.	streptokinase	2.	tPA
3.	insulin	4.	penicillin

90. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
2.	PCR is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients.
3.	ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
4.	ELISA does not detect antibodies and can detect only antigens.

91.

Which of the following will lead to decreased rate of decomposition of detritus?
1. Anaerobiosis
2. High temperature
3. Moist environment
4. High nitrogen content in detritus

92.

Which of the following is not a correctly matched organism with its trophic level in an ecosystem?

1.	fungus	–	detritivore
2.	grasshopper	–	primary consumer
3.	zooplankton	–	primary producer
4.	eagle	–	tertiary consumer

93. The First Tiger Reserve of India is in:
1. Kerala
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Assam
4. Uttarakhand

94.

Allergic responses in our body are largely mediated by the antibodies belonging to the class:
1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

95.

Interferon alpha, used in the treatment of certain cancers, acts as:
1. Immunosuppressant
2. Biological response modifiers
3. Mitochondrial anti-oxidants
4. Monoclonal antibodies

96.

Chill and high fever recurring in malaria coincide with:
1. Injection of sporozoites into the human blood
2. Multiplication of malarial parasite in the liver cells
3. Release of hemozoin by ruptured RBCs
4. Multiplication of malarial parasites in human RBCs

97.

Cell-mediated immunity in humans:

1.	is mediated through B lymphocytes
2.	does not retain the memory of previous encounters with antigens
3.	is responsible for graft rejection
4.	is a part of the innate immune response

98. Streptokinase is a:
1. thrombolytic medication and enzyme
2. thrombolytic medication and an ion channel blocker
3. anticoagulant and an anti-platelet agent
4. anticoagulant and vasodilator

99.

Two intermediate hosts used by human liver fluke to complete its life cycle are:
1. a snail and a fish
2. an arthropod and a mollusk
3. a fish and a reptile
4. a nematode and a flatworm

100. Identify the option where the relationship between given organisms is correctly described:

1.	Flamingoes visiting American lakes and resident fishes: Commensalism
2.	Yucca plant and Tegeticula yuccasella, the yucca moth: Mutualism
3.	Female Anopheles and humans: Parasitism
4.	Lichens: Predation

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