FORTIUS - PYQ based Unit Test # 4

Botany - Section A

1.

Select the correct statement about biodiversity:

1.	The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
2.	Large-scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
3.	Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
4.	Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by developed countries.

2.

Biodiversity of a geographical region represents:

1.	Endangered species found in the region.
2.	The diversity in the organisms living in the region.
3.	Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.
4.	Species endemic to the region.

3.

The organisation which publishes the Red List of species is:

1.	ICFRE	2.	IUCN
3.	UNEP	4.	WWF

4.

Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits the highest species diversity?

1.	Madagascar	2.	Himalayas
3.	Amazon forests	4.	Western Ghats of India

5.

In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content, and even shelf life. The large variation is on account of:

1.	Genetic diversity	2.	Species diversity
3.	Hybridisation	4.	Induced mutations

6.

Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are:

1.	long fibre and resistance to aphids
2.	medium yield, log fibre, and resistance to beetle pests
3.	high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
4.	high yield and resistance to bollworms

7.

Exotic species introduced in India are:
1. Lantana camara, Water Hyacinth
2. Water Hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
3. Nile Perch, Ficus religiosa
4. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara

8.

Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in:
1. alleviation of vitamin-A deficiency
2. pest resistance
3. herbicide tolerance
4. producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

9.

In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors:

A.	a bacterium	B.	plasmid
C.	plasmodium	D.	bacteriophage

Options:

1.	(A) only	2.	(A) and (C) only
3.	(B) and (D) only	4.	(A), (B) and (D) only

10.

Match the following techniques or instruments with their usage :

a.	Bioreactor	(i)	Separation of DNA fragments
b.	Electrophoresis	(ii)	Production of large quantities of products
c.	PCR	(iii)	Detection of pathogen, based on antigen-antibody reaction
d.	ELISA	(iv)	Amplification of nucleic acids

Select the correct option from the following:

1.	(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3.	(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4.	(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

11.

Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?

1.	Lipase	2.	Protease
3.	Exonuclease	4.	Endonuclease

12.

Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using Gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:

a.	DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
b.	DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect the movement of DNA.
c.	Smaller the size of the DNA fragment, larger the distance it travels through it.
d.	Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing it to UV radiation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (c) and (d)	2.	(a), (b) and (c)
3.	(b), (c) and (d)	4.	(a), (b) and (d)

13.

Restriction endonucleases:-

1.	Are used in genetic engineering for ligating two DNA molecules.
2.	Are used for in vitro DNA synthesis.
3.	Are synthesized by bacteria as part of their defense mechanism.
4.	Are present in mammalian cells for the degradation of DNA when the cell dies.

14.

A selectable marker is used to:

1.	help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the transformants can be regenerated.
2.	identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien organism.
3.	select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop.
4.	mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using a restriction enzyme.

15.

Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

1.	Somatic hybridization- Fusion of two diverse cells
2.	Vector DNA- Site for tRNA synthesis
3.	Micropropagation- In vitro production of plants in large numbers
4.	Callus - Unorganized mass of cells produced in tissue culture

16.

Spooling is:

1.	Amplification of DNA
2.	Cutting of separated DNA bands from the agarose gel
3.	Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes
4.	Collection of isolated DNA

17.

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:

1.	5' -GGAACC-3' 3'-CCTTGG-5'	2.	5'-CTTAAG-3' 3'-GAATTC-5'
3.	5'-GGATCC-3' 3'-CCTAGG-5'	4.	5'-GAATTC-3' 3'-CTTAAG-5'

18. In gene gun method used to introduce alien DNA into host cells, microparticles of ___________ metal are used.

1.	Silver	2.	Copper
3.	Zinc	4.	Tungsten or gold

19.

Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA?
1. Bacterial artificial chromosome
2. Yeast artificial chromosome
3. Plasmid
4. Cosmid

20.

Which one of the following is commonly used in the transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
1. Penicilliumexpansum
2. Trichodermaharzianum
3. Meloidogyne incognita
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

21.

What is true for a plasmid?
1. Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
2. These are found in a virus
3. A plasmid contains genes for vital activities
4. This is the main part of the chromosome

22.

Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/ $m^{2}$ /yr) in a grassland ecosystem: -

1.	Tertiary production	2.	Gross production (GP)
3.	Net production (NP)	4.	Secondary production

23.

The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called:
1. net primary productivity
2. secondary productivity
3. standing crop
4. gross primary productivity

24. Primary productivity in an ecosystem refers to:

1.	The amount of biomass produced per unit area by plants through photosynthesis.
2.	The total energy loss as heat in the ecosystem.
3.	The total biomass of herbivores and carnivores.
4.	The rate of organic matter formation by decomposers.

25.

An example of endomycorrhiza is:

1.	Glomus	2.	Agaricus
3.	Rhizobium	4.	Nostoc

26.

For a biocontrol agent to be part of an integrated pest management, it should be:

1.	species-specific and symbiotic
2.	free living and broad spectrum
3.	narrow spectrum and symbiotic
4.	species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms

27.

An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interactions is known as:

1.	Ecological niche	2.	Biotic community
3.	Ecosystem	4.	Population

28.

Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

1.	Mutualism	2.	Predation
3.	Resource partitioning	4.	Competitive release

29.

The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by:

1.	G. F. Gause.	2.	Mac Arthur.
3.	Verhulst and Pearl.	4.	C. Darwin.

30.

Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:
1. K = N
2. K > N
3. K < N
4. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

31.

A male insect mistakes an orchid flower to be female due to its shape and performs the act of copulation and induces pollination. This is an example of:
1. Mimicry
2. Pseudocopulation
3. Pseudo pollination
4. None

32.

Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing it is called:
1. Morbidity
2. Fecundity
3. Biotic potential
4. Environmental resistance

33.

Which type of association is found between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent?

1.	Mutualism	2.	Commensalism
3.	Cooperation	4.	Co-evolution

34.

During the formation of bread it becomes porous due to the release of CO₂ by the action of:

1.	Yeast	2.	Bacteria
3.	Virus	4.	Protozoans

35.

In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:

1.	dsRNA	2.	ssDNA
3.	ssRNA	4.	dsDNA

Botany - Section B

36.

In which of the following do both pairs have the correct combination?

1.	In situ conservation: Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary
2.	In situ conservation: Seed Bank Ex situ conservation: National Park
3.	In situ conservation: Tissue culture Ex situ conservation: Sacred groves
4.	In situ conservation: National Park Ex situ conservation: Botanical Garden

37.

Transgenic plants are the ones:

1.	Grown in an artificial medium after hybridization in the field.
2.	Produced by a somatic embryo in an artificial medium.
3.	Generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and generating a plant from that cell.
4.	Produced after protoplast fusion in an artificial medium.

38.

The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?

1. ori - original restriction enzyme
2. rop-reduced osmotic pressure
3. Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers
4. amp^R, tet^R- antibiotic resistance genes

39.

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is:
1. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
2. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
3. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
4. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

40.

DNA strands on a gel, stained with ethidium bromide, when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:

1.	Dark red bands	2.	Bright blue bands
3.	Yellow bands	4.	Bright orange bands

41.

The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of which of the following organism?
1. Escherichia coli
2. Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Salmonella typhimurium
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

42.

A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
1. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
2. Poly(A) tail sequences
3. Degenerate primer sequence
4. Okazaki sequences

43.

Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?
1. Pyramid of biomass in a sea
2. Pyramid of numbers in grassland
3. Pyramid of energy
4. Pyramid of biomass in a forest

44.

The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are:
1. green algae
2. chemosynthetic bacteria
3. blue-green algae
4. coral reefs

45. Humification in soil leads to the formation of humus. What is a unique characteristic of humus?

1.	It is highly resistant to microbial action and decomposes slowly.
2.	It decomposes quickly and serves as an immediate source of nutrients.
3.	It is composed mainly of sugars and nitrogen-rich compounds.
4.	It only forms in low-temperature environments.

46.

Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for:
1. Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
2. Bioremediation of contaminated soils
3. Reclamation of wastelands
4. Gene transfer in higher plants

47.

According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to:

1.	Interspecific competition.
2.	Competition within closely related species.
3.	Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species.
4.	Intraspecific competition.

48.

In the exponential growth equation N_t =N₀e^rt, e represents :
1. The base of natural logarithms
2. The base of geometric logarithms
3. The base of number logarithms
4. The base of exponential logarithms

49.

Match List - I with List - II

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Protoplast fusion	(i)	Totipotency
(b)	Plant tissue culture	(ii)	Pomato
(c)	Meristem culture	(iii)	Somaclones
(d)	Micropropagation	(iv)	Virus free plants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)

50.

Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for:
1. Availability of oxygen throughout the process
2. Addition of preservatives to the product
3. Purification of the product
4. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Zoology - Section A

51.

Nowadays, it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing the radioactive probe to hybridise its complementary DNA in clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:

1.	mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it.
2.	mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it.
3.	mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
4.	mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film.

52.

The exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as:

1.	Bioweapon	2.	Biopiracy
3.	Bioethics	4.	Biowar

53. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of:

1.	mice	2.	cow
3.	pig	4.	fish

54.

Given below is the representation of the extent of the global diversity of invertebrates. What groups do the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?

	Insects	Crustaceans	Other animal groups	Molluscs
1.	A	B	C	D
2.	B	A	D	C
3.	D	C	B	A
4.	A	C	D	B

55.

In bacteria, the plasmid is:
1. Extrachromosomal material
2. Main DNA
3. Non-functional DNA
4. Repetitive gene

56.

Which fish selectively feed on larvae of mosquitoes?

1.	Gambusia	2.	Rohu
3.	Clarias	4.	Exocoetus

57.

The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to the following factors EXCEPT:-
1. Detritus rich in sugars
2. Warm and moist environment
3. Presence of aerobic soil microbes
4. Detritus richer in lignin and chitin

58.

Frog feeding on an herbivorous insect is:

1.	Primary consumer	2.	Secondary consumer
3.	Tertiary consumer	4.	Top carnivore

59.

The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by mammary glands of the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This type of immunity is called as:

1.	Passive immunity	2.	Active immunity
3.	Acquired immunity	4.	Autoimmunity

60.

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?

1.	HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.
2.	Drug addicts are the least susceptible to HIV infection.
3.	AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition.
4.	The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.

61.

In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :

1.	Active immunity	2.	Allergic response
3.	Graft rejection	4.	Auto-immune disease

62.

In which disease does the mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

1.	Elephantiasis	2.	Amoebiasis
3.	Ringworm disease	4.	Ascariasis

63.

L.S.D. is:

1.	Hallucinogenic	2.	Sedative
3.	Stimulant	4.	Tranquilizer

64.

Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas, the remaining three are?
1. They compete with the normal cells for vital nutrients.
2. They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
3. They divide in an uncontrolled manner.
4. They show contact inhibition.

65.

Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is:
1. not an infectious disease
2. caused by a virus
3. caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
4. caused by a Gram-negative bacterium

66.

Which of the following immune responses is responsible for the rejection of kidney graft?

1.	Cell-mediated immune response
2.	Auto-immune response
3.	Humoral immune response
4.	Inflammatory immune response

67.

To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?

1.	Cytokine barriers	2.	Cellular barriers
3.	Physiological barriers	4.	Physical barriers

68.

Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug Smack?

1.	Flowers	2.	Latex
3.	Roots	4.	Leaves

69.

Ringworm in humans is caused by:

1.	bacteria	2.	fungi
3.	nematodes	4.	viruses

70.

Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

1.	Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and hallucinations.
2.	Opium stimulates nervous system and causes increased sensitivity to pain.
3.	Morphine leads to insomnia, hypertension, delusions and disturbed emotions.
4.	Barbiturates cause mood swings, increased alertness and aggressiveness.

71.

MALT constitutes about __________percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

1.	50%	2.	20%
3.	70%	4.	10%

72.

The infectious stage of plasmodium that enters the human body is:

1.	Sporozoites	2.	Female gametocytes
3.	Male gametocytes	4.	Trophozoites

73.

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

	Column-I		Column-II
(a)	Typhoid	(i)	Wuchereria
(b)	Pneumonia	(ii)	Plasmodium
(c)	Filariasis	(iii)	Salmonella
(d)	Malaria	(iv)	Haemophilus

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)

74.

For the commercial and industrial production of Citric Acid, which of the following microbes is used?
1. Aspergillus niger
2. Lactobacillus sp
3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
4. Clostridium bretylium

75.

Which of the following yields citric acid?

1.	Penicillium citricum	2.	Aspergillus niger
3.	Saccharomyces	4.	Azospirilium

76.

In a growing population of a country:

1.	Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
2.	Reproductive individuals are less than post-reproductive individuals.
3.	Pre-reproductive individuals are more than reproductive individuals.
4.	Pre-reproductive individuals are less than reproductive individuals.

77.

Read the following four statements (a-d):

a.	Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
b.	Chikungunya is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium.
c.	Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
d.	Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.

How many of the above statements are wrong?

1.	Four	2.	One
3.	Two	4.	Three

78.

A major component of gobar gas is:

1.	Methane	2.	Ethane
3.	Butane	4.	Ammonia

79.

Which of the following, in sewage treatment, removes suspended solids?
1. Secondary treatment
2. Primary treatment
3. Sludge treatment
4. Tertiary treatment

80.

Domestic sewage in large cities:

1.	is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs)
2.	when treated in STPs, does not require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen
3.	has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts
4.	has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

81.

A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age-sex pyramids of populations. A and B are twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them:

Interpretations

1.	'A' is more recent and shows a slight reduction in the growth rate
2.	'B' is an earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate
3.	'B' is more recent showing that the population is very young
4.	'A' is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate

82.

A keystone species is:

1.	A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community's organisation.
2.	A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community.
3.	A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species.
4.	A species that makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community yet has a huge impact on the community's organisation and survival.

83.

Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as:

1.	Character displacement	2.	Altruism
3.	Resource partitioning	4.	Competitive exclusion

84.

Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II

	Column I		Column II
a.	Herbivores-Plants	(i)	Commensalism
b.	Mycorrhiza-Plants	(ii)	Mutualism
c.	Sheep-Cattle	(iii)	Predation
d.	Orchid-Tree	(iv)	Competition

Select the correct option from the following:
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

85.

Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National Park?
1. Lion- Corbett National Park
2. Rhinoceros- Kaziranga National Park
3. Wild ass- Dudhwa National Park
4. Great Indian bustard- Keoladeo National Park

Zoology - Section B

86.

For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding of its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
1. ELISA Technique
2. Hybridization Technique
3. Western Blotting Technique
4. Southern Blotting Technique

87.

Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
1. It is used to ligate introduced DNA in the recipient cell
2. It serves as a selectable marker
3. It is isolated from a virus
4. It remains active at high temperature

88.

Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?

1.	Endemic	2.	Vulnerable
3.	Threatened	4.	Keystone

89.

Tiger is not a resident, in which one of the following national parks?

1.	Ranthambore	2.	Sunderbans
3.	Gir	4.	Jim Corbett

90.

Read the following four statements (A-D) and find out certain mistakes in two of them :

A.	The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie, produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.
B.	Restriction enzymes are used in the isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
C.	Downstream processing is one of the steps of r-DNA technology.
D.	Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in the transfer of r-DNA into the host.

Which of the two statements have mistakes?

1.	Statements (A) and (B)	2.	Statements (B) and (C)
3.	Statements (C) and (D)	4.	Statements (A) and (C)

91.

When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

1.	Molecular diagnosis	2.	Safety testing
3.	Biopiracy	4.	Gene therapy

92.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide
2.	Functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
3.	Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. Coli.
4.	In man, insulin is synthesized as proinsulin.

93.

The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:
1. Upstream processing
2. Downstream processing
3. Bioprocessing
4. Postproduction processing

94.

The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states:

1.	Uttar Pradesh	2.	Himachal Pradesh
3.	Assam	4.	Uttarakhand

95.

Select the correct statement from the following:

1.	Gel electrophoresis is used for the amplification of a DNA segment.
2.	The polymerase enzyme joins the gene of interest and the vector DNA.
3.	Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating purified DNA molecules with the restriction enzymes of optimum conditions.
4.	PCR is used for the isolation and separation of genes of interest.

96.

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

1.	Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
2.	The antibodies against smallpox pathogen are produced by T - lymphocytes.
3.	Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains.
4.	Rejection of a kidney graft by the recipient is the function of B-lymphocytes.

97.

A certain patient, X, is suspected to be suffering from acquired immune deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?

1.	MRI	2.	Ultra Sound
3.	WIDAL	4.	ELISA

98.

Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
1. Human immunodeficiency virus
2. Chikungunya virus
3. Ebola virus
4. Hepatitis B virus

99.

Cyclosporin A, used as an immuno-suppression agent, is produced from:
1. Monascus purpureus
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Penicillium notatum
4. Trichoderma polysporum

100. Which of the following processes is not a function of the components in an ecosystem?
1. Productivity
2. Decomposition
3. Nutrient cycling
4. Symbiosis

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