FORTIUS - PYQ based Unit Test # 3

Botany - Section A

1.

The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called:

1.	for immediate steps to discontinue the use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
2.	to reduce CO₂ emissions and global warming
3.	for the conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
4.	to assess the threat posed to native species by invasive weed species

2.

In the following, in each set, a conservation approach and an example of a method of conservation are given.
(a) In-situ conservation - Biosphere Reserve
(b) Ex-situ conservation - Sacred groves
(c) In-situ conservation - Seed bank
(d) Ex-situ conservation - Cryopreservation
Select the option with the correct match of approach and method:

1.	(a) and (c)	2.	(a) and (d)
3.	(b) and (d)	4.	(a) and (b)

3.

The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere are termed as:

1.	Keystone	2.	Alien
3.	Endemic	4.	Rare

4.

Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?
1. Lesser interspecific competition
2. Species richness
3. Endemism
4. Accelerated species loss

5.

Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals that contain insecticidal protein. This protein:

1.	does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself resistant to this toxin.
2.	binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it.
3.	is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
4.	is activated by the acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.

6.

During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if a very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following PCR will be affected first?

1.	Denaturation	2.	Ligation
3.	Annealing	4.	Extension

7. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?

1.	Leaf	2.	Stem
3.	Root	4.	Flower

8.

Identify the properties of a good vector used in rDNA technology:

(a)	It should have origin of replication supporting a high copy number
(b)	It should have preferably more than '2' recognition sites
(c)	The restriction sites in vector should be in the antibiotic- resistant genes
(d)	It should have suitable marker genes
(e)	It should be easy to isolate and purify

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (c) and (e) only
2. (c), (d) and (e) only
3. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only

9.

DNA precipitation, out of a mixture of biomolecules, can be achieved by treatment with:
1. Chilled chloroform
2. Isopropanol
3. Chilled ethanol
4. Methanol at room temperature

10.

Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by some particular restriction enzyme?

1.	5'-CGTTCG-3'	2.	5'-GATATG-3'
	3'-ATGGTA-5'		3'-CTACTA-5'
3.	5'-GAATTC-3'	4.	5'-CACGTA-3'
	3'-CTTAAG-5'		3'-CTCAGT-5'

11.

Which of the following equipment is essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale for the industrial production of enzymes?

1.	Bioreactor	2.	BOD incubator
3.	Sludge digester	4.	Industrial oven

12.

Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA
2.	The enzyme cuts DNA molecules at an identified position within the DNA
3.	The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands
4.	The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand

13.

First discovered restriction endonuclease that always cuts DNA molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of six base pairs is:
1. EcoRI
2. Adenosine deaminase
3. Thermostable DNA polymerase
4. Hind II

14.

The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 are for:
1. Ampicillin and Tetracycline
2. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
3. Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
4. Tetracycline and Kanamycin

15.

The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white because of:

1.	Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
2.	Insertional inactivation of beta-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
3.	Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
4.	Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

16.

In-gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:
1. Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
2. Acetocarmine in UV radiation
3. Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
4. Acetocarmine in bright blue light

17.

The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called:

1.	Transformer	2.	Vector
3.	Template	4.	Carrier

18. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector is termed as :
1. Ori site
2. Palindromic sequence
3. Recognition site
4. Selectable marker

19.

Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?
1. Clostridium septicum
2. Xanthomonas citri
3. Bacillus coagulens
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

20.

For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of:

1.	Silver or Platinum	2.	Platinum or Zinc
3.	Silicon or Platinum	4.	Gold or Tungsten

21.

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:

1.	Disarming pathogen vectors
2.	Transformation of plant cells
3.	Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
4.	DNA fingerprinting

22.

If 20 J of energy is trapped at the producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacocks as food in the following chain?
Plant → mice → snake → peacock

1.	0.02 J	2.	0.002 J
3.	0.2 J	4.	0.0002 J

23.

Azolla is used in the cultivation of:

1.	Maize	2.	Sorghum
3.	Wheat	4.	Rice

24.

Which one of the following is not used for the construction of ecological pyramids?

1.	Dry weight	2.	Number of individuals
3.	Rate of energy	4.	Fresh weight

25. Mass of living matter at a tropic level in an area at any time is called:

1.	Detritus	2.	Humus
3.	Standing state	4.	Standing crop

26.

Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?

1.	Stratification	2.	Natality
3.	Mortality	4.	Sex-ratio

27. Of the total incident solar radiation, proportion of PAR is:

1.	about 60%	2.	about 50%
3.	more than 80%	4.	about 70%

28.

The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is:

1.	Frankia	2.	Rhizobium
3.	Azospirillum	4.	Oscillatoria

29.

Niche is:

1.	All the biological factors in the organism environment
2.	The physical space where an organism lives
3.	The range of temperature that the organism needs to live
4.	The functional role played by the organism where it lives

30.

Mycorrhiza is an example of:

1.	Symbiotic relationship	2.	ectoparasitism
3.	endoparasitism	4.	decomposers

31.

Two different species cannot live for a long duration in the same niche or habitat. This is:
1. Allen's law
2. Gloger's rule
3. Competitive exclusion principle
4. Weismann's theory

32.

In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?

1.	Competition	2.	Predation
3.	Parasitism	4.	Mutualism

33.

The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in number during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?

1.	The population of its predators increases enormously
2.	S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
3.	The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
4.	Its population growth curve is of J-type

34.

The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:
1. \(\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rn \left(\dfrac{N - K}{N}\right)\)
2. \(\dfrac{dt}{dN} = Nr \left(\dfrac{K - N}{K}\right)\)
3. \(\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN \left(\dfrac{K - N}{K}\right)\)
4. \(\dfrac{dN}{dt} = rN\)

35. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):
1. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
2. when N/K equals zero
3. when the death rate is greater than the birth rate
4. when N/K is exactly one

Botany - Section B

36.

According to Alexander von Humboldt :

1.	Species richness decreases with increasing area of exploration
2.	Species richness increases with the increasing area, but only up to a limit
3.	There is no relationship between species richness and the area explored
4.	Species richness goes on increasing with increasing area of exploration

37.

Exploration of molecular, genetic, and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:

1.	Biopiracy	2.	Bioenergetics
3.	Bioremediation	4.	Bioprospecting

38.

Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year:

1.	2002	2.	1992
3.	1996	4.	2000

39. In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is:

1.	Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
2.	Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
3.	Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
4.	Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

40.

Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:

1.	Vitamin-B	2.	Vitamin-C
3.	Omega 3	4.	Vitamin-A

41. Cry-IAc endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against:

1.	mosquitoes	2.	flies
3.	nematodes	4.	bollworms

42. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following site will result in loss of tetracycline resistance of pBR322?

1.	PsT I	2.	Pvu I
3.	EcoR I	4.	BamH I

43.

Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

1.	Plant cells- cellulose	2.	Algae - Methylase
3.	Fungi - Chitinase	4.	Bacteria - Lysozyme

44.

The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:
1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
3. Bacillus subtilis
4. Pseudomonas putida

45.

A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using:

1.	Taq polymerase	2.	Polymerase III
3.	Ligase	4.	EcoRI

46.

An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:

1.	DNA ligase	2.	Endonuclease
3.	Exonuclease	4.	Protease

47.

What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer: 120 g
Primary consumer: 60 g
Primary producer: 10 g
1. Inverted pyramid of biomass
2. Pyramid of energy
3. Upright pyramid of numbers
4. Upright pyramid of biomass

48.

Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?
1. Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
2. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
3. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
4. Ladybird beetle against aphids in mustard

49. The term ecosystem was coined by:

1.	A.G. Tansley	2.	E. Haeckel
3.	E. warming	4.	E.P. Odum

50.

Between which of the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism?
1. Orchid and the tree on which it grows
2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
3. Sea Anemone and Clownfish
4. Female wasp and fig species

Zoology - Section A

51.

The decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to the introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as:

1.	Co-extinction	2.	Habitat fragmentation
3.	Over exploitation	4.	Alien species invasion

52.

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:

1.	Vector	2.	Selectable marker
3.	Plasmid	4.	Probe

53.

The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

1.	periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
2.	administering adenosine deaminase activators
3.	introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
4.	invitro cell culture therapy

54.

With regard to insulin, choose the correct options:

(a)	C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b)	The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c)	The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d)	A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (c) and (d) only	2.	(a) and (d) Only
3.	(b) and (d) only	4.	(b) and (c) only

55.

Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because:
1. its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
2. it has no blood supply
3. it is composed of enucleated cells
4. it is a non-living layer

56.

Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:

1.	Papaver somniferum	2.	Atropa belladonna
3.	Erythroxylum coca	4.	Datura

57.

In the equation GPP - R = NPP, R represents:

1.	Environment factor	2.	Respiration losses
3.	Radiant energy	4.	Retardation factor

58.

Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

1.	Humanification-Leads to the accumulation of a dark-coloured substance in humans which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate
2.	Catabolism-Last step decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
3.	Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of the soil
4.	Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as earthworms

59.

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to newborn infants because it contains:

1.	Immunoglobulin A	2.	Natural killer cells
3.	Monocytes	4.	Macrophages

60.

Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across the placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as:
1. Active immunity
2. Passive immunity
3. Cellular immunity
4. Innate non-specific immunity

61.

Histamine is secreted by:

1.	Mast cells	2.	Fibroblast
3.	Histiocytes	4.	Plasma cells

62.

Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

1.	HIV is an enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase
2.	HIV is an enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
3.	HIV is an unenveloped retrovirus
4.	HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

63.

The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon:

1. erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of the colon
2. mucosa and submucosa of colon only
3. food in the intestine
4. blood only

64. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:

1.	B-lymphocytes	2.	Thrombocytes
3.	Erythorcytes	4.	T-lymphocytes

65.

The drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
1. nitration of morphine
2. methylation of morphine
3. acetylation of morphine
4. glycosylation of morphine

66.

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plants whose one flowering branch is shown below?

1.	Hallucinogen	2.	Depressant
3.	Stimulant	4.	Pain-Killer

67.

Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that:

1.	Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease
2.	Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine
3.	Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae
4.	Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs

68.

In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

	Examples	Type of immunity
(a)	Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes	Cellular barriers
(b)	Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injection	Active immunity
(c)	Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes	Physical barriers
(d)	Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the urinogenital tract and HCl in the stomach	Physiological barriers

1.	(a)	2.	(b)
3.	(c)	4.	(d)

69.

Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

1.	Cholera and tetanus	2.	Typhoid and smallpox
3.	Tetanus and mumps	4.	Herpes and influenza

70. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?

1.	Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
2.	Spleen of infected humans
3.	Salivary glands of a freshly moulted female anopheles mosquito
4.	Saliva of an infected female anopheles mosquito

71.

Widal test is carried out to test:

1.	Malaria	2.	Diabetes mellitus
3.	HIV/AIDS	4.	typhoid fever

72.

Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent?

1.	Lipase	2.	Cyclosporin A
3.	Statin	4.	Streptokinase

73.

Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Citric acid	(i)	Trichoderma
(b)	Cyclosporin A	(ii)	Clostridium
(c)	Statins	(iii)	Aspergillus
(d)	Butyric acid	(iv)	Monascus

Codes:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(i)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)

74.

During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :
1. Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
2. Methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
3. Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
4. Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane

75.

The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals include the:

1.	Halophiles	2.	Thermoacidophiles
3.	Methanogens	4.	Eubacteria

76.

What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
1. Methane and CO₂
2. Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO₂
3. Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO
4. Hydrogen Sulphide and CO₂

77.

Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for:

1.	Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisiae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
2.	Working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
3.	Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
4.	Working out the efficiency of oil-driven automobile engines.

78.

What type of human population is represented by the following age pyramid?

1.	Stable population	2.	Declining population
3.	Expanding population	4.	Vanishing population

79.

Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are:

1.	High fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate, and very young age distribution
2.	High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population growth, and a very young age distribution
3.	High mortality high density, uneven population growth, and a very old age distribution
4.	High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth, and a very young age distribution

80. Which one of the following is categorized as a parasite in a true sense?

1.	Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
2.	Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
3.	The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in a crow's nest
4.	The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans

81.

Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?

1.	Retroviruses carry the gene for RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
2.	The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
3.	Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
4.	DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses.

82.

Study the four statements (a-d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

(a)	A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(b)	Predator starfish pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(c)	Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(d)	Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders

The two correct statements are:

1.	(c) and (d)	2.	(a) and (d)
3.	(a) and (b)	4.	(b) and (c)

83. Which of the following scenarios would most likely contribute to an increase in population density?

1.	Mortality and emigration, both being high.
2.	Natality and immigration exceed mortality and emigration.
3.	A stable birth rate, with fluctuating immigration.
4.	Immigration being higher than natality.

84.

Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:

1.	more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
2.	competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
3.	no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
4.	larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.

85.

A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20, and emigration 30. The net increase in population is:

1.	10	2.	15
3.	5	4.	zero

Zoology - Section B

86.

Interferons are synthesized in response to:

1.	Mycoplasma	2.	Bacteria
3.	Viruses	4.	Fungi

87.

Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?
1. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
2. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
3. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
4. Dachigam National Park, Jammu and Kashmir

88.

The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating:
1. Chickenpox
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
4. Diabetes mellitus

89. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:

1.	phosphodiester bonds	2.	covalent bonds
3.	disulphide bridges	4.	hydrogen bonds

90.

Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

1.	Separation	2.	Purification
3.	Preservation	4.	Expression

91.

During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:

1.	Histones	2.	Polysaccharides
3.	RNA	4.	DNA

92.

A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as:

1.	Vector	2.	Plasmid
3.	Structural gene	4.	Selectable marker

93.

What is the criterion for the movement of DNA fragments on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

1.	The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
2.	Positively charged fragments move to farther end
3.	Negatively charged fragments do not move
4.	The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

94.

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbits in grassland is called:
1. Net productivity
2. Secondary productivity
3. Net primary productivity
4. Gross primary productivity

95.

Natality refers to:
1. Death rate
2. Birth rate
3. Number of individuals leaving the habitat
4. Number of individuals entering the habitat

96. Antivenom injection contains performed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

1.	harvested antibodies	2.	gamma globulin
3.	attenuated pathogens	4.	activated pathogens

97.

At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

1.	Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
2.	When the infected retrovirus enters host cells
3.	When HIV damages a large number of helper T-Lymphocytes
4.	When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

98.

Use of anti-histamine and steroids give a quick relief from:

1.	allergy	2.	nausea
3.	cough	4.	headache

99.

A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given:

1.	penicillin	2.	streptokinase
3.	cyclosporin-A	4.	statins

100. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source:

(a)
(b)

	Molecule	Source	Use
1.	(a) Cocaine	Erythroxylum coca	Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2.	(b) Heroin	Cannabis Sativa	Depressant and slows down body functions
3.	(b) Cannabinoid	Atropa belladonna	Produces hallucinations
4.	(a) Morphine	Papaver somniferum	Sedative and painkiller

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