FORTIUS - PYQ based Unit Test # 1

Botany - Section A

1.

A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if:
1. Individuals mate selectively
2. There are no mutations
3. There is no migration
4. The population is large

2.

In a population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is :

1.	0.4	2.	0.5
3.	0.6	4.	0.7

3.

Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are:
1. small and directionless
2. random and directional
3. random and directionless
4. small and directional

4.

In present times, the origin of life is not possible from inorganic compounds due to:
1. Non-availability of raw material
2. High concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere
3. Decrease in temperature
4. Excess of pollution

5.

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing which of the following in a closed flask:
1. ${CH}_{3}, H_{2}, {NH}_{4} and water vapour at 800 ° C$
2. ${CH}_{4}, H_{2}, {NH}_{3} and water vapour at 600 ° C$
3. ${CH}_{3}, H_{2}, {NH}_{3} and water vapour at 600 ° C$
4. ${CH}_{4}, H_{2}, {NH}_{3} and water vapour at 800 ° C$

6.

The length of the DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
1. Deletion of non-essential genes
2. Super-coiling in nucleosomes
3. DNAse digestion
4. Through the elimination of repetitive DNA

7.

The following ratio is generally constant for a given species:

1.	T + C / G + A	2.	G + C / A+ T
3.	A + C / T + G	4.	A + G / C +T

8.

One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately:

1.	20 nm	2.	0.34 nm
3.	3.4 nm	4.	2 nm

9.

E. Coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radioactive thymidine for five minutes. Then, it was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following observation shall be correct?
1. Both strands of DNA will be radioactive
2. One strand is radioactive
3. Each strand is half radioactive
4. None is radioactive

10.

Due to the discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world?
1. m-RNA, t-RNA- r-RNA synthesise proteins
2. In some viruses, RNA is the genetic material
3. RNA has enzymatic property
4. RNA is not found in all cells

11.

From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of the Genetic Code:

1.	Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping
2.	Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
3.	Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
4.	Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non-ambiguous

12.

Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called :

1.	splicing	2.	tailing
3.	transformation	4.	capping

13.

During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate the :
1. leading strand towards the replication fork
2. lagging strand towards the replication fork
3. leading strand away from the replication fork
4. lagging strand away from the replication fork

14.

Antiparallel strands of DNA molecules means:

1.	One strand turns clockwise
2.	One strand turns anticlockwise
3.	Phosphate groups of the two strands share the same position on their ends
4.	Phosphate groups at the start of the DNA strands are in the opposite position

15.

Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

1.	5S rRNA	2.	18S rRNA
3.	23S rRNA	4.	5.8S rRNA

16.

Select the correct option:

	Direction of RNA synthesis	Direction of reading of the template DNA strand
1.	5'-3'	3' - 5'
2.	3'-5'	5' - 3'
3.	5' - 3'	5' - 3'
4.	3' - 5'	3' - 5'

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

17.

If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

1.	11	2.	33
3.	333	4.	1

18.

Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of the maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, then F₂ segregation will show:
1. higher number of the recombinant types
2. segregation in the expected 9:3:3:1 ratio
3. segregation in a 3:1 ratio
4. higher number of the parental types

19.

Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments?

1.	1840-1850	2.	1857-1869
3.	1870-1877	4.	1856-1863

20.

A true breeding plant is:

1.	Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution
2.	One that is able to breed on its own
3.	Produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated plants
4.	Near homozygous and produces offspring of its kind

21.

Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are:

1.	anthers	2.	styles
3.	ovaries	4.	hairs

22.

What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis?
1. Both produce progeny identical to the parent
2. Both are applicable to only dicot plants
3. Both bypass the flowering phase
4. Both occur round the year

23.

Coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to :

1.	Endosperm	2.	Endocarp
3.	Mesocarp	4.	Embryo

24.

The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as:

1.	Coleorrhiza	2.	Scutellum
3.	Coleoptile	4.	Epiblast

25.

A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
1. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
2. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
3. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
4. 7-nucleate and 8-celled

26. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to:
1. megasporangium
2. megasporophyll
3. megaspore mother cell
4. megaspore

27.

Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:

1.	Suspensor	2.	Egg
3.	Synergid	4.	Zygote

28.

Which of the following are the important floral rewards for animal pollinators?
1. Nectar and pollen grains
2. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
3. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
4. Colour and large size of the flower

29.

Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

1.	Geitonogamy	2.	Xenogamy
3.	Apogamy	4.	Cleistogamy

30.

Even in absence of pollinating agents, seed setting is assured in:

1.	Commelina	2.	Zostera
3.	Salvia	4.	Fig

31.

What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?

1.	Pollination occurs in submerged conditions by water.
2.	Flowers emerge above the surface of water and pollination occurs by insects.
3.	Flowers emerge above the water surface and pollen is carried by the wind.
4.	Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at the surface of the water.

32.

An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is:

1.	castor	2.	cotton
3.	coffee	4.	lily

33. In Michelia, the gynoecium:
1. has multiple distinct carpels
2. has multiple carpels fused in a single bundle
3. has a single carpel
4. has multiple carpels fused in multiple bundles

34.

Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollens as fossils?

1.	Pollenkit	2.	Cellulosic intine
3.	Oil content	4.	Sporopollenin

35. In the given diagram, the correctly labelled parts are:

1.	Only E	2.	Only D and E
3.	Only A and C	4.	Only B

Botany - Section B

36.

Ernst Haeckel's embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:

1.	Alfred Wallace	2.	Charles Darwin
3.	Oparin	4.	Karl Ernst von Baer

37.

The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is:
1. Mutation
2. Genetic drift
3. Natural selection
4. Genetic recombination

38.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I:	Formation of protobionts.
II:	Synthesis of organic monomers.
III:	Synthesis of organic polymers.
IV:	Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.

1.	I, II, III, IV	2.	I, III, II, IV
3.	II, III, I, IV	4.	II, III, IV, I

39.

If the DNA percentage of thymine is 20%, then what is the percentage of guanine?

1.	20%	2.	40%
3.	30%	4.	60%

40.

A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except:

1.	it should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'
2.	it should be able to generate its replica
3.	it should be unstable structurally and chemically
4.	it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

41.

Which enzyme(s) will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?

1.	Lactose permease
2.	Transacetylase
3.	Lactose permease and transacetylase
4.	β - galactosidase

42.

Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a triplet?
1. Nirenberg and Matthaei
2. Hershey and Chase
3. Morgan and Sturtevant
4. Beadle and Tatum

43.

Purines found both in DNA and RNA are:

1.	Cytosine and thymine	2.	Adenine and thymine
3.	Adenine and guanine	4.	Guanine and cytosine

44.

The equivalent of a structural gene is:

1.	muton	2.	cistron
3.	operon	4.	recon

45.

The first phase of translation is:
1. Recognition of DNA molecule
2. Aminoacylation of tRNA
3. Recognition of an anti-codon
4. Binding of mRNA to ribosome

46.

In antirrhinum, two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F₁ plants produced red, pink, and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and White by rr genes.

1.	RR	2.	Rr
3.	rr	4.	rrrr

47.

Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
1. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
2. Production of male honey bee
3. Pod shape in garden pea
4. Skin colour in humans

48.

A diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male. The ploidy of endosperm will be:

1.	Tetraploidy	2.	Pentaploidy
3.	Triploidy	4.	Diploidy

49.

Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into:

1.	Endosperm	2.	Embryo sac
3.	Embryo	4.	Ovule

50.

A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
1. Autogamy and geitonogamy
2. Geitonogamy and xenogamy
3. Cleistogamy and xenogamy
4. Autogamy and xenogamy

Zoology - Section A

51.

Darwin's finches are a good example of:

1.	industrial melanism	2.	connecting link
3.	adaptive radiation	4.	convergent evolution

52.

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

1.	Convergent evolution	2.	Industrial melanism
3.	Natural selection	4.	Adaptive radiation

53.

Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?

1.	Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
2.	Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
3.	Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
4.	Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size

54.

The extinct human who lived 100000 to 40000 years ago, in Europe, Asia, and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture was:
1. Homo habilis
2. Neanderthal human
3. Cro-Magnon humans
4. Ramapithecus

55.

In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as :

1.	Adaptive Radiation	2.	Divergent Evolution
3.	Cyclical Evolution	4.	Convergent Evolution

56.

Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

1.	Directional, as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
2.	Disruptive, as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
3.	Stabilizing followed by disruptive, as it stabilizes the population to produce higher-yielding cows
4.	Stabilizing selection, as it stabilizes this character in the population

57.

In human adult females, oxytocin:
1. causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.
2. is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
3. stimulates the growth of mammary glands.
4. stimulates the pituitary to secrete vasopressin.

58.

In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-colored form became dominant over the light-colored form in England during the industrial revolution. This is an example of:

1.	Inheritance of darker color character acquired due to the darker environment.
2.	Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected.
3.	Appearance of the dark-colored individuals due to very poor sunlight
4.	Protective mimicry

59.

The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs:

1.	shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes an entry into the Fallopian tube
2.	after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
3.	until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
4.	in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

60.

Which one of the following is the most likely root cause of why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?

1.	Fertilization of the ovum
2.	Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
3.	Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in the blood stream
4.	Retention of well-developed corpus luteum

61.

The first movements of the foetus and the appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?

1.	Fourth month	2.	Fifth month
3.	Sixth month	4.	Third month

62.

Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
1. Release of oxytocin
2. Release of prolactin
3. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
4. Synthesis of prostaglandins

63.

Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together:

	Developmental stage	Site of occurrence
1.	Blastocyst	Uterine wall
2.	8 cells morula	Starting point of Fallopian tube
3.	Late morula	Middle part of Fallopian tube
4.	Blastula	End part of Fallopian tube

64.

Select the correct sequence for the transport of sperm cells in the male reproductive system:

1.	Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus
2.	Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
3.	Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymus → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
4.	Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra

65.

The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for:

1.	escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
2.	providing more space for the growth of epididymis
3.	providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
4.	maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature

66.

Satellite DNA is important because it:

1.	shows a high degree of polymorphism in the population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children
2.	does not code for proteins and is the same in all members of the population
3.	codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
4.	codes for proteins needed in the cell cycle

67.

DNA fingerprinting refers to:

1.	Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
2.	Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
3.	Techniques used for the identification of fingerprints of individuals
4.	Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

68.

Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

Column I		Column II
(a)	Proliferative Phase	(i)	Breakdown of the endometrial lining
(b)	Secretory Phase	(ii)	Follicular Phase
(c)	Menstruation	(iii)	Luteal Phase

Codes:

	(a)	(b)	(c)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)

69.

The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:

1.	spermatocyte-spermatogonia- spermatid-sperms
2.	spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms
3.	spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperms
4.	spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperms

70.

How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

1.	4	2.	8
3.	2	4.	1

71.

Which is the basis of genetic mapping of the human genome as well as DNA fingerprinting?
1. Polymorphism in the DNA sequence
2. Single nucleotide polymorphism
3. Polymorphism in the hnRNA sequence
4. Polymorphism in the RNA sequence

72.

A woman with 47 chromosomes, due to three copies of chromosome 21, is characterized by:

1.	Turner syndrome	2.	Down syndrome
3.	Superfemaleness	4.	Triploidy

73. Pick out the correct statements:

I:	Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
II:	Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
III:	Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
IV:	Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder

1.	II and IV are correct	2.	I, III and IV are correct
3.	I, II and III are correct	4.	I and IV are correct

74.

In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree:

1.	Autosomal dominant	2.	X-linked recessive
3.	Autosomal recessive	4.	X-linked dominant

75.

A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children (2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given disease but none of the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
1. Sex-limited recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Sex-linked recessive
4. Sex-linked dominant

76.

Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because:

1.	This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
2.	This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
3.	This disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
4.	A greater proportion of girls die in infancy

77.

Match the items of Column-I with Column-II:

	Column-I		Column-II
(a)	XX-XO method of sex determination	(i)	Turner's syndrome
(b)	XX-XY method of sex Determination	(ii)	Female heterogametic
(c)	Karyotype-45	(iii)	Grasshopper
(d)	ZW-ZZ method of Sex Determination	(iv)	Female homogametic

Select the correct option from the following:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
2.	(i)	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)
4.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)

78.

Which one of the following conditions correctly describe the manner of determining the sex in the given example?

1.	Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine the female sex in birds.
2.	XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
3.	XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex.
4.	Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce males in Drosophila.

79.

Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs):
1. make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
2. increase phagocytosis of sperms
3. suppress sperm motility
4. prevent ovulation

80.

The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because:

1.	a single mating produces two young flies
2.	smaller female is easily recognisable from a large male
3.	it completes its life cycle in about two weeks
4.	it reproduces parthenogenetically

81.

The combination pill is taken by a female:

1.	Daily for a period of 21 days beginning within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
2.	On alternate days for a period of 21 days beginning within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
3.	Daily for a period of 21 days beginning after the end of the menstrual flow
4.	Daily for a period of 7 days beginning after the end of the menstrual flow

82.

The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’:

1.	is an IUD.
2.	increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
3.	blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
4.	is a post-coital contraceptive.

83.

A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is:
1. Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer
2. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
3. Gamete Internal Fertilization and Transfer
4. Germ Cell Internal Fallopian Transfer

84.

In case of a couple, where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
1. Intrauterine Transfer
2. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
3. Artificial Insemination
4. Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection

85.

What is the figure given below showing in particular?

1.	Ovarian cancer	2.	Uterine cancer
3.	Tubectomy	4.	Vasectomy

Zoology - Section B

86. The part of the fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
1. isthmus
2. infundibulum
3. cervix
4. ampulla

87. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, and progesterone are produced by:
1. ovary
2. placenta
3. fallopian tube
4. pituitary

88.

The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called?
1. Luteal phase and it lasts for about 13 days.
2. Follicular phase and it lasts for about 13 days.
3. Luteal phase and it lasts for about 6 days.
4. Follicular phase and it lasts for about 6 days.

89.

Seminal plasma in humans is rich in:
1. fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
2. fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
3. glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
4. fructose and certain enzymes but is poor in calcium

90.

No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because :

1.	Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation
2.	FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
3.	LH levels are high in the luteal phase
4.	Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase

91.

Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation?

1.	Estrogen	2.	FSH
3.	FSH-RH	4.	Progesterone

92.

Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because

1.	Bacterial cells can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
2.	The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
3.	The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
4.	The genetic code is universal

93.

DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:

1.	vector	2.	probe
3.	clone	4.	plasmid

94.

Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to:
1. Novel DNA sequence
2. Genes expressed as RNA
3. Polypeptide expression
4. DNA polymorphism

95.

Which of the following characteristics represent the 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allelism
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance

1.	b, c, and e	2.	a, b and c
3.	b, d, and e	4.	a, c, and e

96.

The best example of pleiotropy is:
1. Skin color
2. Phenylketonuria
3. Colour Blindness
4. ABO Blood group

97.

If a female having gene for haemophilia and colour-blindness on one X-chromosome marries a normal male, then what are the chances in their offspring?
1. 50% sons diseased and 50% normal
2. All normal offspring
3. 100% daughters are carrier
4. 100% sons diseased

98.

Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement :

1.	Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
2.	Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis.
3.	Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules.
4.	Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules

99.

Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter:

A.	Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during the first trimester is generally safe
B.	Generally, chances of conception are nil until the mother breast-feeds the infants up to two years
C.	Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
D.	Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after coitus to prevent conception

Which two of the above statements are correct?

1.	B, C	2.	C, D
3.	A, C	4.	A, B

100.

An ideal contraceptive should not:
1. Be user friendly
2. Be effective and reversible
3. Have the least side effects
4. Interfere with sexual drive

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