Full Syllabus Test # 14 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

In a field experiment, when all Pisaster starfish were removed from an enclosed intertidal area, the result was:

1.	Increase in diversity of invertebrates
2.	Extinction of many invertebrate species
3.	Inability of the Pisaster to enter the area again
4.	Replacement of Pisaster by other starfish

2.

All the following regarding collenchyma tissue in plants are correct except:

1.	It occurs below the epidermis of stem and leaves in most monocots
2.	It is found either as a homogenous layer or in patches
3.	Cells are much thickened at the corners
4.	Intercellular spaces are absent

3. Frankia fixes atmospheric nitrogen:

1.	in the roots of non-leguminous plants like Alnus but unlike Rhizobium does not form any root nodules
2.	in the roots of leguminous plants like Soybean but unlike Rhizobium does not form any root nodules
3.	in the roots of non-leguminous plants like Alnus and like Rhizobium forms root nodules
4.	in the roots of leguminous plants like Soybean and like Rhizobium forms root nodules

4.

Secondary productivity in an ecosystem can be defined as:

1.	The amount of chemical energy, typically expressed as carbon biomass, that primary producers create in a given length of time.
2.	The rate at which all the autotrophs in an ecosystem produce net useful chemical energy.
3.	The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
4.	The amount of energy released by the action of detritivores and decomposers in an ecosystem.

5.

Energy flow and nutrient cycling are two important components of an ecosystem. What will be true comparison of the two?

1.	The amount of energy is much greater than the amount of nutrients
2.	Organisms always need nutrients, but they don't always need energy
3.	Nutrients are recycled, but energy is not
4.	Organisms always need energy, but they don't always need nutrients

6. Identify the correct statement regarding the state of plant cells shown as A, B and C in the given diagram:

	A	B	C
1.	plasmolysed	flaccid	turgid
2.	plasmolysed	turgid	flaccid
3.	flaccid	plasmolysed	turgid
4.	turgid	flaccid	plasmolysed

7.

A collection of all the alleles of all the genes of a crop plant is called:

1.	germplasm collection	2.	protoplasm collection
3.	herbarium	4.	somaclonal collection

8.

The plantlets produced during plant tissue culture are called somaclones because:

1.	They can be produced in a very short span of time
2.	They are the result of the somatic hybridization of two cells
3.	The gametes develop parthenogenetically to produce genetically identical plantlets
4.	They are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown

9.

During the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid in TCA cycle:
1. One molecule of ATP is directly synthesized
2. ${NAD}^{+}$ is reduced
3. FAD is reduced
4. One molecule of GTP is synthesized

10.

Geitonogamy is:

1.	Functionally cross–pollination but genetically autogamy
2.	Functionally autogamy but genetically cross-pollination
3.	Functionally and genetically autogamy
4.	Functionally and genetically cross-pollination

11.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A	Zygotene	a	Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B	Pachytene	b	Appearance of chiasma
C	Diplotene	c	Terminalization of chiasma
D	Diakinesis	d	Crossing over

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	c	b	d
2.	a	d	b	c
3.	a	b	c	d
4.	b	c	d	a

12.

Identify the correct fact regarding the biodiversity hot spots in the world:

1.	The current total number is 25 and 3 of these cover India
2.	The current total number is 25 and 2 of these cover India
3.	The current total number is 34 and 3 of these cover India
4.	The current total number is 34 and 2 of these cover India

13.

If each strand of a dsDNA acts as a template for a new strand, the two daughter DNAs will be:

1.	Complementary to each other
2.	Identical to the parental DNA
3.	Similar to each other
4.	Complementary to the parental DNA

14.

The sheath covering the plumule in monocotyledonous seeds is called as:

1.	Coleorrhiza	2.	Coleoptile
3.	Testa	4.	Tegmen

15. Which of the following floral character(s) is/are not applicable to the members of Family Liliaceae?

1.	Zygomorphic flower
2.	Endopermous seed
3.	Axile placentation
4.	Tricarpellary, syncarpous and superior ovary

16.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	BOD is an indirect measure of the organic matter present in the water.
II:	The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by microorganisms in a sample of water.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	Only II is correct.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

17.

For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism, it needs to be part of a chromosome that has a specific:

1.	Telomeric sequence	2.	Multiple cloning sites
3.	Ori	4.	Selectable marker

18. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	When only PS I is functional, the electron is circulated within the photosystem and the phosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons.
Statement II:	Cyclic photophosphorylation also occurs when only light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm are available for excitation.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

19. The cambial ring in the dicot stem cuts:

1.	cells that mature into secondary xylem towards pith and into secondary phloem towards periphery
2.	cells that mature into secondary xylem towards periphery and into secondary phloem towards pith
3.	cells that mature into primary xylem towards pith and into primary phloem towards periphery
4.	cells that mature into primary xylem towards periphery and into primary phloem towards pith

20. The true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell includes all the following biomolecules except:

1.	Nucleic acids	2.	Polysaccharides
3.	Lipids	4.	Proteins

21.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding true bacteria?

1.	As a group, they exhibit maximum metabolic diversity.
2.	Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur.
3.	Heterotrophic bacteria are the most abundant in nature.
4.	Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission but sometimes under favourable conditions, they produce spores.

22.

The main difference between taxonomy and systematics is that:

1.	Taxonomy is involved in the naming and classification of organisms while systematics is involved in determining evolutionary relationships between organisms
2.	Systematics is involved in the naming and classification of organisms while taxonomy is involved in determining evolutionary relationships between organisms
3.	Taxonomy is not a true science and has largely been replaced with systematics
4.	Systematics can be considered as a part of taxonomy

23.

The life cycle of Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia and kelps is:
1.Diplontic
2.Haplontic
3.Aplantic
4.Haplo-diplontic

24.

The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is:

1.	Acidic pH of stomach
2.	High temperature
3.	Alkaline pH of gut
4.	Mechanical action in the insect gut

25.

Parthenium hysterophorus:

I:	is also called as carrot grass or the gajar grass.
II:	is a common invasive species in India and came as a contaminant with wheat
III:	produces allelopathic chemicals
IV:	produces pollens that are common cause of allergies in humans

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, II and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

26.

The normal greenhouse effect is necessary for survival of life on Earth as it has raised the temperature of Earth’s surface by:

1.	- 18°C	2.	15°C
3.	33°C	4.	50°C

27.

Match each item in Column I [biocontrol agent] with one in Column II [pest controlled] and select the answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Ladybird	P.	Mosquitoes
B.	Dragonflies	Q.	Aphids
C.	Trichoderma	R.	Fungus
D.	Baculoviruses	S.	Virus

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	S	R

28.

The $C_{3}$ and $C_{4}$ photosynthesis pathways are so called because the initial carbon fixation product in them are respectively:

1.	pyruvate; malate
2.	malate; pyruvate
3.	3-phosphoglycerate; oxaloacetic acid
4.	glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate; phospho-enol-pyruvate (PEP)

29.

A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil all the following criteria except:

1.	It should be able to generate its replica
2.	It should chemically and structurally be stable
3.	It should provide scope for rapid mutations
4.	It should be able to express itself in the form of “Mendelian Characters”

30. The middle lamella of a typical plant cell:

I:	mainly consists of calcium carbonate
II:	holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together
III:	is not traversed by plasmodesmata

1.	Only II is correct
2.	Only I is incorrect
3.	I, II and III are incorrect
4.	Only II and III are correct

31.

Callus from internodal segments of tobacco stem gets proliferated only if in addition to one of the following – extracts of vascular tissues, yeast extract, coconut milk or DNA, the nutrient medium also contains:

1.	Auxins	2.	Gibberellins
3.	ABA	4.	Ethylene

32.

The sobriquet ‘terror of Bengal’ has been given to:

1.	Pistia	2.	Lemna
3.	Eichhornia	4.	Zostera

33.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding experiments on Pisum sativum by Gregor Mendel:

1.	He conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for seven years (1856-1863) and proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms.
2.	It was for the first time that statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in biology.
3.	Unfortunately his experiments had a small sampling size, which gave less credibility to the data that he collected.
4.	He investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits.

34.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1.	Triploid nutritive tissue of a seed deposited externally to the embryo sac	Perisperm
2.	The tissue that arises from the ripened ovary wall of a fruit; the fruit wall	Pericarp
3.	The natural or artificially induced production of fruit without fertilisation of ovules	Parthenocarpy
4.	Asexual reproduction where the growth and development of embryos occur without fertilization by sperm	Parthenogenesis

35.

An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of:

1.	Ectoparasitism	2.	Endopararsitism
3.	Commensalism	4.	Mutualism

Biology I - Section B

36.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular bundles.
II:	Main plant body in pteridophytes is sporophyte which is differentiated into true stem and leaves.
III:	Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

37.

Phloem transport differs from xylem transport as:

1.	Xylem transport requires active pumping at stomata, transport in phloem is passive.
2.	Phloem movement is solar powered, xylem movement occurs best in dark.
3.	Phloem carries fluid from the soil to the leaves, while xylem is the reverse.
4.	Phloem can reverse direction, depending on the activity of the "source" and "sink" of its materials but the flow in xylem is essentially unidirectional.

38. C₄ plants are special. Which of the following will be true for C₄plants?

(a)	They have a special type of leaf anatomy
(b)	They tolerate higher temperature
(c)	They show a response to high light intensities
(d)	They lack a process called photorespiration
(e)	They have greater productivity of biomass

1.	All except (e)
2.	(b), (c) and (d) only
3.	All
4.	(a), (b), (d) and (e) only

39.

The correct sequence of seral stages in primary hydrarch succession [pioneer to climax] would be:

1.	Phytoplankton, Submerged plant stage, Submerged free floating plant stage, Reed swamp stage, Marsh-meadow stage, Scrub stage, Forest
2.	Phytoplankton, Submerged free floating plant stage, Submerged plant stage, Reed swamp stage, Marsh-meadow stage, Scrub stage, Forest
3.	Phytoplankton, Submerged plant stage, Submerged free floating plant stage, Marsh-meadow stage, Reed swamp stage, Scrub stage, Forest
4.	Phytoplankton, Reed swamp stage, Marsh-meadow stage, Submerged plant stage, Submerged free floating plant stage, Scrub stage, Forest

40. Identify the correctly matched pairs:

A	Desertification	A type of land degradation in drylands in which biological productivity is lost due to natural processes or induced by human activities whereby fertile areas become increasingly arid.
B	Soil erosion	A form of soil degradation, it is the denudation of the fertile top layer of the soil.
C	Water-logging	It is the saturation of soil with water where the soil is nearly saturated with water much of the time such that its air phase is restricted and anaerobic conditions prevail.
D	Soil Salinity	It is the salt content in the soil; the process of increasing the salt content is known as salinization.

1.   Only A and B
2.   Only C and D
3.   Only B and D
4.   A, B, C and D

41. Increased yield of crop during the green revolution was due to:

I.	Use of improved crop varieties
II.	Use of better management practices
III.	Use of agrochemicals [fertilisers and pesticides]

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only I and II	4.	I, II and III

42.

What is not true regarding sexual reproduction in basidiomycetes?

1.	Sex organs are well developed
2.	Plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells of different strains or genotypes
3.	Karyogamy and meiosis take place in basidium, producing four basidiospores
4.	Basidiospores are produced exogenously on the basidium

43.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Winter varieties of wheat are planted in autumn.
II:	Spring varieties of wheat are planted in winters.

1.	Both I and II are correct
2.	Both I and II are incorrect
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct

44.

Consider the following statements:

I:	RNA is the genetic material of the QB bacteriophage.
II:	DNA chemically is less reactive and more stable than RNA.
III:	Viruses having RNA genomes and shorter life spans mutate & evolve slowly.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

45.

Match the plants in Column-I with the description of anatomy of vascular bundles in them in Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Dicot stem	a.	Collateral, closed and scattered in ground tissue
B.	Monocot stem	b.	Conjoint, collateral endarch and open
C.	Dicot root	c.	Radial, exarch and polyarch [usually more than 6]
D.	Monocot root	d.	Radial, exarch and 2 to 6 in number

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	b	a	d	c
3.	a	b	d	c
4.	b	a	c	d

46.

Identify the correct statements amongst the following:

I:	When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary
II:	In racemose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne in basipetal order
III:	In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower and flowers are borne in basipetal order

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only I and III	4.	Only II and III

47.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Human burning of fossil fuels today is creating large contemporary imbalances in the carbon cycle.
II:	It has significantly increased the rate of release of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect.
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct.

48.

Apomixis is:

I:	production of seeds without fertilization
II:	production of fruits without fertilization
III:	a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only III is correct
4. Only I and III are correct

49. After the two molecules of pyruvate, produced at the end of glycolysis from one molecule of glucose, enter the mitochondrial matrix and till the Krebs cycle is complete, which of the following will not be a correct number of the corresponding molecule produced?

1.	Eight molecules of NADH + H⁺
2.	Two molecules of FADH₂
3.	Two molecules of ATP
4.	Four molecules of carbon dioxide

50.

Consider the two statements:

I:	It is desirable to use restriction enzymes produce 'sticky ends' for cloning experiments in genetic engineering.
II:	If the donor DNA and the vector DNA are cut by such same restriction endonuclease, ligation of the two is easy.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	Only I is correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

Biology II - Section A

51.

ART in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum is known as:

1.	ZIFT	2.	GIFT
3.	SUZI	4.	ICSI

52. Unlike Arthropods, Annelids:

1.	have a true coelom lined by embryonic mesoderm
2.	have a closed circulatory system
3.	do not reproduce by sexual methods
4.	have a complete digestive system

53.

What are the structures labelled A, B, C and D respectively, in the given diagram?

1.	Mast cell, Fibroblast, Collagen, Macrophage
2.	Mast cell, Dendritic cell, Collagen, Macrophage
3.	Macrophage, Fibroblast, Elastin, Mast cell
4.	Macrophage, Fibroblast, Collagen, Mast cell

54.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Inbreeding is an important strategy in animal breeding experiments.
II:	It exposes recessive harmful genes that are eliminated by selection.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	Only I is correct.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

55. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Multipolar neuron	P.	Embryonic stage
B.	Bipolar neuron	Q.	Retina
C.	Unipolar neuron	R.	Cerebral cortex

Code:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	R	P
3.	R	Q	P
4.	R	P	Q

56.

The correct sequence of mammalian mammary gland ducts beginning from the alveoli would be:

1.	Mammary tubules → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous ducts
2.	Lactiferous ducts → Mammary ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules
3.	Lactiferous ducts → Mammary ampulla → Mammary ducts → Mammary tubules
4.	Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Mammary ducts → Lactiferous ducts

57.

The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material was provided by:

1.	Avery, Macleod, and McCarty
2.	Hershey and Chase
3.	Meselson and Stahl
4.	Watson and Crick

58.

There are 8 and 7 bones respectively in:

1.	tarsal [ankle] and carpal [wrist]
2.	carpal[wrist] and tarsal[ankle]
3.	neurocranium and facial skeleton
4.	facial skeleton and neurocranium

59. Centrosome:

1.	is a non- membrane bound organelle found in all cells which helps in cell division
2.	is a non- membrane bound organelle found in plant cells which helps in cell division
3.	is a non- membrane bound organelle found in animal cells which helps in DNA replication
4.	is a non- membrane bound organelle found in animal cells which helps in cell division

60. A disease that can be caused by the loss of the ability of the adaptive immunity to differentiate between self and non-self will be:

1.	Tuberculosis	2.	Covid-19
3.	Bronchial asthma	4.	Rheumatoid arthritis

61. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the cell cycle of a typical eukaryotic cell:

1.	The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of the cell cycle.
2.	M phase starts with the nuclear division.
3.	Interphase is the resting stage in the cell cycle where the cell is metabolically inactive.
4.	Neurons in human body are permanently in G₀ phase of the cell cycle.

62. Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called
1. Positively charged form
2. Negatively charged form
3. Neutral form
4. Zwitter ionic form

63. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Hormones act on all the cells in the human body.
Statement II:	Hormones are intercellular chemical messengers transported by blood throughout the body.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

64.

Enzymes that catalyze removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds are:

1.	Dehygdrogenases	2.	Transferases
3.	Lyases	4.	Ligases

65.

If we consider invertebrates, the maximum global biodiversity, after insects, is seen in:

1.	Crustaceans	2.	Echinoderms
3.	Mollusks	4.	Annelids

66.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilized.
II:	Lack of menstruation always indicates pregnancy.

Of the given statements, the correct statements is/are:

1.	I only	2.	II only
3.	I and II	4.	None

67. Over 95 % of all transgenic animals are:
1. Mice
2. Pigs
3. Sheep
4. Rabbits

68. Fossils are generally found in:
1. Sedimentary rocks
2. Igneous rocks
3. Metamorphic rocks
4. Any type of rock

69.

What acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism?

1.	ANF	2.	ADH
3.	Aldosterone	4.	Erythropoietin

70.

Enterokinase:

1.	stimulates bicarbonate secretion by the pancreas
2.	stimulates secretion of gastrin by the stomach
3.	converts trypsinogen into trypsin
4.	converts pepsinogen into pepsin

71.

The major mode of transport of carbon dioxide in human body is:

1.	in combination with hemoglobin
2.	in dissolved state in plasma
3.	as carboxyhemoglobin
4.	as bicarbonate

72.

On a surface ECG, the end of ventricular systole is marked by:

1.	The end of the QRS complex
2.	The beginning of T wave
3.	The end of T wave
4.	The beginning of P wave

73.

A human female who is not color blind but whose father was color blind marries a normal male. What proportion of their male progeny will have red-green color blindness?

1.	75%	2.	50%
3.	25%	4.	0%

74.

Identify the correct statement regarding the pineal gland or the hormone secreted by it:

1.	The gland is situated on the ventral side of the forebrain
2.	The hormone secreted by the gland is called as melanin
3.	The hormone regulates the diurnal rhythm of our body
4.	The hormone decreases immunity

75. Chondrichthyes:

1.	are marine animals and have cartilaginous endoskeleton
2.	have a mouth located dorsally
3.	have teeth that are modified cycloid or ctenoid scales directed backwardly
4.	have the capacity to regulate their body temperature

76.

What was added in 1987 as a pollutant to The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, [originally passed in 1981]?
1. radioactive wastes
2. CFCs
3. ground level ozone
4. noise

77. Around 200 mya, some land reptiles went back to the water to evolve into fish-like reptiles, for example:

1.	Pareiasaurus	2.	Pelycosaur
3.	Ichthyosaurus	4.	Archosaurus

78.

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes polymerization in:

1.	Only in 3’ – 5’ direction
2.	Only in 5’ – 3’ direction
3.	In both directions
4.	In neither directions

79.

Which of the following techniques is banned by law in India for pre-natal sex determination?

1.	Laparoscopy	2.	Amniocentesis
3.	Hysteroscopy	4.	MRI and CT scan

80.

Which of these statements about the ABO blood group is NOT true?

1.	A person with type O blood can donate blood to individuals with type A, B, AB, or O blood types.
2.	Transfusions should be made considering the plasma of the donor and the erythrocytes of the patient (recipient).
3.	A person with type A blood should not receive a transfusion from someone with type AB blood.
4.	A person with type O blood has both the A and B antigens.

81.

The part of the sarcomere that is composed of only myosin myofilaments is:

1.	A band	2.	I band
3.	M line	4.	H zone

82.

Cuckoos laying their eggs in the nests of crow is an example of:

1.	Ectoparasitism	2.	Endopararsitism
3.	Hyperparasitism	4.	Brood parasitism

83.

A normal cellular gene which when altered by mutation can contribute to cancer is called:

1.	Oncogene	2.	V – Onc
3.	Neoplastic gene	4.	Proto-oncogene

84.

Which of the following can be used to induce competence for getting a bacterial cell transformed during rDNA procedures?

1.	A divalent cation	2.	Ethidium bromide
3.	Polyethylene glycol	4.	Anionic proteins

85.

“Chromosomes, which are seen in all dividing cells and pass from one generation to the next, are the basis for all genetic inheritance”.
This statement is credited to:

1.	Watson and Crick	2.	Hershey and Chase
3.	Sutton and Boveri	4.	Meselson and Stahl

Biology II - Section B

86.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The head of myosin is made of LMM and the tail is made of HMM
II:	F Actin is monomeric while G actin is polymeric
III:	Tropomyosin is composed of three globular proteins

The incorrect statements are:
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

87. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Predatory fish such as swordfish and sharks or birds like osprey and eagles have higher concentrations of mercury in their tissue than what could be accounted for by direct exposure alone.
Reason (R):	Mercury [or methyl mercury] undergoes biomagnifications in aquatic food chains.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

88. Consider the given statements:

I:	Malpighian tubules are used in osmoregulation and excretion in cockroach.
II:	Malpighian tubules are present at the junction of the midgut and the hindgut in the alimentary canal of cockroach.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

89.

Match each item in Column I [part of the brain] with one in Column II [function] and select the answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Amygdala	a.	Relays motor and sensory signals to the cerebral cortex
B.	Hippocampus	b.	Reflex centers involving vision and hearing
C.	Thalamus	c.	Plays a key role in the processing of emotions
D.	Corpora quadrigemina	d.	Formation of new memories and is also associated with learning and emotions

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	c	d	b	a
2.	d	c	a	b
3.	c	d	a	b
4.	d	c	b	a

90. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width and 2-3 cm in thickness.
II:	The DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight tube called collecting duct.
III:	Each nephron has two parts – the glomerulus and the renal tubule.
IV:	The renal tubule begins with the proximal convoluted tubule.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I, II and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II, III and IV

91. Identify the number of correct statements:

I:	Polygenic inheritance takes into account the influence of the environment.
II:	In a polygenic trait, the phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele, i.e., the effect of each allele is additive.
III:	The normal distribution curve is bell-shaped in polygenic inheritance.
IV:	It is also known as quantitative inheritance.

1.	0	2.	1
3.	3	4.	4

92.

Chylomicrons are:

1.	small protein coated fat globules formed in the intestinal epithelium
2.	small protein coated fat globules formed in the lacteals of the villi
3.	small fat coated protein globules formed in the intestinal epithelium
4.	small fat coated protein globules formed in the lacteals of the villi

93. In Ctenophora:

a:	body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
b:	reproduction takes place only by asexual means.
c:	digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
d:	sexes are separate.

The correct statements are:

1.	a and c only	2.	b and d only
3.	a, b and c only	4.	a, b and d only

94.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	Corticosteroids are very effective in the management of bronchial asthma.
Reason (R):	Corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatory agents.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

95. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In the first phase of translation, it is important that the charging of tRNA in the presence of ATP takes place.
Reason (R):	The formation of a peptide bond requires energy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

96. Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that:

I:	The first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules (e.g. RNA, protein, etc.)
II:	The formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution, i.e., the formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

97.

Plasmid pUC18 carries lacZ gene that confers the host cells to convert white X-gal into blue indole. A gene is inserted within the lacZ gene of the plasmid. Bacterial cells transformed with this rDNA, if provided with X-gal in the medium, will produce:

1.	Blue colonies
2.	White colonies
3.	No colonies
4.	Orange colonies if seen through UV light

98. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Pacific salmon and bamboo breed many times during their lifetimes.
II:	Birds and mammals breed many times during their lifetimes and produce a small number of large-sized offspring.
III:	Oysters and pelagic fishes produce a large number of small-sized offspring.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

99.

At the birth of the female child, the follicles in her ovaries contain:

1.	Primary oocytes that have been arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
2.	Primary oocytes that have been arrested at prophase I of meiosis I
3.	Secondary oocytes that have been arrested prophase I of meiosis I
4.	Secondary oocytes that have been arrested at metaphase II of meiosis II

100. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source:

(a)
(b)

	Molecule	Source	Use
1.	(a) Cocaine	Erythroxylum coca	Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2.	(b) Heroin	Cannabis Sativa	Depressant and slows down body functions
3.	(b) Cannabinoid	Atropa belladonna	Produces hallucinations
4.	(a) Morphine	Papaver somniferum	Sedative and painkiller

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