Full Syllabus Test # 13 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
1. 18 – 25 °C and 150 – 400 cm
2. 5 – 15 °C and 50 – 100 cm
3. 30 - 50°C and 100 – 150 cm
4. 5 – 15 °C and 100 – 200 cm

2. All the following are examples of secondary or lateral meristems except:
1. Fascicular vascular cambium
2. Intercalary meristem
3. Interfascicular meristem
4. Cork cambium

3.

Identify the incorrectly matched essential mineral nutrient in plants [Column I] with function [Column II]:

	COLUMN I	COLUMN II
1.	Zinc	Synthesis of auxin
2.	Copper	Activation of enzymes of respiration
3.	Boron	Carbohydrate translocation
4.	Chlorine	Ionic balance

4.

The three steps of decomposition occur:
1. sequentially, with catabolism being the last step.
2. sequentially, with leaching being the last step.
3. simultaneously.
4. sequentially, but not in a particular order.

5. A functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical environment, is called as:

1.	A population	2.	A species
3.	A biological community	4.	An ecosystem

6.

A column of water in the xylem even in a tall tree normally does not sink because of its weight due to:

1.	the exceptionally large diameter of vessels.
2.	bubbles too large to be transported even through the pits.
3.	the presence of strong ion concentrations near the top of the tree.
4.	the tensile strength of a column of water.

7.

A collection of all the alleles of all the genes of a crop plant is called:

1.	germplasm collection	2.	protoplasm collection
3.	herbarium	4.	somaclonal collection

8.

The algae Spirulina, Chlorella and the microbe Methylophilus methylotrophus can be used as a source of:

1.	Vitamin A and C	2.	Minerals like calcium
3.	Single Cell Protein	4.	Omega 3 fatty acids

9.

The stage of cellular respiration that directly involves oxygen is:

1.	glycolysis
2.	at the end of ETC
3.	Krebs cycle
4.	the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP

10.

In over 60 % of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at:

1.	2-celled stage	2.	3-celled stage
3.	4-celled stage	4.	1-celled stage

11.

During diakinesis of prophase I:
I. Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place.
II. Meiotic spindle is assembled.
III. Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear membrane breaks down.
The correct statements are:

1.	I, II and III	2.	I and II only
3.	I and III only	4.	II and III only

12. The biodiversity hotspots in India include all the following except:
1. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2. Indo-Burma
3. Himalayas
4. Deccan plateau

13.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Organism	Length of DNA
1.	Bacteriophage ϕ 174	5386 base pairs
2.	Bacteriophage Lambda	48502 base pairs
3.	Escherichia coli	4 × 10⁶ base pairs
4.	Human beings	3.3 × 10⁹ base pairs

14.

The stems of maize and sugarcane have:

1.	stilt roots that are hanging and supporting structures
2.	prop roots that are hanging and supporting structures
3.	prop roots coming out from the nodes in upper stem
4.	supporting stilt roots coming out of the lower nodes of the stem

15.

In mango, the fruit is:

1.	drupe and mesocarp is fleshy and edible
2.	drupe and mesocarp is fibrous
3.	berry and mesocarp is fleshy and edible
4.	berry and mesocarp is fibrous

16.

‘Toddy’, a traditional drink of some parts in southern India, is made by fermenting sap from:

1.	Soyabean	2.	Bamboo shoots
3.	Palms	4.	Sugarcane

17.

Bioprocessing engineering deals with:

1.	the search for plant and animal species from which medicinal drugs and other commercially valuable compounds can be obtained.
2.	developing methods and software tools for understanding biological data.
3.	production of active pharmaceutical substances in genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
4.	maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering processes.

18.

The wavelengths of light most useful in photosynthesis are:

1.	green and orange	2.	red and blue
3.	infrared and yellow	4.	red and green

19. During secondary growth, the meristem that arises within the cortex is called as:

1. pith meristem	2. cork cambium
3. cortex cambium	4. vascular cambium

20. Consider the given two statements:

I:	Gingelly oil remains as oil in winters.
II:	The fatty acid components of the oil are all saturated.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not correctly explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct

21.

Potato Spindle Tuber Disease is caused by a pathogen that is:

1.	A nucleocapsid
2.	A low molecular weight free RNA
3.	An abnormally folded protein
4.	A protozoan

22.

A store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets is called as:
1. Herbarium
2. Flora
3. Catalogues
4. Manuals

23.

Which of the following statements would be true for brown algae?

1.	Major pigments are chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin.
2.	Food is stored as floridean starch.
3.	Vegetative cells have wall made of cellulose, pectin and polysulphate esters.
4.	Flagellar number and insertions are 2, equal and apical.

24.

The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis is:

1.	Acidic pH of stomach
2.	High temperature
3.	Alkaline pH of gut
4.	Mechanical action in the insect gut

25.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Genetic diversity	a.	Western ghats have greater amphibian diversity than eastern ghats
B.	Species diversity	b.	India has more than 50000 genetically different strains of rice
C.	Ecological diversity	c.	India has more ecosystems than Norway

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	a	b	c
2.	b	a	c
3.	c	b	a
4.	b	c	a

26.

The world’s most problematic aquatic weed, “The terror of Bengal”, is the name given to:

1.	Zostera	2.	Ceratophyllum
3.	Eichhornia	4.	Parthenium

27.

Cyclosporin A is used as a/an:

1.	immuno-suppressive agent in organ transplant patients
2.	clot buster to remove clots from the vessels in heart attack patients
3.	treatment option in advance for HIV infections
4.	agent that lowers blood cholesterol levels

28.

The NADP reductase enzyme is located:

1.	within the thylakoid membrane
2.	on the stroma side of the thylakoid membrane
3.	on the lumen side of the thylakoid membrane
4.	in the thylakoid lumen

29.

The protein synthesizing machinery of a cell has evolved around:

1.	DNA	2.	RNA
3.	Protein itself	4.	Viroids

30. A Prokaryotic cell lacks:
I: a membrane bound nucleus
II: membrane bound organelles
III: ribosomes

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I
3.	Only II and III	4.	Only III

31.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	PGR	Chemical nature
1.	Auxins	Indole compounds
2.	Cytokinin	Pyrimidine derivatives
3.	ABA	Carotenoid derivative
4.	Gibberellic acid	Terpenes

32.

Match vegetative propagules in COLUMN I with plants in COLUMN II and select the correct option from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A.	Rhizome	a.	Bryophyllum
B.	Bulbil	b.	Eichhornia
C.	Leaf buds	c.	Ginger
D.	Offset	d.	Agave

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	d	c	b	a
3.	c	d	a	b
4.	b	a	d	c

33.

What is F₂ phenotypic ratio in a dihybrid cross?

1.	1 : 1	2.	3 : 1
3.	9 : 3 : 3 : 1	4.	1 : 1 : 1: 1

34.

A typical angiosperm embryosac, at maturity, is:

1.	8 celled and 8 nucleate	2.	8 celled and 7 nucleate
3.	7 celled and 8 nucleate	4.	7 celled and 7 nucleate

35. Niche of an organism includes:

I:	range of conditions that it can tolerate
II:	diversity in the resources it utilises
III:	its distinct functional role in the ecological system

1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

Biology I - Section B

36.

Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperms:

I:	there is development of ovule and later the seed
II:	pollen tubes carry male gametes to archegonia
III:	gametophytes do not have an independent free living existence

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

37.

What is incorrect regarding apoplast transport in plants?
1. The apoplast is formed by the continuum of cell walls of adjacent cells as well as the extracellular spaces.
2. Transport velocity is lower in the apoplast than in the symplast.
3. Apoplast transport also accounts for a higher proportion of water transport in plant tissues than does symplastic transport.
4. The apoplastic pathway is also involved in passive exclusion.

38. What would be true for the events shown in the given diagram?

I:	A possible location where this could be happening is in the stroma lamellae.
II:	While the membrane or lamellae of the grana have both PS I and PS II, the stroma lamellae membranes lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

39. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Most ecosystems would vanish if the sun were not, continuously, providing energy to the Earth.
Reason (R):	Ecosystems and living organisms defy second law of thermodynamics.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

40.

If there was no green house effect:

1.	Earth would have been too cold for many organisms to survive
2.	The diversity on Earth would have been much higher
3.	The primary productivity would have been much higher
4.	Earth would not have any atmosphere

41. The source of complementary RNA for RNAi in a eukaryotic cell could be:

I:	An infection by viruses having RNA genomes
II:	Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate
III:	Integration of phage DNA into the main chromosomal DNA of a eukaryotic cell

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

42.

Match the class of fungi in Column I with representative examples in Column II and select the correct option:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Phycomycetes	P.	Morels and truffles
B.	Ascomycetes	Q.	Alternaria, Trichoderma
C.	Basidiomycetes	R.	Bread mould and Albugo
D.	Deuteromycetes	S.	Smut and rust fungi

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	S	Q
2.	R	S	P	Q
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	R	P	S	Q

43. How many of the following can be characterized as action of gibberellins on plants?

I:	They can be used to increase the length of grape stalks.
II:	They can elongate and improve the shape of apple.
III:	They speed up malting process in brewing industry.
IV:	They hasten the maturity period of juvenile conifers.
V:	They promote bolting in many plants with rosette habit.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	For long DNA molecules, the replication occurs within a small opening of the DNA helix, referred to as the replication fork.
Reason (R):	The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

45.

In conjoint type of vascular bundles:

I:	xylem and phloem are jointly situated on the same radius of vascular bundles.
II:	xylem is usually located on the outer side of the phloem.

1.	Only I is correct	2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both are correct	4.	Both are incorrect

46. Match Column-I with Column-II

	Column I		Column II
(a)		(i)	Brassicaceae
(b)		(ii)	Liliaceae
(c)		(iii)	Fabaceae
(d)		(iv)	Solanaceae

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)

47.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Ecosystem service	Cost out of total [%]
1.	Soil formation	50
2.	Nutrient cycling	10
3.	Climate regulation	6
4.	Habitat for wildlife	3

48.

During artificial hybridization in plant breeding experiments, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers:

1.	Emasculation should be done before the dehiscence of the anther
2.	Emasculation should be done after the dehiscence of the anther
3.	Emasculation is not needed
4.	They cannot be used in plant breeding experiments

49. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Respiratory Complex	Pathway for electron transport
1.	NADH dehydrogenase	NADH – FMN – [Fe-S] – Q
2.	Succinic dehydrogenase	FADH₂ – FMN - Q
3.	Cytochrome bc₁	Cyt b – [Fe-S] – Cyt c₁
4.	Cytochrome c oxidase	Cu_A – Cyt a – Cyt a₃ – Cu_B

50.

How does the bacterium protects its own DNA from the action of restriction endonucleases present in its cytoplasm?

1.	its DNA lacks active sites for the restriction endonucleases
2.	its DNA is protected within a nuclear envelope
3.	it adds methyl groups to the active sites of restriction endonucleases on its DNA
4.	the DNA gets heterochromatised to prevent the action of restriction enzymes

Biology II - Section A

51.

What is transferred into the fallopian tube in ZIFT?

1.	Zygote only
2.	Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres
3.	Zygote or embryos with up to 8 blastomeres
4.	All of the above can be transferred during ZIFT

52. Consider the following statements regarding roundworms:

Statement I:	Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
Statement II:	An excretory tube removes body wastes from the body cavity through the excretory pore.
Statement III:	They are dioecious and males are longer than females.

The incorrect statement is/are:

1.	Only Statement II
2.	Only Statement III
3.	Only Statement I and Statement II
4.	Only Statement II and Statement III

53.

Tendons and ligaments are examples of:

1.	Loose connective tissue
2.	Dense irregular connective tissue
3.	Dense regular connective tissue
4.	Specialized connective tissue

54.

Hisardale is a new breed of:

1.	Sheep developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
2.	Sheep developed by crossing Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes.
3.	Goat developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.
4.	Goat developed by crossing Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes.

55. Each time the sodium-potassium pump functions, it actively transports:

1.	3 sodium ions outwards and 2 potassium ions into the cell.
2.	3 sodium ions into the cells and 2 potassium outwards.
3.	2 sodium ions outwards and 3 potassium ions into the cell.
4.	2 sodium ions into the cells and 3 potassium ions outwards.

56.

The correct sequence of male sex accessory ducts beginning from testis would be:

1.	rete testis → vasa efferentia → epididymis → vas deferens
2.	rete testis → vas deferens → vasa eﬀerentia → epididymis
3.	vas deferens → vasa eﬀerentia → epididymis → rete testis
4.	vasa efferentia → vasa deferens → epididymis → rete testis

57.

Which of the following is not a feature of the double helix model of DNA?

1.	The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
2.	A purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
3.	The pitch of the DNA is 3.4 nm
4.	The two chains are coiled in a left handed fashion

58.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Each limb in humans has 30 bones.
2.	Metacarpals are 8 in number while the metatarsals are 7 in number.
3.	Patella forms the knee cap.
4.	Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

59.

The component molecules of the cell membrane have two main parts, the head and the tail. These parts are either hydrophobic (repelled by water) or hydrophilic (attracted to water). Which is which?

1.	Hydrophilic Head and Hydrophobic Tail
2.	Both Hydrophobic
3.	Hydrophilic Tail and Hydrophobic Head
4.	Both Hydrophilic

60.

Malignant tertian malaria is caused by Plasmodium:

1.	vivax	2.	ovale
3.	falciparum	4.	malariae

61.

The beginning of diplotene is recognized by:

I:	dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
II:	the tendency of recombined homologues of bivalents to separate
III:	tetrads becoming clearly visible

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II, and III

62.

Chitin, a complex polysaccharide, is found in:

1.	Plant cell wall
2.	The exoskeleton of arthropods and cell walls of most fungi
3.	Bacterial cell wall
4.	Cartilage and other connective tissues

63.

Some hormones can act on their target cells through second messengers. Identify the one that does not:

1.	cortisol	2.	adrenaline
3.	FSH	4.	calcitonin

64. A pyrimidine found uniquely in DNA is:

1.	Uracil	2.	Thymine
3.	Cytosine	4.	Guanine

65. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Biodiversity is the term popularised by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organisation.
2.	IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.
3.	Robert May places the global species diversity in the range of 20 to 50 million.
4.	More than 25 percent of the drugs currently sold in the market are derived from the plants.

66.

Which hormone is mainly secreted by the developing follicles during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

1.	LH	2.	FSH
3.	Progesterone	4.	Estrogen

67. Over 95 % of all transgenic animals are:
1. Mice
2. Pigs
3. Sheep
4. Rabbits

68.

The wings of birds, the forelegs of a horse, and the upper limbs of humans are:

1.	analogous structures	2.	homologous structures
3.	vestigial structures	4.	phylogenetic structures

69.

What is the number of times that the human kidneys can maximally concentrate the initial filtrate?

1.	2	2.	4
3.	6	4.	8

70.

The function of human gall bladder would be that it:
1. Synthesizes bile
2. Stores and concentrates bile
3. Secretes secretin
4. Secretes cholecystokinin

71.

Which of the following will not be equal in normal physiological conditions?

1.	Partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood and partial pressure of oxygen in tissues
2.	Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in oxygenated blood
3.	Partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood and partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli
4.	Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in tissues and partial pressure of carbon dioxide in deoxygenated blood

72.

The first heart sound is heard during:

1.	beginning of ventricular systole
2.	end of ventricular systole
3.	atrial systole
4.	ventricular ejection

73. A male with genotype AABBCC and a very dark complexion mates with a female with genotype aabbcc and a very fair complexion. What is the probability of their progeny being born with an intermediate skin colour type?
1. 6/64
2. 15/64
3. 20/64
4. 1/64

74.

Diabetes insipidus, characterized by water loss and dehydration, is caused by:
1. Hyposecretion of ADH
2. Hypersecretion of ADH
3. Hyposecretion of insulin
4. Hypersecretion of insulin

75. Regarding reproduction in Cyclostomes:

I:	They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
II:	After spawning, within a few days, they die.
III:	Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to the ocean.

1.	Only II is correct
2.	Only I and II are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

76.

The most effective device to remove particulate matter from polluted air is:
1. electrostatic precipitator
2. cyclonic separator
3. trajectory separator
4. scrubber

77.

For the stability of the organic compounds, Oparin opined that, probably:

1.	UV radiation never reached the surface of the primeval Earth
2.	the primeval Earth was in a molten state
3.	the primeval Earth atmosphere was reducing rather than oxidizing
4.	plenty of energy sources were available for chemical reactions to occur

78.

Prior to the work of Avery, Macleod, and McCarty, the genetic material was thought to be:

1.	DNA	2.	RNA
3.	Protein	4.	Nucleotide

79.

Which of the following IUDs is non-medicated?

1.	Lippes loop	2.	Cu – T
3.	Cu – 7	4.	LNG – 20

80.

To prevent eryhtroblastosis fetalis in future pregnancies:

1.	Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery
2.	Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
3.	Rh Antigens must be given to new born at the time of each delivery
4.	Anti Antigens must be given to Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery

81.

ATPase activity is found in:

1.	Myosin head	2.	Myosin tail
3.	G-Actin	4.	Troponin

82.

As a part of their reproductive strategy, pelagic fishes:

1.	Produce a large number of small-sized offspring
2.	Produce a small number of small-sized offspring
3.	Produce a large number of large-sized offspring
4.	Produce a small number of large-sized offspring

83.

What constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in the human body?

1.	Malt	2.	Spleen
3.	Lymph nodes	4.	Liver

84.

Elution is:

1.	separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel
2.	staining the separated DNA fragments with ethidium bromide
3.	cutting out of the separated bands of DNA from the agarose gel and extracting them from the gel piece
4.	constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA fragments to the cloning vector

85.

Morgan, in his experiment on fruit flies, found that the genes white and yellow were very tightly linked and showed:

1.	50 % recombination	2.	37.2 % recombination
3.	12.5 % recombination	4.	1.3 % recombination

Biology II - Section B

86. The given figure shows stages in cross bridge formation, rotation of head and breaking of cross bridge during muscle contraction. Select the correct match for A, B and C from the codes given:

I:	Sliding or rotation	A
II:	Breaking of cross bridge	B
III:	Formation of cross bridge	C

Codes:

	I	II	III
1.	B	A	C
2.	B	C	A
3.	A	B	C
4.	C	A	B

87.

CFC have a continuing effect on ozone layer as:

1.	the Cl atoms formed by them only act as catalysts in reactions causing degradation of ozone
2.	the Cl atoms formed by them are used up in reactions causing degradation of ozone
3.	they are being produced in increasing amounts all over the world
4.	they are efficiently absorbed by the atmospheric water vapours

88.

Match the following columns with reference to cockroach and select the correct option :

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Grinding of the food particles	(i)	Hepatic caeca
(b)	Secrete gastric juice	(ii)	10th segment
(c)	10 pairs	(iii)	Proventriculus
(d)	Anal cerci	(iv)	Spiracles
		(v)	Alary muscles

Options:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(v)	(ii)
3.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)

89. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The point where the optic nerve leaves the human eyeball is called as the blind spot.
Statement II:	This area has only cones with highest visual acuity in human eye.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

90. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width and 2-3 cm in thickness.
II:	The DCTs of many nephrons open into a straight tube called collecting duct.
III:	Each nephron has two parts – the glomerulus and the renal tubule.
IV:	The renal tubule begins with the proximal convoluted tubule.

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I, II and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II, III and IV

91. Consider the given statements:

I:	Where a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions, such a gene is called a pleiotropic gene.
II:	The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a gene on metabolic pathways which contribute towards different phenotypes.
III:	Phenylketonuria is caused by a defect in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase and manifests itself through phenotypic expression characterised by mental retardation and a reduction in hair and skin pigmentation.

1.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement III is incorrect.
2.	Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct, Statement III is incorrect.
3.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect, Statement III is correct.
4.	Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement III is correct.

92.

Sufficient calorie intake but with insufficient protein intake, edema and an enlarged liver with fatty infiltrates characterize the disorder:
1. Kwashiorkor
2. Marasmus
3. Bulimia
4. Anorexia nervosa

93.

In Amphibia:

I:	Skin is moist without scales
II:	A tympanum represents the ear
III:	Fertilization is external

1.	Only I and II are correct	2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct	4.	I, II, and III are correct

94.

The duration of inspiration can be reduced by:

1.	an increase of carbon dioxide in blood
2.	a chemical signal from aortic and carotid bodies
3.	a neural signal from pneumotaxic center
4.	an increase in hydrogen ion concentration in CSF

95.

Consider the following statements:

I:	All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with the coding strand.
II:	It is the presence of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.
III:	Exons are said to be sequences that do not appear in mature or processed RNA.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

96. Identify A-F in the figure showing the representative evolutionary history of vertebrates through geological periods:

	A	B	C	D	E	F
1.	Thecodonts	Sauropsids	Therapsids	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Dinosaurs
2.	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Sauropsids	Dinosaurs	Therapsids	Thecodonts
3.	Sauropsids	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Thecodonts	Therapsids	Dinosaurs
4.	Therapsids	Synapsids	Pelycosaurs	Dinosaurs	Sauropsids	Thecodonts

97.

Gene cloning occurs:

1.	when a phage transfers bacterial DNA from one bacterium to another.
2.	when a bacterium takes up DNA from the surrounding fluid.
3.	when a bacterium carrying a recombinant plasmid reproduces, thus allowing for the production of multiple copies of the recombinant plasmid.
4.	when DNA is produced from an RNA template.

98.

Consider the given statements regarding competition amongst organisms:

I:	Only related species can compete for the same resource
II:	Competition occurs only when the resources are limiting

The correct statement/s is/are:

1.	I alone	2.	II alone
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

99.

The signals of fetal ejection reflex originate from:
1. Maternal pituitary
2. Maternal hypothalamus
3. Fully developed fetus and placenta
4. Fetal pituitary

100. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Biological response modifiers like alpha interferon can help detection and destruction of tumour cells by the immune system.
Reason (R):	Such biological response modifiers activate the immune system of the patient.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

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