Full Syllabus Test # 11 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

The most ecologically relevant environmental factor is:

1.	Temperature	2.	Water
3.	Light	4.	Soil

2.

In stems:

1.	the primary xylem is endarch with protoxylem towards the center and metaxylem towards the periphery
2.	the primary xylem is endarch with metaxylem towards the center and protoxylem towards the periphery
3.	the primary xylem is exarch with protoxylem towards the center and metaxylem towards the periphery
4.	the primary xylem is exarch with metaxylem towards the center and protoxylem towards the periphery

3.

Match the element with its associated functions/roles and choose the correct option among given below:

A. Boron	i. Splitting of H₂O to liberate O₂ during photosynthesis
B. Manganese	ii. Needed for synthesis of auxins
C. Molybdenum	iii. Component of nitrogenase
D. Zinc	iv. Pollen germination
E. Iron	v. Component of ferredoxin

Options:

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	i	ii	iii	iv	v
2.	iv	i	iii	ii	v
3.	iii	ii	iv	v	i
4.	ii	iii	v	i	iv

4.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	In most ecosystems, all the ecological pyramids are largely upright.
II:	Pyramid of energy can be a notable exception to the above rule.

1. Both I and II are correct.
2. Both I and II are incorrect.
3. Only II is correct.
4. Only I is correct.

5.

The three steps of decomposition occur:
1. sequentially, with catabolism being the last step.
2. sequentially, with leaching being the last step.
3. simultaneously.
4. sequentially, but not in a particular order.

6.

The evolution of C4 photosynthetic system is probably one of the strategies for:

1.	maximizing the availability of oxygen in spite of continuing high amount of water loss
2.	maximizing availability of water in spite of continuing high amount of carbon dioxide loss
3.	reducing the amount of water loss but leads to decreased availability of carbon dioxide
4.	maximizing the availability of carbon dioxide while minimizing water loss

7.

Identify the option where all columns are correctly matched:

	Crop	Variety	Resistant to
1.	Rapeseed mustard	Pusa Sawani	Shoot and fruit borer
2.	Chilli	Himgiri	Chilli mosaic virus
3.	Cauliflower	Pusa Shubhra	Bacterial blight
4.	Flat bean	Pusa Sem 2	Aphids

8.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	An effective germplasm collection is the prerequisite of any successful plant breeding programme.
II:	Genetic variability is the root of any breeding programme.

1. Both I and II are true and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are true but II does not explain I.
3. I is true but II is false.
4. I is false but II is true.

9. What process in aerobic respiration generates maximum ATP?
1. substrate-level phosphorylation
2. chemiosmosis
3. Krebs cycle
4. Pyruvate decarboxylation

10.

Tapetum:

1.	is the outermost layer in the wall of microsporangium
2.	helps in the protection of the pollen grains
3.	helps in dehiscence of anther
4.	has cells that generally have more than one nucleus

11.

Liquid endosperm in coconut forms due to:

1.	Failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis
2.	Failure of karyokinesis before cytokinesis
3.	Disruption of spindle fibers at metaphase
4.	Continued DNA replication during cytokinesis

12.

The rivet popper hypothesis was given by:

1.	Humboldt	2.	Ehlrich
3.	Tilman	4.	Tansley

13.

The discontinuously synthesized DNA fragments are later joined by:

1.	DNA helicase	2.	Topoisomerase
3.	DNA ligase	4.	DNA polymerase

14. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Phyllotaxy]		Column II [Example]
A.	Alternate	P.	Alstonia
B.	Opposite	Q.	Calotropis and Guava
C.	Whorled	R.	China rose, Mustard and Sunflower

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	P	R	Q
3.	R	Q	P
4.	Q	P	R

15.

If the fruit is formed without the fertilization of ovary, it is called as:

1.	Parthenogenetic	2.	Parthenocarpic
3.	Aggregate	4.	False

16.

Large holes in Swiss cheese are the result of fermentation by:
1. Streptococcus salivarius
2. Propionibacterium shermanii
3. Lactobacillus helveticus
4. Lactobacillus delbrueckii

17.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding restriction endonucleases:

1.	They mostly cut dsDNA at specific base sequences.
2.	They are produced by bacterial cells as a mechanism of self-defence.
3.	They digest DNA by removing nucleotides from a free 3' end.
4.	They often generate short single-stranded sequences at the ends of the resultant fragments.

18. In the chloroplast:

Statement I:	The membrane system is the site of enzymatic reactions leading to synthesis of sugar.
Statement II:	The stroma is responsible for trapping the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

19. The non-technical term Bark in an old woody stem does not include:

1.	Cork	2.	Secondary phloem
3.	Secondary cortex	4.	Vascular cambium

20.

The given compound:

1.	is a storage product in archaea
2.	is the source of energy in fungi
3.	is present in the cell walls of gram negative bacteria
4.	is a structural component of plasma membrane

21.

Which of the following is not a character of Ascomycetes?

1.	Mycelium is unbranched and septate
2.	Asexual spores conidia are produced exogenously
3.	Sexual spores called ascospores are produced endogenously
4.	Conidia on germination produce mycelium

22.

Consider the following statements:
I. Unicellular organisms grow by cell division.
II. Growth in all multicellular organisms by cell division occurs only up to a certain age.
III. Non-living objects do not exhibit growth
The incorrect statement/s is/are:

1. I only	2. III only
3. II only	4. II and III only

23. In brown algae:

I.	Asexual reproduction is by biflagellate zoospores that are pear shaped and have two unequal and laterally attached flagella.
II.	The gametes are pyriform [pear shaped] and bear two laterally attached flagella.

1. Both I and II are incorrect
2. Only I is incorrect
3. Only I is correct
4. Both I and II are correct

24. GM crops have been modified with various traits. Golden rice has been developed by the International Rice Research Institute for:
1. Improved shelf life
2. Disease resistance
3. Herbicide resistance
4. Improved nutritional value

25.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Species diversity seen in tropical areas is much lower than that seen in temperate areas.
II:	Temperate areas, unlike tropical areas are less seasonal, more constant and promote niche specialization.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

26.

The world’s most problematic aquatic weed, “The terror of Bengal”, is the name given to:

1.	Zostera	2.	Ceratophyllum
3.	Eichhornia	4.	Parthenium

27.

Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for:

1.	Species-specific, narrow-spectrum insecticidal applications
2.	Species-specific, broad-spectrum insecticidal applications
3.	Biocontrol of fungal diseases
4.	Biocontrol of aphids and mosquitoes

28.

The primary ${CO}_{2}$ acceptor in $C_{4}$ plants is:

1.	RuBP in mesophyll cells
2.	RuBP in bundle sheath cells
3.	PEP in mesophyll cells
4.	PEP in bundle sheath cells

29. Which of the following acts as a ribozyme for peptide bond formation in bacteria?
1. 5s rRNA
2. 23s rRNA
3. 16s rRNA
4. 5.1s rRNA

30. Mesosomes, extensions of plasma membrane into the cell, help bacterium in all the following processes except:
1. Photosynthesis in cyanobacteria
2. Respiration
3. DNA replication
4. Cell wall formation

31.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Scientist	PGR discovery
1.	Cousins	Ethylene
2.	Kurosawa	Gibberellin
3.	Skoog and Miller	ABA
4.	F. W. Went	Auxin

32.

Match the asexual reproductive structure in COLUMN I with organisms in COLUMN II and select the correct option from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A.	Zoospore	a.	Penicillium
B.	Conidia	b.	Chlamydomonas
C.	Buds	c.	Sponge
D.	Gemmule	d.	Hydra

Options:	(A)	(B)	(C)	(D)
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	d	c	b	a
3.	c	d	a	b
4.	b	a	d	c

33.

The inheritance of flower colour in dog flower and 4’O clock plant exhibits:

1.	Complete dominance	2.	Incomplete dominance
3.	Co-dominance	4.	Lethality

34. What guides the entry of the pollen tube though the micropyle into the embryo sac in the angiosperms?
1. Antipodals
2. Filiform apparatus in synergids
3. The egg cell
4. Polar nuclei

35.

Nicotine, caffeine, quinine and opium produced by plants are actually:

1.	Primary metabolites needed in reproduction
2.	Secondary metabolites needed for growth
3.	Alkaloids that are present in seeds
4.	Defenses against grazers and browsers

Biology I - Section B

36.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	Heterospory in some pteridophytes paved the way for the evolution of seeds in higher plants.
Reason (R):	The megaspores and microspores in heterosporous ferns give rise to female and male gametophytes respectively.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

37.

Phloem transport differs from xylem transport as:

1.	Xylem transport requires active pumping at stomata, transport in phloem is passive.
2.	Phloem movement is solar powered, xylem movement occurs best in dark.
3.	Phloem carries fluid from the soil to the leaves, while xylem is the reverse.
4.	Phloem can reverse direction, depending on the activity of the "source" and "sink" of its materials but the flow in xylem is essentially unidirectional.

38. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Green house crops such as tomatoes and bell pepper are allowed to grow in carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere. This leads to higher yields.
Statement II:	C₃ plants respond to higher carbon dioxide concentration by showing increased rates of photosynthesis, leading to higher productivity.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

39.

Regarding phosphorus cycle:

I:	There is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere
II:	Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall of phosphorus is small

1. Only I is true.
2. Only II is true.
3. Both I and II are true.
4. Both I and II are false.

40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Soil erosion rate increases due to deforestation.
Reason (R):	Deforestation decreases the amount of litter cover, which provides protection from surface runoff.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Conventional breeding is not the answer if we want to increase yield in the existing crop varieties.
Reason (R):	The existing crop varieties have evolved into new species and traditional hybridisation is not possible now.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

42.

Cyanobacteria:

I:	are eubacteria
II:	have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
III:	can fix atmospheric nitrogen

1. Only III is correct
2. Only I and II are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

43. Consider the given two statements:

I:	Vernalisation enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity.
II:	It prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing season.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect but II is correct

44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Lactose is the inducer of the lac operon in E.coli.
Reason (R):	Lactose is the inhibitor of the lac operon.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

45. Consider the given two statements:

I.	In secondary growth in dicot stems, the amount of secondary phloem produced is more than secondary xylem
II.	The cambium is generally more active on the outer side than the inner

1.	Both I and II are true and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are true but II does not explain I
3.	I is true but II is false
4.	Both I and II are false

46. Mark true (T) or false (F) for the given statements:

Statement I:	Tap root of sweet potato and adventitious roots of carrot, turnip get swollen and store food.
Statement II:	Prop roots are hanging and supporting structures in a banyan tree.
Statement III:	Stilt root arising from the uppermost nodes in stems of maize and sugarcane are also supporting roots.
Statement IV:	Pneumatophores help plants like Rhizophora growing in swampy areas to get oxygen for respiration.

	I	II	III	IV
1.	T	T	F	F
2.	F	T	F	T
3.	T	F	T	F
4.	F	F	T	T

47.

In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called as its:

1.	Gross Primary productivity
2.	Net Primary productivity
3.	Secondary productivity
4.	Non productivity

48.

Plants have developed many mechanisms to encourage cross-pollination that include:

I:	Asynchrony between pollen release and stigma receptivity
II:	Placing of pollen and stigma at different positions
III:	Self-incompatibility
IV:	Dioecy

What would be true regarding these mechanisms?

1.	I and II prevent autogamy and geitonogamy
2.	III is a genetic mechanism that inhibits pollen germination or pollen tube growth
3.	IV is a very common [found in the majority] mechanism seen in flowering plants
4.	I, II, and III invariably lead to xenogamy

49.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Component of ETC	Name
1.	Complex I	NADH dehydrogenase
2.	Complex II	Succinate dehydrogenase
3.	Complex III	Cytochrome b₆f complex
4.	Complex IV	Cytochrome c oxidase

50. Two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology are:

A:	Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material, to introduce these into host organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism.
B:	Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical engineering process to enable growth of only the desired microbes/eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the manufacture of biotechnological products.

1.	A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is called as Biophysical engineering.
2.	A is called as Genomics and B is called as Bioprocess engineering.
3.	A is called as Genetic Engineering and B is called as Bioprocess engineering.
4.	A is called as Genomics and B is called as Biophysical engineering.

Biology II - Section A

51.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select your answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	IUI	a.	injection of washed sperm into the uterus with a catheter
B.	ZIFT	b.	an egg fertilized in vitro (outside the body) is placed into a woman's fallopian tube
C.	GIFT	c.	eggs are removed from a woman's ovaries, and placed in one of the Fallopian tubes, along with the man's sperm
D.	ICSI	d.	injection of a single sperm directly into a mature egg

Codes :

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	d	b	c	a
3.	a	c	b	d
4.	d	c	b	a

52. Unlike Arthropods, Annelids:

1.	have a true coelom lined by embryonic mesoderm
2.	have a closed circulatory system
3.	do not reproduce by sexual methods
4.	have a complete digestive system

53.

The cells in areolar loose connective tissue that can secrete histamine are:

1.	Fibroblasts	2.	Macrophages
3.	Mast cells	4.	Basophils

54.

A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance genes: tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-recombinant transformants would survive on the medium containing:

1.	ampicillin but not tetracycline
2.	tetracycline but not ampicillin
3.	both tetracycline and ampicillin
4.	neither tetracycline nor ampicillin

55.

From outside to inside, the correct sequence of cells in the inner layer of human retina will be:
1. Photoreceptor cells, Bipolar cells, Ganglion cells
2. Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells, Photoreceptor cells
3. Photoreceptor cells, Ganglion cells, Bipolar cells
4. Ganglion cells, Photoreceptor cells, Bipolar cells

56.

Leydig cells:

1.	Are present in seminiferous tubules and secrete androgens
2.	Are present in seminiferous tubules and help in the maturation of sperms
3.	Are present in interstitial space and secrete androgens
4.	Are present in interstitial space and help in the maturation of sperms

57.

The last of 24 human chromosomes to be sequenced was:
1. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2003
2. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2006
3. Chromosome X and completed in 2003
4. Chromosome X and completed in 2006

58.

Pain and inflammation that occur when too much uric acid crystallizes and deposits in the joints are known as:

1.	gout	2.	osteoarthritis
3.	osteoporosis	4.	rheumatoid arthritis

59.

Which of the following statements would not be applicable to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in a eukaryotic cell?

1.	Frequently observed in cells actively involved in protein synthesis and secretion
2.	Bear ribosomes on their surface
3.	Continuous with the outer membrane of the nucleus
4.	Sites of synthesis of steroidal hormones

60.

The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are found in:
1. liver of the person
2. RBCs of mosquito
3. salivary glands of the mosquito
4. gut of the mosquito

61.

Consider the following key events:

I:	Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
II:	Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.

The stage of mitosis characterized by these key events is:

1.	Prophase	2.	Metaphase
3.	Anaphase	4.	Telophase

62. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Iodine test can detect the presence of starch but not of cellulose in a given sample.
Statement II:	Starch forms helical secondary structure and can hold iodine molecules while cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II correctly explains Statement I
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not correctly explain Statement I
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

63. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Cholecystokinin	P.	Stimulates the secretion of HCl and pepsinogen by gastric glands
B.	Secretin	Q.	Acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions
C.	Gastrin	R.	Acts on both exocrine pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice
D.	Gastric inhibitory peptide	S.	Inhibits gastric secretion and motility and has no effect on exocrine pancreas

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	R	S
2.	R	Q	S	P
3.	R	Q	P	S
4.	P	Q	R	S

64.

The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of:
1. Non-competitive reversible inhibition
2. Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
3. Competitive inhibition
4. Allosteric inhibition

65.

Arcata Wildlife Sanctuary in Arcata, California is also a/an:
1. innovative sewer management system
2. tiger reserve
3. nuclear waste disposal site
4. ecological hotspot

66.

During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, which of the following occur?

I:	The primary follicle grows and becomes a fully mature Graafian follicle.
II:	The endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. I and II
4. None

67.

When population density is plotted against time, the exponential growth curve is:

1.	S shaped	2.	Straight line
3.	J shaped	4.	Hyperbola

68. Though we cannot be certain, what can be the probable reason/s for the sudden disappearance of dinosaurs from the Earth?

I:	Climatic changes killed them
II:	Most of them evolved into birds

1.	I only	2.	II only
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

69.

JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the:

1.	DCT and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact
2.	DCT and the efferent arteriole at the location of their contact
3.	PCT and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact
4.	PCT and the efferent arteriole at the location of their contact

70.

The oxyntic or Parietal cells of the gastric mucosa secrete:
1. prorennin
2. pepsinogen
3. HCl and intrinsic factor
4. gastric lipase

71.

What is the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide respectively in the venous blood leaving the tissues [in mm of Hg]?

1.	104, 40	2.	95, 40
3.	40, 45	4.	20, 46

72. The semilunar valves close at the beginning of

1.	atrial systole	2.	atrial diastole
3.	ventricular systole	4.	ventricular diastole

73.

The pedigree shows the inheritance of red-green color blindness in a family. If II 3 marries a color-blind man, what is the probability that her first child will be normal?

1.	¼	2.	½
3.	2/3	4.	¾

74.

Identify the correct statement regarding the pineal gland or the hormone secreted by it:

1.	The gland is situated on the ventral side of the forebrain
2.	The hormone secreted by the gland is called as melanin
3.	The hormone regulates the diurnal rhythm of our body
4.	The hormone decreases immunity

75.

In which of the following animals, the body is cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar and a long trunk?

1.	Hemichordates	2.	Urochordates
3.	Cephalochordates	4.	Vertebrate chordates

76.

The best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity in milk production is:

1.	Inbreeding	2.	Out-crossing
3.	Cross-breeding	4.	Interspecific hybridization

77.

Analogous organs arise due to:

1.	divergent evolution	2.	artificial selection
3.	genetic drift	4.	convergent evolution

78.

What is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in Eukaryotes?

1.	Poly A tail
2.	Methyl cytosine triphosphate
3.	Methyl guanosine triphosphate
4.	Poly U tail

79.

Suppression of sperm motility and their fertilizing capacity is the specific mechanism of action of:

1.	Lippes loop	2.	Multiload 375
3.	LNG 20	4.	Progestasert

80.

When anti B antibodies are present in the plasma and A antigens on the surface of RBCs of a person, her blood group can be:

1.	A and AB	2.	Only A
3.	Only B	4.	O

81. Consider the following two statements:

Statement I:	Red fibres are ‘red’ due to large amount of myoglobin.
Statement II:	Red muscles are also called as aerobic muscles.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

82. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Conserving the biological diversity of the ecological hotspots is very important component of efforts to safeguard the world’s biological heritage.
Reason (R):	The hotspots of biodiversity cover a large percentage of the land area of earth.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

83.

Match each item in Column I [Barriers in innate immunity] with one in Column II [Example] and select your answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Physical	a.	Skin and mucus membranes
B.	Physiological	b.	PMNL
C.	Cellular	c.	Acid in stomach and saliva in mouth
D.	Cytokine	d.	Interferon

Codes:

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	d	b	c	a
3.	a	c	b	d
4.	d	c	b	a

84.

The first clinical gene therapy trial was given in 1990 to a 4 year girl with:

1.	Alpha – 1 antitrypsin deficiency
2.	Cystic fibrosis
3.	Adenosine deaminase deficiency
4.	Chronic myeloid leukemia

85. An F₂ phenotypic ratio of 1: 4: 6: 4: 1 from a cross AaBb X AaBb is expected in the case of:
1. Dominant epistasis
2. Complementary genes
3. Polygenic inheritance
4. Independent assortment

Biology II - Section B

86.

Consider the given statements regarding the human skull:

I:	It has a total of 22 bones.
II:	Cranial bones are 14 in number and the facial bones are 8 in number.
III:	It is monocondylic.
IV:	A single hyoid bone is located at the base of the buccal cavity.

The correct statements include:
1. Only I
2. Only I and IV
3. Only II and III
4. Only I, II, and IV

87. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	According to CPCB, particulate size 2.5 micrometer or less in diameter [PM 2.5] are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
Reason (R):	These fine particles can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can damage lungs.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

88.

Consider the given statements:

I:	The crop in the alimentary canal of cockroach is also known as proventriculus, has six highly chitinous plates called teeth and helps in grinding food particles.
II:	The gizzard is sac-like structure used for storing food in cockroach.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

89.

Identify the correct statement regarding the sections of the spinal cord shown in the given diagram:

I:	A and D are part of the grey mater
II:	B is motor and C is sensory

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

90. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	Juxtamedullary nephrons are key adaptation for water conservation in mammals.
Reason (R):	Juxtamedullary nephrons constitute about 85% of all nephrons in the mammalian kidney.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

91.

An individual with c and d genes was crossed with the wild type ++. On test crossing F₁, the progeny were +c 105, +d 115, cd 880 and ++900. Distance between c and d genes is:

1.	11 map units	2.	5.5 map units
3.	44 map units	4.	22 map units

92.

The vomiting center in human beings is located in:
1. Pons Varolii
2. Medulla oblongata
3. Hypothalamus
4. Cerebrum

93. Which of the following features will be seen in chordates but not in non-chordates?

(a)	A notochord
(b)	Ventral, solid, and double central nervous system
(c)	Pharynx perforated by gill slits
(d)	Ventral heart
(e)	Terminal anus and a lack of post-anal tail

1.	(a), (c), and (d) only	2.	(a), (b) and (e) only
3.	(a) and (c) only	4.	(b), (c) and (d) only

94.

Pneumotaxic center:

1.	moderates the function of the rhythm center
2.	establishes the respiratory rhythm
3.	is located in medulla oblongata
4.	reduces the duration of expiration and thereby alters the respiratory rate

95. Arrange the given steps in the process of DNA fingerprinting in correct chronological order [from earliest to last]:

(i)	isolation of DNA
(ii)	separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
(iii)	digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
(iv)	hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(v)	detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography
(vi)	transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon

1.	(i) – (ii) – (iii) – (vi) – (iv) – (v)
2.	(i) – (iii) – (ii) – (vi) – (iv) – (v)
3.	(ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) – (v) – (iv)
4.	(iii) – (i) – (ii) – (v) – (iv) – (vi)

96. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.
Reason (R):	It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

97. The number of correct statements regarding cloning vectors amongst the given statements is:

I:	Bacteriophages because of their high number per cell, have very high copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cells.
II:	If one wants to recover many copies of the target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector whose origin supports high copy number.
III:	A selectable marker helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permits the growth of the transformants.
IV:	Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of plants.
V:	Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells and hence can never be used as a cloning vector in rDNA procedures.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

98. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	In every species, there are trade- offs between survival and reproductive traits.
Reason (R):	Natural selection favors traits that improve an organism’s chances of survival and reproductive success.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

99.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	Not all copulations lead to fertilization and pregnancy
II:	Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the sperms are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes.

1. Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. I is incorrect but II is correct.

100.

Match the drugs in Column I with their correct attributes given in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Drug		Attribute
A	Opioids	P	Hallucinogenic at high doses
B	Cannabinoids	Q	Highly effective painkiller
C	Cocaine	R	Can cause cardiovascular side effects
D	Nicotine	S	Stimulates adrenal medulla

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	S	P
2.	R	Q	P	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	R	Q	S	P

Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get FREE ACCESS for 2 days of ANY NEETprep course

Please be patient as the PDF generation may take up to a minute.

Fill OMR Sheet*