Full Syllabus Test # 10 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

Which of the following algae is likely to be found in the deepest waters?
1.Green
2.Brown
3.Red
4.All are found at equal depths

2.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	Plant cells undergo cytokinesis in a different manner than the animal cells.
II:	Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively inextensible cell wall.

Of the two statements:
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. I is incorrect but II is correct

3. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In C₄plants, photorespiration does not occur.
Statement II:	C₄ plants do not have RuBisCO in any of their cells.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

4.

In an open ocean, the pyramid of biomass is often inverted. How can this support higher trophic levels?

1.	The food produced by primary producers is of high quality
2.	The primary producers grow and reproduce at high rates
3.	Primary producers are very abundant.
4.	The predators at higher trophic levels are very efficient

5.

Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of :
i. $(kcal m^{- 3}) {yr}^{- 1}$
ii. $g m^{- 2} {yr}^{- 1}$
iii. $g m^{- 1} {yr}^{- 1}$
iv. $(kcal m^{- 2}) {yr}^{- 1}$

1.	ii	2.	iii
3.	ii and iv	4.	i and iii

6. The reactions of the Calvin cycle can take place as long as which of the following products of the light dependent reactions are available?

1.	Water and Glucose
2.	Water and ATP
3.	Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
4.	ATP and NADPH

7.

Somaclonal variations are:

1.	seen in plants that have been produced by plant tissue culture.
2.	due to environmental factors and have no evolutionary advantage.
3.	induced by mutations and are inherited.
4.	not useful in plant breeding programs.

8.

Lactic Acid Bacillus, while used for converting milk to curd, increases the nutritional value of curd by adding vitamin:

1.	A	2.	B₁₂
3.	C	4.	D

9. Identify the correct statements:

I.	The unisexual male flower in angiosperms is staminode.
II.	Heterothallic and dioecious are the terms used to describe unisexual conditions.
III.	Cucurbits and coconuts are dioecious plants.
IV.	Papaya and date palm are monoecious plants.

1.	Only II	2.	Only III and IV
3.	Only I and II	4.	Only I, III, and IV

10.

What is the dihybrid test cross-ratio?

1.	1 : 1	2.	3 : 1
3.	9 : 3 : 3 : 1	4.	1 : 1 : 1: 1

11. Which essential element is important for the opening and closing of stomata in higher plants?
1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Potassium
4. Phosphorus

12.

Which of the following is not a reason that accounts for greater biodiversity of tropics?

1.	availability of more solar energy
2.	more niche specialization
3.	more time for species diversification
4.	large seasonal variations in environmental factors

13.

Consider the following statements:

I:	All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with the coding strand.
II:	It is the presence of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.
III:	Exons are said to be sequences that do not appear in mature or processed RNA.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

14. A polysome is:

1.	several mRNA molecules attached to a ribosome
2.	several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
3.	the three major types of cellular RNAs attached to an mRNA molecule
4.	many ribosomes attached to the surface of endoplasmic reticulum

15.

Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and chose your answer from the codes given below:

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Alkaloid	(i)	Abrin
(b)	Toxin	(ii)	Morphine
(c)	Lectin	(iii)	Vinblastin
(d)	Drug	(iv)	Concanavalin A

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)

16.

The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
1. killing insects
2. biological control of plant diseases
3. controlling butterfly caterpillars
4. producing antibiotics

17. The Ti plasmid, used in transformation of plant cells, is found in:
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Escherichia coli
3. Bacillus thuringiensis
4. Xanthomonas citri

18.

The electron transport system in mitochondria is located in the:
1. Inner mitochondrial membrane
2. Outer mitochondrial membrane
3. Inter membrane space
4. Matrix

19.

In a guard cell:
I. The outer walls are thick and elastic
II. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented longitudinally
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

20. Match each item in COLUMN I with one in COLUMN II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Elements that are components of biomolecules	P	C, H, O, N
B	Elements that are components of energy – related chemical compounds	Q	Mg, P
C	Elements that activate or inhibit enzymes	R	Zn, Mo, Mg
D	Elements that can alter the osmotic potential of the soil	S	K

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	R	Q	P

21.

Consider the given two statements:

I:	Mycoplasma are naturally resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis
II:	They are the smallest bacteria discovered yet

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3. I is correct but II is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect

22.

As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics:

1.	Will decrease	2.	Will increase
3.	Will remain same	4.	May increase or decrease

23.

Coralloid roots in Cycas are associated with nitrogen fixing:

1.	Rhizobium	2.	Frankia
3.	Azospirillum	4.	Cyanobacteria

24. Consider the two statements:

I:	Most of the developing and underdeveloped world is rich financially, but poor in biodiversity and traditional knowledge.
II:	Most of the industrialised nations are rich in biodiversity and traditional knowledge related to bio-resources but poor in biotechnology.

1.	Statement I is correct.
2.	Statement II is correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

25. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Biodiversity is the term popularised by the sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the combined diversity at all levels of biological organisation.
2.	IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.
3.	Robert May places the global species diversity in the range of 20 to 50 million.
4.	More than 25 percent of the drugs currently sold in the market are derived from the plants.

26.

In India, the name Ramesh Chandra Dagar, is associated with:
1. Organic farming
2. Conservation of forests
3. Recycling of plastic wastes
4. Preservation of water lands

27.

What controls the copy number of linked DNA if plasmid is used as a vector in bacterial transformation?

1.	Ori	2.	rop
3.	Selectable markers	4.	Promoter in the insert

28. How many of the following can be characterized as action of gibberellins on plants?

I:	They can be used to increase the length of grape stalks.
II:	They can elongate and improve the shape of apple.
III:	They speed up malting process in brewing industry.
IV:	They hasten the maturity period of juvenile conifers.
V:	They promote bolting in many plants with rosette habit.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

29.

Identify the row where the crop [Column I], its variety [Column II] and resistance to disease/pest [Column III] are all correctly matched:

	COLUMN I	COLUMN II	COLUMN III
1.	Brassica	Himgiri	White rust
2.	Cowpea	Pusa Komal	Bacterial blight
3.	Flat bean	Pusa Sem 2	Shoot and fruit borer
4.	Okra	Pusa Gaurav	Aphids

30. Control points where a plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes that reach the xylem are:
1. Suberised casparian strips in the endodermis
2. Sclerenchyma of the pericycle
3. Transport proteins of endodermal cells
4. Root hair cells

31.

The only type of pollination which during pollination brings a genetically different type of pollen grains to the stigma is:

1.	Chasmogamy	2.	Cleistogamy
3.	Geitonogamy	4.	Xenogamy

32.

The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilisation is called:

1.	Parthenocarpy	2.	Apomixis
3.	Asexual reproduction	4.	Sexual reproduction

33.

Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence genetic code is:

1.	Unambiguous	2.	Non-specific
3.	Degenerate	4.	Universal

34.

In a strand of nucleic acid, two nucleotides are linked together by:
1. 3’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond
2. 5’ – 3’ phosphodiester bond
3. 2’ – 5’ phosphodiester bond
4. 3’ – 1’ phosphodiester bond

35.

All the following are adaptations in desert plants to minimize water loss except:
1. Thick cuticle
2. $C_{3}$ photosynthesis
3. CAM pathway
4. Sunken stomata

Biology I - Section B

36. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Bryophytes usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities and are not truly ‘successful’ on land.
Statement II:	They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

1.	Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
3.	Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

37. Water affects the process of photosynthesis in higher plants because:

I:	Water stress can cause the stomata to close, hence, reducing the carbon dioxide availability.
II:	Water stress also makes leaves wilt, thus, reducing the surface area of the leaves and their metabolic activity as well.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

38. Consider the following statements:

I:	If fatty acids were to be respired, they would enter the respiratory pathway as acetyl CoA.
II:	Glycerol enters the respiratory pathway after being converted to PGAL.
III:	Amino acids enter the respiratory pathway at some stage within the Krebs cycle but never as pyruvate or acetyl CoA.

1. Only II is incorrect
2. Only III is incorrect
3. Both I and III are incorrect
4. I, II and III are correct

39.

RNA interference involves silencing a specific mRNA by:

1.	interfering with its post transcriptional modification
2.	not allowing the transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
3.	a dsRNA that binds to it and prevents its translation
4.	post translational degradation of the protein

40.

Identify the correct statements regarding ecological succession:

I:	Usually, secondary succession is faster than primary succession.
II:	Ecological succession involves a change over time in vegetation only.
III:	Natural or human disturbance can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage.

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

41.

A donor DNA and plasmid vector DNA of E. coli are cut by EcoRI. The plasmid contains genes for resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The ECoRI recognition sequence lies within the gene for tetracycline resistance. Ligase is used, and the recombinant DNA is produced. The plasmids are transferred to E.coli with the help of electroporation. Samples of the bacterial colonies are then grown in four different media: nutrient medium plus ampicillin, nutrient medium plus tetracycline, nutrient medium plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient medium without antibiotics. Non-recombinant transformants will grow on:

1.	the nutrient medium plus ampicillin, but not on the medium containing tetracycline.
2.	only on the medium containing both antibiotics.
3.	on the medium containing tetracycline, but not on the medium containing ampicillin.
4.	on all four types of mediums.

42.

You discover a new fungus. On careful examination you find that the mycelium is septate and branched, they reproduce asexually by conidia and you cannot identify any sexual stage in its life cycle. To which fungal class would you place this fungus?

1.	Phycomycetes	2.	Ascomycetes
3.	Basidiomycetes	4.	Deuteromycetes

43. Consider the two statements:

I:	At least 1.0% impurities must be present in a sample of domestic sewage to make it unfit for human use.
II:	Waste water from industries often contains toxic heavy metals like mercury, cadmium, copper and lead that have a density greater than 5 gm/cm³.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3. Only Statement II is correct
4. Only Statement I is correct

44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for.
Reason (R):	The frequency of a gene or an allele in a population is ultimately decided by factors such as natural selection.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

45. In the given figure showing key components of the nitrogen cycle, identify I, II, III and IV:

A. Industrial nitrogen fixation
B. Electrical nitrogen fixation
C. Denitrification
D. Ammonification

	I	II	III	IV
1.	A	B	C	D
2.	B	A	C	D
3.	A	B	D	C
4.	B	A	D	C

46.

Consider the following statements:

I.	Pure water is usually defined as having a solute potential (Ψπ)of zero.
II.	A solution will have a lower and hence more negative water potential than that of pure water.
III.	The more solute molecules present, the more negative the solute potential is.

Correct statements are:
1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I, II and III

47.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Food chains rarely extend for more than 4 or 5 levels.
II:	Consumers at each level convert, on an average, only about 10% of the chemical energy in their food to their own organic tissue.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. Only I is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

48. Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms. Which of the following is not one?
1. The process is more dependable
2. Better adaptive strategies for dispersal
3. Protection of the young embryo
4. Genetic uniformity

49.

One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours a day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set, night phase was interrupted by a flash of light and it did not produce a flower. Under which one of the following categories will you place this plant?
1. Darkness neutral
2. Day neutral
3. Short day
4. Long day

50.

Consider the following statements:

I:	In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for control of gene expression.
II:	Regulation of lac operon by CAP is referred to as negative regulation.
III:	The inducer of the lac operon is lactose.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

Biology II - Section A

51.

The physiological basis of pleiotropy is:

1.	lack of independent assortment in linked genes
2.	separation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase I in meiosis I
3.	dominance is not an autonomous feature of an allele
4.	inter-relationships of many metabolic pathways in the living organisms

52. In Obelia:

a:	both polyp and medusa forms exist during its life cycle
b:	metagenesis, a sort of alternation of generation, is seen
c:	polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae form the polyps sexually

1.	only a is correct	2.	only a and b are correct
3.	only c is correct	4.	a, b and c are correct

53. The development of Periplaneta americana is:

1.	Paurometabolous with nymph moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form and the next to last nymphal stage has wing pads.
2.	Paurometabolous with nymph moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form and the next to last nymphal stage has wings.
3.	Holometabolous with nymph moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form and the next to last nymphal stage has wing pads.
4.	Holometabolous with nymph moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form and the next to last nymphal stage has wings.

54. Transgenic animals are the animals that:

1.	have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra [foreign] gene.
2.	are genetically modified with the use of foreign genes from a sexually compatible donor organism.
3.	are produced by interspecific hybridisation.
4.	are produced by inbreeding.

55. The pineal gland:

I:	helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wakefulness cycle and body temperature.
II:	influences metabolism, pigmentation and the menstrual cycle.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

56.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	Not all copulations lead to fertilization and pregnancy
II:	Fertilization can occur if the ovum and the sperms are simultaneously transported to the fallopian tubes.

1. Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. I is incorrect but II is correct.

57.

DNA replication is correctly described as:

1.	Semi-conservative and Continuous
2.	Semi-conservative and Discontinuous
3.	Conservative and Continuous
4.	Semi-conservative and Semi-discontinuous

58. The brain stem includes all the following except:

1.	Medulla oblongata	2.	Pons
3.	Mid brain	4.	Cerebellum

59.

Which of the following organelles in a eukaryotic cell can only be seen after staining with vital dye?

1.	Mitochondria	2.	Chloroplasts
3.	Nucleus	4.	Endoplasmic reticulum

60.

A tumor that invades surrounding tissues is usually capable of producing metastases, may recur after attempted removal, and is likely to cause death unless adequately treated. Such a tumor is called a:

1.	Benign tumor	2.	Malignant tumor
3.	Teratoma	4.	Secondary tumor

61.

Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of liver?
1. Hepatic cells
2. Hepatic cord
3. Hepatic lobule
4. Hepatic lobe

62.

The simplest α amino acid is:

1.	Glycine	2.	Alanine
3.	Serine	4.	Lysine

63.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilized.
II:	Lack of menstruation always indicates pregnancy.

Of the given statements, the correct statements is/are:

1.	I only	2.	II only
3.	I and II	4.	None

64.

Crossing over or recombination can be defined as:

1.	exchange of segments between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
2.	exchange of segments between non sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
3.	exchange of segments between sister chromatids of heterologous chromosomes
4.	exchange of segments between non sister chromatids of heterologous chromosomes

65. How many of the given statements regarding Mendelian disorders are correct?

I:	Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene.
II:	Sex-linked recessive disorders are common in the males of the species than in the females.
III:	If a female whose father was colour blind marries a normal male, none of her sons are expected to be affected by the disorder.
IV:	Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism and also an example of pleiotropy.
V:	For a female to be affected with haemophilia, her father must have haemophilia and her mother at least be a carrier for the condition.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

66.

Emergency contraceptive methods must be employed within:

1.	72 hours of ovulation
2.	72 hours of the onset of menstrual flow
3.	72 hours of unprotected coitus
4.	72 hours of cessation of menstrual flow

67.

The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in:

1.	African grasslands
2.	Amazonian rain forest in South America
3.	Western Ghats in India
4.	Nile delta in Egypt

68. How many of the given statements regarding HIV/AIDS are true?

I.	AIDS is a congenital disease
II.	Syndrome means a group of symptoms
III.	HIV is a rotavirus
IV.	HIV does not have an envelope
V.	HIV can be transmitted by an infected mother to her child through placenta

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

69.

The total number of floating ribs in human skeleton is:

1.	2	2.	4
3.	6	4.	14

70.

When compared with carbon dioxide, the partial pressure of oxygen in the air and its solubility in water is respectively:

1.	lower, lower	2.	lower, higher
3.	greater, lower	4.	greater, higher

71.

The least common of WBCs in the human blood are:

1.	Eosinophils	2.	Lymphocytes
3.	Neutrophils	4.	Basophils

72.

The increasing gradient of osmolarity in medullary interstitium, during concentration of urine, is mainly caused by reabsortion of:

1.	NaCl from ascending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by collecting duct
2.	NaCl from descending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by collecting duct
3.	NaCl from ascending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by PCT
4.	NaCl from descending limb of loop of Henle and of urea by PCT

73.

Prior to the work of Avery, Macleod, and McCarty, the genetic material was thought to be:

1.	DNA	2.	RNA
3.	Protein	4.	Nucleotide

74.

Match each item in Column I [Hormone] with one in Column II [Chemical class] and select your answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	ACTH	a.	Peptide
B.	Estradiol	b.	Steroid
C.	Thyroxine	c.	Amino-acid derived
D.	Epinephrine	d.	Iodothyronine

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	a	b	c	d
2.	a	b	d	c
3.	b	a	d	c
4.	b	a	c	d

75. The number of correct statements from the given statements, regarding the members of Class Cyclostomata, is:

(a)	All living members are ectoparasites on some fishes.
(b)	The body bears 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.
(c)	They have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
(d)	Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
(e)	Cranium and vertebral column are bony.
(f)	Circulation is of open type.

1.	3	2.	4
3.	5	4.	6

76. Match terms in Column I with their description in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column II		Column II
A	Saltation	P	The diversification of a group of organisms into forms filling different ecological niches.
B	Adaptive radiation	Q	Descent with modification.
C	Natural selection	R	Single step large mutation.
D	Evolution	S	Differential reproduction.

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	Q	S
2.	R	P	Q	S
3.	R	P	S	Q
4.	P	R	S	Q

77. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Neanderthals lived between 1,50,000 and 1,00,000 years back.
2.	Modern Homo sapiens arose between 75000 and 10000 years ago.
3.	Pre-historic cave art developed around 18000 years ago.
4.	Agriculture came around 10000 years ago

78. Identify the correct statement:

1.	Both Hugo de Vries and Darwin believed that it was mutation that caused evolution.
2.	Both Hugo de Vries and Darwin believed that it was minor variations that caused evolution, not mutation.
3.	Mutations are small and directional, while Darwinian variations are random and directionless.
4.	Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de Vries believed mutation caused speciation and hence called it saltation (single-step large mutation).

79.

Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is completely curable if diagnosed and treated early?

1.	Hepatitis B	2.	Syphilis
3.	Genital herpes	4.	HIV

80. Consider the two given statements:

I:	Pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs and brings oxygenated blood back to the heart.
II:	The systemic circulation provides nutrients, oxygen and other essential substances to the tissues and takes carbon dioxide and other harmful substances away for elimination.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

81. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Myasthenia gravis	P	Auto-immune
B	Arthritis	Q	Inflammation of joints
C	Tetany	R	Low calcium in body fluids
D	Osteoporosis	S	Low levels of oestrogen

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

82.

High concentrations of accumulated DDT in birds:
1. kills pathogens in their blood
2. causes sterility by affecting gametogenesis
3. leads to premature breaking of eggs
4. causes spasticity of the muscles of the body

83.

A piece of DNA, somehow transferred into an alien organism, will be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of organism if:

1.	It includes the centromere
2.	It becomes a part of chromosome
3.	It does not contain any intron sequences
4.	It is a single stranded polynucleotide

84.

A species whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area because of the presence of a competitively superior species, is found to expand its distributional range dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. This is called:

1.	Competitive Exclusion	2.	Competitive Release
3.	Competitive Supremacy	4.	Competitive Inclusion

85. The following figure shows the determination of sex by chromosomal differences. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

A
B

1.	Only A	2.	Only B
3.	Both A and B	4.	Neither A nor B

Biology II - Section B

86.

During relaxation of a skeletal muscle:

1.	Calcium ions that are bound to troponin C now bind to troponin A
2.	Cross bridge formation between myosin head and actin takes place
3.	The A band of the sarcomere lengthens
4.	Calcium ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae

87. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Greenhouse effect is harmful to life on earth.
Reason (R):	It leads to increased risk in human beings for the development of certain cancers.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

88.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Type of epithelium	Location
1.	Simple squamous	Blood vessels and alveoli
2.	Simple cuboidal non brush bordered epithelium	Proximal convoluted tubule
3.	Columnar epithelium	Stomach and small intestine
4.	Ciliated epithelium	Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

89. Arrange the following events in correct chronological order of their occurrence regarding the recognition of an object seen by our eyes:

I.	Light induces dissociation of retinal from opsin.
II.	There is a change in the permeability of the membrane of photoreceptors.
III.	Potential differences are generated in the photoreceptor cells.
IV.	Action potential is generated in the ganglion cells through the bipolar cells.
V.	Optic nerve transmits impulse to visual cortex.
VI.	Neural impulses are analysed and the image formed on the retina is recognised based on earlier memory or experience.

1.	I → III → II → IV → V → VI → VII
2.	I → II → IV → III → V → VI → VII
3.	I → II → III → IV → V → VI → VII
4.	I → II → III → IV → V → VII → VI

90.

What adaptation would be seen in the kidneys of a mammal living in desert when compared to the kidneys in aquatic mammals?

1.	A higher percentage of cortical nephrons with short loop of Henle extending slightly into the medulla
2.	A higher percentage of cortical nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla
3.	A higher percentage of juxtamedullary nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla
4.	Presence of only juxtamedullary nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla

91.

Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by:

1.	Alteration or mutation in a single gene.
2.	Chromosomal gross structural changes.
3.	Recombination between linked genes.
4.	Jumping genes

92.

Arrange the following events in chronological sequence [first to last]:
1. protein-coated triacylglycerols enter lacteals
2. triacylglycerol coated with protein
3. fatty acids and glycerol packaged into micelles
4. bile salts emulsify fats
5. lipase digests fat
1. 1,2,4,5,3
2. 2,5,4,3,1
3. 3,5,4,1,2
4. 4,5,3,2,1

93.

In birds:

a:	the characteristic feature is the presence of feathers.
b:	forelimbs are modified into wings.
c:	flight is present in all members.
d:	hind limbs do not have scales.

1.	Only (a) and (d) are incorrect
2.	Only (c) and (d) are correct
3.	(a), (b) and (c) are correct
4.	Only (a) and (b) are correct

94.

Consider the following two statements:

I:	The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air-tight chamber.
II:	This arrangement is essential as we cannot directly alter the thoracic volume.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II correctly explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct and II is incorrect
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

95. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.
Reason (R):	In bacteria, the mRNA does not require any processing to become active, and also transcription and translation take place in the same compartment.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

96. The connotations about the theory of special creation include:

I:	All living organisms (species or types) that we see today were created as such.
II:	Diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in the future also.
III:	Earth is about 4 billion years old.

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

97. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Agar gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
Reason (R):	Restriction enzyme digestion is performed by incubating purified DNA molecules with the restriction enzymes, at the optimal conditions for that specific enzyme.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

98. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	The logistic growth model is more realistic for most animal populations in nature.
Reason (R):	Resources for growth for most animal populations are finite and become limiting sooner or later in the nature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).

99. Study the given diagram and select the correct statements:

Statement I:	(a) is released from the ovary during ovulation and has a secondary oocyte.
Statement II:	(b), (c), and (d) show cleavage divisions, and (e) is morula.
Statement III:	(g) is blastocyst and (h) shows implantation.

1. Only Statement I
2. Only Statement I and Statement III
3. Only Statement II and III
4. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III

100. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which a quick immune response is required as in tetanus, we need to directly inject the preformed antibodies or antitoxin.
Reason (R):	This type of immunization is called passive immunization.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

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