Full Syllabus Test # 8 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Statins, used as blood cholesterol-lowering agents, are derived from Monascus purpureus
II:	Cyclosporin A, derived from Trichoderma, is used as an immunosuppressant
III:	Baculoviruses, in the genus Nucleopolyhederovirus, are species-specific, broad-spectrum insecticides

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

2.

In the given diagram of chloroplast, enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins are located in:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

3.

What functions as the embryonic root of the plant?

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

4.

Consider the following statements:

I:	In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
II:	In a terrestrial ecosystem, Detritus Food Chain (DFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
III:	GFC and DFC are not interconnected at any level.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

5.

Consider the following statements:
The rate of decomposition is high if:

I:	The detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
II:	The detritus is rich in nitrogen and sugars.
III:	The environmental conditions are warm and moist.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

6.

With respect to photoperiodism, the short day plant, the long day plant and day neutral plant are represented respectively by:

1. A, B and C
2. B, A and C
3. C, B and A
4. A, C and B

7.

Consider the following statements:
In a monocot stem-

I:	Hypodermis is collenchymatous.
II:	Vascular bundle are collateral and closed.
III:	Trichomes are usually absent.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

8.

Consider the following statements about dicot leaf:

I:	The epidermis which covers both the upper surface (adaxial epidermis) and lower surface (abaxial epidermis) of the leaf has a conspicuous cuticle.
II:	More stomata present on upper surface.
III:	Mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

9.

The following diagram shows the effect of sewage discharge on some important characteristics of a river. What can be A and B respectively?

1.	BOD and DO	2.	DO and BOD
3.	BOD and COD	4.	COD and BOD

10.

Consider the following statements:
Gymnosperms-
I. Are plants in which the ovules remain exposed, both before and after fertilization.
II. Have male and female gametophytes that have independent free-living existence.
III. Are heterosporous.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

11.

In the diagrammatic representation of the Hatch and Slack pathway, A and B respectively represent:

1.	Mesophyll cells and Bundle sheath cells
2.	Bundle sheath cells and Mesophyll cells
3.	Bundle sheath cells and Palisade cells
4.	Mesophyll cells and Guard cells

12.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The thorns and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent homology.
II:	Sweet potato and potato exhibit analogy.
III:	Homologous organs are the result of divergent evolution & analogous organs are the result of convergent evolution.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

13.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in Alstonia.
II:	Flowers of mustard, datura and chilli are actinomorphic.
III:	The ovary in plum, peach and rose is epigynous.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

14.

The given transverse section is of:

1.	Monocot stem	2.	Dicot stem
3.	Monocot root	4.	Dicot root

15.

The vascular bundle shown in the diagram is most likely to be seen in:

1.	Monocot stem	2.	Dicot stem
3.	Monocot root	4.	Dicot root

16.

Consider the following statements regarding C₄photosynthesis plants-

I:	PEP is primary CO₂ acceptor.
II:	OAA is primary CO₂ fixation product.
III:	RuBisCO is not present in these plants.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

17.

Consider the following statements:

I:	A monoecious plant bears either male or female flowers.
II:	In monoecious plants, autogamy may be prevented but not geitonogamy.
III:	Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

18.

Consider the following diagram showing the working of the lac operon in E.coli in the presence of an inducer and choose the correct statement from the ones given below:

1.	A is the inducer and can be either lactose or cAMP.
2.	B is the enzyme that will metabolize glucose, the preferred energy source.
3.	Some amount of C will be present in the cell even if lactose is absent.
4.	The absence of D will stop lactose from entering the cell.

19.

The zwitterion is shown by:

1.	Only A	2.	Only B
3.	Both A and C	4.	A, B and C

20.

What type of reaction is shown in the given figure?

1. Deamination
2. Reductive amination
3. Transamination
4. Nitrogenation

21.

The given diagram shows :

1. An alga that lacks flagellated cells
2. A liverwort
3. A heterosporous pteridophyte
4. A gymnosperm with non-motile sperms

22.

The life cycle pattern shown in the given diagram is not seen in:

1. Chlamydomanas
2. Spirogyra
3. Volvox
4. Ectocarpus

23.

The region responsible for growth in the length of the root is:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

24.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Hairy leaves are associated with resistance to jassids in cotton and cereal leaf beetle in wheat.
II:	Low aspartic acid, high nitrogen, and sugar content in maize leads to resistance to maize stem borers.
III.	In wheat, solid stems lead to non-preference by the stem sawfly and smooth-leaved and nectar-less varieties of cotton do not attract bollworms.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

25.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Trophic level in an ecosystem represents a functional level, not a species as such.
II:	Saprophytes are accorded the position of a top consumer in an ecosystem.
III:	A species can occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

26.

In the following representation of organism response to abiotic factors, the conformers are shown by the letter:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. Both B and C

27.

Consider the following statements regarding fermentation of glucose -

I:	There is a partial breakdown of glucose
II:	There is no gain of ATP
III:	NADH is oxidized to NAD⁺ slowly

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

28.

The following diagram shows the biome distribution with respect to annual temperature and precipitation. Grassland, Temperate forest and Coniferous forest are represented, respectively, by:

1.	A, C and F	2.	B, D and E
3.	B, E and F	4.	A, D and F

29.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Imbricate aestivation is seen in Cassia and gulmohar.
II:	In Dianthus and Primrose, placentation is free central.
III:	Seeds of pea, gram and bean are non-endospermous.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

30.

In the diagram given below showing the pathway of water movement in the root, A, B, C and D respectively represent:

1.	Symplastic pathway, Apoplastic pathway, Phloem and Xylem
2.	Apoplastic pathway, Symplastic pathway, Phloem and Xylem
3.	Symplastic pathway, Apoplastic pathway, Xylem and Phloem
4.	Apoplastic pathway, Symplastic pathway, Xylem and Phloem

31.

In the given diagrams each part A, B, C and D shows a reproductive structure in an organism marked as ‘X’. Select the option where all parts are correctly matched:

A.		B.
B.		D.

1.	A: Oogonium of Chara; B: Archegoniophore of Marchantia; C: Conidia of Penicillium; D: Offset of Eicchornia
2.	A: Antheridium of Chara; B: Antheridiophore of Marchantia; C: Sporangiophores of Penicillium; D: Offset of Eicchornia
3.	A: Oogonium of Chara; B: Antheridiophore of Marchantia; C: Conidia of Penicillium; D: Offset of Eicchornia
4.	A: Antheridium of Chara; B: Archegoniophore of Marchantia; C: Conidia of Penicillium; D: Stolon of Eicchornia

32.

Consider the following statements :

1.	The period from birth to the natural death of an organism represents its lifespan.
2.	The lifespans of organisms are strictly correlated to their body size.
3.	No individual is immortal, except single-celled organisms.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I,II, and III

33.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The roots hair are unicellular and arise from the region of maturation.
II:	Terminal buds of stems may get modified to thorns.
III:	Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in an acropetal order.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

34.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular bundles.
II:	Main plant body in pteridophytes is sporophyte which is differentiated into true stem and leaves.
III:	Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

35.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called as gross primary productivity of an ecosystem.
II:	The available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs is called secondary productivity.
III:	The low productivity of the oceans can mainly be attributed to the limited availability of nitrogen.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

Biology I - Section B

36.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The stored food in Rhodophyceae is floridean starch.
II:	Cellulose and algin are present in the cell wall of Phaeophyceae.
III:	Chlorophyceae members have 2 laterally placed unequal flagella.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

37.

Consider the following statements:
Regarding plant mineral nutrition -
I. The deficiency symptoms of nitrogen, potassium and magnesium are visible first in senescent leaves.
II. Manganese inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex.
III. Lack or low level of N, K, S, Mo causes an inhibition of cell division.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III

38.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Accessory pigments enable a wider range of light to be utilized for photosynthesis.
II:	The reaction center of PSI is P680 and that of PSII is P 700.
III:	The stroma lamellae membranes lack both PSII and NADP reductase.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

39.

Given below is a hypothetical pyramid of energy. The amount of energy left at the level of secondary consumers would approximately be:

1.	10000 J	2.	1000 J
3.	100 J	4.	50 J

40.

The pedigree shows the inheritance of red-green color blindness in a family. If II 3 marries a color-blind man, what is the probability that her first child will be normal?

1.	¼	2.	½
3.	2/3	4.	¾

41.

What is true regarding A, B and C in the given diagrammatic representation of rDNA technology?

I:	At A, same restriction enzyme is used to cut both foreign and vector DNA
II:	The enzyme used at B is DNA ligase
III:	Step C can be called as transformation

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

42.

The inheritance of colour in wheat Kernel shown below is explained by:

1.	Polygenic inheritance	2.	Pleiotropy
3.	Epistatic interaction	4.	Multiple allelism

43.

Consider the following statements:

I:	RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
II:	It involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary dsDNA molecules that prevent the translation of mRNA.
III:	Fire and Mello got the Nobel Prize for the discovery of RNAi.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

44.

The growth of a root elongating at a constant rate will be represented by:

1.	A only	2.	B only
3.	Both A and B	4.	Neither A nor B

45.

Consider the following statements:
I. The apoplast system is continuous throughout the plant, except at the casparian strips of the endodermis.
II. Transport proteins of endodermal cells are control points, where a plant adjusts the quantity and type of solute that reaches the xylem.
III.A $C_{4}$ plant loses about twice as much water as a $C_{3}$ plant for the same amount of $C O_{2}$ fixed.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

46.

Consider the following statements:
With respect to secondary growth in dicot root-

I:	The vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.
II:	The primary phloem bundles are gradually crushed and not seen in older roots.
III:	Phellogen gives rise to secondary tissue on the outside and forms the phellem.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

47.

Three air-dried bean seeds are tied to a glass slide with two [A and C in the fig.] at the two ends and one [B] in the middle. This slide is placed in a beaker with the middle seed half immersed in water as shown in the fig. The water level is kept constant throughout the experiment. Which seed/s is/are expected to germinate normally?

1.	Only A	2.	Only B
3.	Only B and C	4.	Only A and C

48.

What is true for both (a) and (b)?

1. RNA is the genetic material
2. Capability to infect bacteria
3. Being obligate endoparasites
4. Can be killed by antibiotics

49.

Consider the following statements regarding growth in plants -

I:	Cell enlargement requires water.
II:	Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy for growth activities.
III:	Nutrients are required for synthesis of protoplasm and act as source of energy.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

50.

Study the results of the Meselson and Stahl experiment. What theoretically possible mode of DNA replication can be excluded after one round of replication?

1. Conservative
2. Semiconservative
3. Disruptive
4. Both 1 and 3

Biology II - Section A

51.

Consider the following statements:

I:	RNA is the genetic material of the QB bacteriophage.
II:	DNA chemically is less reactive and more stable than RNA.
III:	Viruses having RNA genomes and shorter life spans mutate & evolve slowly.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

52.

The character that gives the Phylum Chordata its name is shown by:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

53.

Identify the correct statement regarding the part of a cell, the structure of which is shown in the given diagram:

1.	It is not found in the plant cells
2.	It serves to provide an attachment with a surface for a bacterial cell
3.	The structure is made of a protein called flagellin
4.	It can be used for movement by a eukaryotic cell

54.

Consider the following statements:

I:	70% of ventricular filling is due to the passive opening of AV valves.
II:	Lub is caused by the simultaneous closure of both AV valves.
III:	Dub is caused by simultaneous closure of both the semilunar valves.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

55.

A and B in pBR322, shown in the diagram given below, respectively represent recognition sequences of:

1.	BamH I and Sma I	2.	Hind II and Sma I
3.	BamH I and Sal I	4.	Sal I and Hind I

56.

The following diagram shows the working of an electrostatic precipitator. Identify the correct statement:

1.	A negative voltage ionizes the air around the wire that in turn ionizes the particles in the air stream.
2.	They are able to remove about 75% of the particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
3.	The velocity of air between the plates must be rapid enough to allow electrostatic precipitation of the dust particles.
4.	PM 2.5 dust particles are more easily removed by the electrostatic precipitator than larger sized particulate matter.

57.

Consider the following statements:

I:	In animal cells, lipid like steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER.
II:	Golgi apparatus is the important site for formation of glycoproteins & glycolipids.
III:	Lysosomes carry alkaline hydrolases.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

58.

In the apparatus of the Urey and Miller experiment, the gases [G] contained in the flask are:

1.	Methane, Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, and Water vapour
2.	Methane, Hydrogen cyanide, Ammonia, and Water vapour
3.	Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen, and Water vapour
4.	Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen, and Ammonia

59.

In the given diagram showing anatomical regions of the human stomach, A, B and C respectively represent:

Fundus, Cardia and Pylorus
Cardia, Pylorus and Fundus
Fundus, Pylorus and Cardia
Pylorus, Cardia and Fundus

60.

Consider the following statements:
I. Somatic neural system relays impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles.
II. Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from CNS to involuntary organs and smooth muscles.
III. Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in spinal and cranial nerves.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III

61.

In the given diagram what would be the value of osmolality of fluid at points A and B respectively?

1.	1000 and 1000	2.	1200 and 1000
3.	1000 and 1200	4.	1200 and 1200

62.

In the given diagram of the oxygen dissociation curve, under normal physiological conditions, the partial pressure of oxygen at the tissue level is represented by:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

63.

In the given pie chart showing the global biodiversity of vertebrates, the Amphibians and the Birds are respectively represented by:

1.	B and D	2.	A and C
3.	A and B	4.	D and B

64.

The following is the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG. Identify the correct statement:

1.	P is caused by atrial repolarization
2.	Q, when present, always shows myocardial ischemia
3.	QRS complex is due to time taken by impulse from SA node to AV node
4.	T is caused by ventricular repolarization

65.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Nature selects for fitness.
II:	Fitness is based on characteristics that are inherited.
III:	Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

66.

Consider the following statements:

I:	People affected by phenylketonuria are unable to convert tyrosine to phenylalanine.
II:	Alzheimer’s disease results from the accumulation of amyloid protein plaques in the brain.
III:	Klinefelter’s and Turner’s syndromes are the result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes in either of the sexes.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

67.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase.
II:	Goblet cells secrete mucus.
III:	Bile pigments help in emulsification of fats.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

68.

Consider the following statements:

I:	HIV is a retrovirus.
II:	It infects and destroys the CD4 T-lymphocytes.
III:	The newer antiretroviral drugs are a cure for HIV infection.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

69.

Given below is the initial amino acids of the beta chain of a haemoglobin molecule. What will be true about this haemoglobin molecule?

1.	The RBCs carrying this molecule will undergo sickling at a high oxygen tension
2.	The RBCs carrying this molecule will undergo sickling at a low oxygen tension
3.	There will be a quantitative decrease in the synthesis of this molecule
4.	This is the normal beta chain of the haemoglobin molecule

70.

Identify the correct statement regarding the following diagram:

1. B and F are filled with endolymph
2. C is filled with perilymph
3. Hair cells press against E to generate nerve impulses
4. D is the sensory organ of hearing and has auditory receptors

71.

What structure gets implanted on the wall of the uterus during embryonic development?

1.		2.
3.		4.

72.

Which of the following would not be a feature seen in a patient with the following karyotype?

1. Many loops on fingertips
2. Congenital heart disease
3. Big and wrinkled tongue
4. Mucus clogging of airways

73.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within DNA.
II:	To visualize pure DNA fragments, it is stained with ethidium bromide and seen in UV light.
III:	Plasmids and phage DNA are used as vectors in genetic engineering as they are extrachromosomal DNA molecules.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

74.

The bioreactor shown in the diagram is:

1.	Sparged stirred tank type	2.	Airlift type
3.	Simple stirred tank type	4.	Fluidized bed type

75.

In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

76.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The first organisms that invaded land were the plants.
II:	Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians.
III:	Ramapithecus was more ape-like and Dryopithecus was more man-like.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

77.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Cancer is essentially a genetic disease caused by multiple mutational events.
II:	Cancerous cells are rapidly dividing cells that exhibit contact inhibition.
III:	Metstatsis is the most feared complication of any cancer.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

78.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Myaesthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction.
II:	Muscular dystrophy is a progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder.
III:	Tetany is rapid spasms in muscle due to high Ca++ in body fluid.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

79.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The largest known human gene is dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
II:	Repeated sequences make up a very large portion of the human genome.
III:	There are about 2.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences occur in humans.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

80.

In the given diagram, the part of the female reproductive system that undergoes cyclical changes with changes in the secretion of gonadotropins and gonadal steroids during the menstrual cycle is represented by:

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

81.

Consider the transcription unit given in the following diagram and choose the correct statements:

I:	The promoter on the template is situated upstream and 5’ to the structural gene.
II:	It is the presence of the structural gene that defines the template strand.
III:	The coding strand does not code for anything and is displaced during transcription.

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

82.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The primary follicles present at birth carry primary oocytes arrested at meiosis I.
II:	The secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II is released at ovulation.
III:	The second meiotic division is completed by the secondary oocyte just prior to the entry of the sperm into it.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

83.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic.
II:	Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and cartilaginous fishes are ureotelic.
III:	Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects are uricotelic.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

84.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The diffusing capacity of CO₂ across the respiratory membrane is higher than that of O₂
II:	The presence of Hb increases the efficiency of O₂ transport by about 10 times.
III:	Carbon monoxide binds to Hb with much more tenacity with respect to O₂

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

85.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations.
II:	Traditional hybridization often leads to the inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes.
III:	rDNA technology allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes in the target organism.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

Biology II - Section B

86.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The male barrier contraceptives provide protection against STDs.
II:	Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are the contraceptive method used more commonly by urban women in India.
III:	The second-generation IUDs release copper and the third-generation IUDs release hormones.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

87.

Study the diagram given and choose the correct statement:

1.	A: Retrovirus replicates outside the cell
2.	B: Viral DNA is produced by the host's enzyme - reverse transcriptase
3.	C: Viral DNA incorporates into the host genome
4.	D: New viral DNA is produced by the infected cell

88.

Consider the following statements:

I:	There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in living systems.
II:	The living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work.
III:	The living state and metabolism are synonyms, without metabolism there cannot be a living state.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

89.

Consider the following statements:

I:	When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive because the invaded land does not have its natural predators.
II:	Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
III:	Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predator to regulate the prey population.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

90.

Consider the following statements:

I:	The uterine endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle.
II:	Estrogen secreted during the pre-ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle helps in the development of follicle.
III:	hCG secreted by trophoblast cells helps in maintaining corpus luteum.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

91.

Identify the structure in a male cockroach where the sperms are stored?

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

92.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth.
II:	Acquired immunity is pathogen-specific and is characterized by memory.
III:	Memory-based acquired immunity developed in higher vertebrates based on the ability to distinguish self from non-self.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II and III

93.

What is true about the population growth curves shown in the figure given below:

I:	Curve a is seen when resources are not limiting
II:	Curve b is seen when resources are limiting
III:	[K-N]/K is the carrying capacity

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

94.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Acetylcholine is released at the electrical synapse.
II:	Electrical synapses are faster.
III:	It is more difficult to regulate an electrical synapse with respect to a chemical synapse.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

95.

Given below is the graph showing the effect of substrate concentration on enzyme activity. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, when the concentration of the substrate is progressively increased:

1.	The K_m value increases but the reaction will not achieve V_max
2.	The K_m value increases but the reaction can ultimately achieve V_max
3.	The K_m value decreases but the reaction will not achieve V_max
4.	The K_m value decreases but the reaction can ultimately achieve V_max

96.

A major coordinating center for sensory and motor signaling in the human brain is shown in the given sagittal section by the letter:

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

97.

In the given diagram, identify A, B, C, and D respectively:

1.	LH, FSH, Progesterone and Estrogen
2.	FSH, LH, Estrogen and Progesterone
3.	Estrogen, Progesterone, LH and FSH
4.	Progesterone, Estrogen, FSH and LH

98.

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the information given in the following diagram?

1.	The DNA from the crime scene matches that of individual B
2.	VNTRs are hypervariable
3.	The larger fragments remain near the point of introduction in the gel electrophoresis
4.	The smaller chromosomes in the human genome have smaller repeats of VNTR

99.

An animal with the following body wall organization will not have:

1. Cephalization
2. Three germ layers
3. Bilateral symmetry
4. A complete digestive tract

100.

What is correct for the hormone whose mechanism of action is shown in the given diagram?

1.	This hormone will most likely be synthesized by the neural cells of the hypothalamus
2.	This hormone cannot be thyroxin or triiodothyronine
3.	This hormone can be a derivative of cholesterol
4.	This hormone will have an almost instantaneous onset of action

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