Full Syllabus Test # 7 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1. In eukaryotes, during post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA:

1.	methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end and adenylate residues are added at the 3‘ end
2.	methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end and adenylate residues are added at the 5‘ end
3.	methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end and guanylate residues are added at the 3‘ end
4.	methyl adenosine triphosphate is added to the 3’ end and guanylate residues are added at the 5‘ end

2. Regarding red algae:

I:	Majority are fresh water with greater concentrations found in the colder areas.
II:	They occur in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of water and also at great depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

3.

By convention, the water potential of pure water at standard temperatures, which is not under any pressure, is take to be:
1. 0 MPa
2. 760 Mpa
3. - 5 Mpa
4. 1.0 MPa

4. A blood cholesterol lowering agent can be isolated from:

1.	Trichoderma polysporum	2.	Trichoderma harzianum
3.	Monascus purpureus	4.	Penicillium notatum

5. The best explant for regenerating virus free plantlets would be:

1.	Embryo	2.	Meristem
3.	Anther	4.	Endosperm

6. In angiosperms, the pollen tub, carrying male gametes, enters into the embryo sac through the:

1.	chalaza	2.	nucellus
3.	micropyle	4.	funiculus

7. Regarding double fertilization in angiosperms:

I:	syngamy requires one male gamete and one egg cell
II:	triple fusion requires one male gamete, one egg cell and one polar nucleus

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

8. In Pisum sativum, Mendel studied:
1. 7 characters and 7 contrasting traits
2. 7 characters and 14 contrasting traits
3. 14 characters and 7 contrasting traits
4. 14 characters and 14 contrasting traits

9. Regarding ATP synthase involved in chemiosmosis in chloroplasts:

I:	The component CF₀ is embedded in the thylakoid membrane.
II:	The component CF₁ protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma.

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

10. All the following plants exhibit difference in shape of leaves in juvenile and in mature phase of their life cycle except:
1. Cotton
2. Coriander
3. Larkspur
4. Buttercup

11.

Pericarp is a derivative of:

1.	integuments	2.	ovule wall
3.	ovary wall	4.	placenta

12. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called as:
1. Gross primary productivity
2. Net primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Tertiary productivity

13. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen at:
1. 0°C
2. 4°C
3. -196°C
4. -273°C

14.

The correct chronological sequence [beginning from the earliest] with respect to fungal sexual cycle will be:
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy

15. Classification system based on information like chromosome number, structure, behaviour is called as:
1. Numerical taxonomy
2. Cytotaxonomy
3. Chemotaxonomy
4. Cladistics

16. In Mendelian inheritance, a recessive allele for a character is the one that:

1.	is least frequent in the population
2.	was the original allele, from which other alleles have been formed by mutation
3.	expresses itself only in homozygous condition
4.	does not segregate during gamete formation

17.

The bacteriophage φ × 174 has:
1. 5386 nucleotides
2. 48502 base pairs
3. 4.6 × 10⁶ base pairs
4. 3.3 × 10⁹ base pairs

18. The criteria for essentiality of an element for a plant include all the following except:

1.	The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction.
2.	The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element.
3.	The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
4.	The element must be present in ionised state in the soil where the roots of the plants are present.

19. The leafy stage in the life cycle of mosses:

1.	is a stage of the sporophytic generation.
2.	is a creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage.
3.	develops directly from a spore.
4.	bears sex organs.

20. Typically, drupes develop from:

1.	monocarpellary inferior ovaries and are one seeded.
2.	monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded.
3.	multicarpellary superior ovaries and are many seeded.
4.	multicarpellary inferior ovaries and are many seeded.

21. Which of the given figures shows the aestivation of corolla as seen in Calotropis?

1.		2.
3.		4.

22. Assuming independent assortment, how many different phenotypes can appear in the offspring if individual plants with genotype AaBb are intercrossed?

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	9

23. The taxonomic category ‘family’ in plants is identified by the following ‘suffix’:

1.	- ales	2.	- onae
3.	- aceae	4.	- ae

24.

In Avery, MacLeod and McCarty experiment, the transformation was affected by the use of:

1.	Protease	2.	DNase
3.	RNase	4.	Lipase

25. The first restriction endonuclease whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence was:
1. EcoR I
2. Hind II
3. Hind I
4. Sma I

26. The name of Alexander von Humboldt is associated with:
1. the concept of competitive release
2. Rivet popper hypothesis
3. the concept of Species area relationship
4. Ecological sanitation

27. A dihybrid cross yields a phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in F₂ progeny. Most likely, the two genes:
1. are assorting independently
2. are tightly linked on an autosome
3. are linked to a sex chromosome
4. control the same trait

28. Nitrobacter:
1. Oxidises ammonia to nitrite
2. Reduces ammonia to nitrite
3. Oxidises nitrite to nitrate
4. Reduces nitrite to nitrate

29. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Gynoecium of Papaver is multicarpellary and apocarpous.
Statement II:	Gynoecium of Michelia is multicarpellary and syncarpous.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

30. Study the given diagram and select the correct statements:

I:	It is racemose inflorescence.
II:	A is older flower and B is younger flower.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

31. When the CO₂ : O₂ is nearly equal, the affinity of RuBisCO is:

1.	equal for both
2.	much higher for carbon dioxide
3.	much higher for oxygen
4.	slightly higher for oxygen

32. The glycolytic pathway has an investment of 2 ATP molecules. At which of the following steps is the debt paid off?

1.	Conversion of Glucose into Glucose-6-phospahte
2.	Conversion of Fructose-6-phosphate into Fructose 1,6-biphospahte
3.	Conversion of 1,3 biphoshoglyceric acid into 3-phosphoglyceric acid
4.	Conversion of Phosphoenol pyruvate into Pyruvic acid

33. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases are seen in:
I: Annual plants
II: Biennial plants
III: Perennial plants
1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only I and II
4. I, II and III

34. All the following are known functions of the plant growth regulator auxins except:

1.	Promotion of flowering in pineapples
2.	Induction of parthenocarpy in tomatoes
3.	Fruit ripening in tomatoes
4.	Initiation of rooting in stem cuttings

35. A gene is said to be polymorphic if it has more than one variant and the frequency of the least common variant is at least:
1. 0.01
2. 0.1
3. 0.5
4. 1.0

Biology I - Section B

36.

Consider the two given statements:

Assertion (A):	Secondary succession is faster than the primary succession.
Reason (R):	Soil is already there at the time of secondary succession.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A)
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

37. During diakinesis of prophase I:

I:	Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place.
II:	Meiotic spindle is assembled.
III:	Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear membrane breaks down.

The correct statements are:

1.	I, II and III	2.	I and II only
3.	I and III only	4.	II and III only

38. Consider the two given statements:

Assertion (A):	In aerobic cellular respiration the presence of oxygen is vital.
Reason (R):	Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

39.

A bud is present in:

I:	the axil of petiole in simple leaf
II:	the axil of petiole in compound leaf
III:	the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I is correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. Only II is correct

40.

A typical angiosperm anther in transverse section will show:

1.	two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each theca having two microsporangia
2.	two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each theca having four microsporangia
3.	two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each lobe having two microsporangia
4.	two lobes, each lobe having two theca and each lobe having four microsporangia

41. Consider the two given statements:

Assertion (A):	The spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions.
Reason (R):	Pteridophytes are terrestrial plants that possess vascular tissues – xylem and phloem.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

42.

A stable community in an ecosystem:

I:	should show a considerable increase in productivity every year
II:	must be either resistant or resilient to occasional man-made and natural disturbances
III:	must be resistant to invasions by alien species

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

43. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA.
Statement II:	There is a single RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

44. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Association between mycobiont and phycobiont is found in Lichens.
Statement II:	An association between roots of higher plants and fungi is called mycorrhiza.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

45. Consider the two given statements:

Assertion (A):	The cyclic flow hence, results only in the synthesis of ATP, but not of NADPH + H⁺.
Reason (R):	The excited electron does not pass on to NADP⁺ but is cycled back to the PS I complex through the electron transport chain.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)

46. The sequence on the template strand of DNA which will be responsible for the insertion of the first amino acid into a protein will be:

1.	TAC	2.	AUG
3.	CAT	4.	ACT

47.

Consider the two given statements regarding mass or bulk flow in plants:

Statement I:	It is a characteristic of mass flow that substances, whether in solution or in suspension, are swept along at the same pace.
Statement II:	Bulk flow can be achieved only through a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

48. In the given diagram showing filamentous Nostoc, the structure marked as A:

1.	is a resting spore
2.	is involved in nitrogen fixation
3.	is gas vacuole
4.	is where carbon dioxide concentration mechanism is applied

49. Regarding plant growth regulators:

I:	Auxins are plant growth promoters
II:	ABA is a plant growth inhibitor
III:	Ethylene is largely an inhibitor of growth activities

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

50. A unicellular organism shows:

I:	Eukaryotic cell type
II:	Absent cell wall
III:	Capability to act as a heterotroph when deprived of sunlight

This organism must be classified under:

1.	Kingdom Monera, as a mycoplasma
2.	Kingdom Protista, as a euglenoid
3.	Kingdom Protista, as a dinoflagellate
4.	Kingdom Animalia, as a sponge

Biology II - Section A

51. Implantation of the developing embryo occurs on the uterine endometrium:

1.	at the morula stage, within 24 – 48 hours of fertilisation
2.	at the morula stage, about 96 hours post fertilisation
3.	at the blastocyst stage, 7^th – 8^th day post fertilization
4.	at the gastrula stage, about 10 days post fertilization

52. The number of autosomes expected in a human skin cell is:
1. 22
2. 23
3. 44
4. 46

53. All chordates have:
1. scales covering their skin
2. jaws
3. notochord
4. vertebral column

54.

If a woman who is a known carrier for the gene of colour blindness marries a normal male, what percent of her male progeny are expected to be affected by the condition?
1. 0
2. 25
3. 50
4. 100

55.

What neurotransmitter is released by the anterior motor neuron at the neuro-muscular junction?

1.	Dopamine	2.	Norepinephrine
3.	Acetylcholine	4.	Adrenaline

56. The correct placing of the following in the human retina, from inside to the outside, will be:

1.	Photoreceptors cells – Bipolar cells – Ganglion cells
2.	Ganglion cells – Bipolar cells – Photoreceptor cells
3.	Bipolar cells – Ganglion cells – Photoreceptor cells
4.	Bipolar cells - Photoreceptor cells - Ganglion cells

57. Working independently, who reached conclusions similar to those reached by Darwin on evolution of life forms?

1.	T R Malthus	2.	Hugo de Vries
3.	Alfred Russell Wallace	4.	Jean Baptist Lamarck

58. The part of the nephron, that plays a major role in increasing medullary interstitial osmolarity during concentration of urine by human kidney, is:
1. Descending limb of loop of Henle
2. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
3. PCT
4. DCT

59. The members of which of the following animal phyla are not exclusively marine?
1. Porifera
2. Ctenophora
3. Echinodermata
4. Hemichordata

60. What was used to deliver the normal copy of gene in the gene therapy trials for ADA deficiency?
1. Microinjection
2. Biolistics
3. Retrovirus
4. Liposomes

61.

Both tendons and ligaments:

I:	are dense irregular connective tissues
II:	connect muscle to bone

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

62.

Unlike roundworms, flatworms:
1. are triploblastic
2. exhibit bilateral symmetry
3. do not have a coelom
4. reproduce only by sexual methods

63. Each time the sodium-potassium pump functions, it actively transports:

1.	three sodium ions to the outside and two potassium ions to the inside of a cell.
2.	two sodium ions to the outside and three potassium ions to the inside of a cell.
3.	three sodium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell.
4.	three potassium ions to the outside and two hydrogen ions to the inside of a cell.

64. Identify the incorrect match:

	Structure of Cockroach	Location
1.	Testes	4-6^th abdominal segments
2.	Mushroom gland	8-9^th abdominal segments
3.	Ovaries	2-6^th abdominal segments
4.	Spermatheca	6^th abdominal segment

65. India’s share of world land area and global species diversity in percentages, respectively, is:
1. 2.4 and 8.1
2. 3.1 and 12
3. 3.3 and 9.6
4. 3.7 and 9.9

66. Which hypothalamic hormones are stored in and released from the posterior pituitary?
1. ADH and Prolactin
2. Oxytocin and Somatostatin
3. ADH and Oxytocin
4. Somatostatin and Somatomedin

67.

What argument will be most potent to discard proteins as possible molecules for genetic information storage in humans?
1. They have very limited diversity
2. They are not macromolecules
3. They do not replicate
4. They are unstable biomolecules

68. The most critical requirement for any DNA molecule to be able to act as a cloning vector during rDNA procedures will be:
1. Ori
2. MCS
3. More than one selectable marker
4. A silent promoter

69. The risk of erythroblastosis foetalis exists when:

1.	an Rh positive mother is carrying an Rh negative foetus
2.	an Rh negative mother is carrying an Rh positive foetus
3.	an Rh positive mother is carrying an Rh positive foetus
4.	an Rh negative mother is carrying an Rh negative foetus

70.

The sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of:
1. Common hepatic duct
2. Common bile duct
3. Common hepato-pancreatic duct
4. Cystic duct

71. Vomiting centre in human beings is located in:
1. Medulla oblongata
2. Pons
3. Hypothalamus
4. Thalamus

72.

Favourable conditions for the oxygenation of haemoglobin at alveoli include all the following except:
1. High pO₂
2. Low pCO₂
3. Low pH
4. Low temperature

73. ART stands for:
1. Assisted Reproductive Technologies
2. Assisted Reproductive Techniques
3. Artificial Reproductive Technologies
4. Artificial Reproductive Techniques

74.

Glenoid cavity and acetabulum are parts, respectively, of:

1.	Scapula and humerus	2.	Coxal bone and femur
3.	Scapula and coxal bone	4.	Coxal bone and scapula

75. All the following cells are expected to be haploid except:
1. first polar body
2. spermatid
3. secondary polar body
4. primary oocyte

76. The human liver fluke:

1.	is a cestode and requires two intermediate hosts – a cow and a pig
2.	is a trematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a chicken and a fish
3.	is a nematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a fish and a pig
4.	is a trematode and requires two intermediate hosts – a snail and a fish

77.

The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection is:

1.	Humoral immunity	2.	Cell mediated immunity
3.	Innate immunity	4.	Hyperimmunity

78.

Widal test is done for the diagnosis of:
1. Pneumonia
2. Typhoid
3. Syphilis
4. AIDS

79.

Addison’s disease is caused by:
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperadrenalism
4. Hypoadrenalism

80. Contraction of diaphragm:

1.	increases the diameter of thorax in dorso-ventral axis and brings about inhalation
2.	decreases the diameter of thorax in dorso-ventral axis and brings about exhalation
3.	increases the diameter of thorax in antero-posterior axis and brings about inhalation
4.	decreases the diameter of thorax in antero-posterior axis and brings about exhalation

81. Which of the following recording of the blood pressure in a human adult will not be considered as abnormal?
1. 120/100 mm Hg
2. 110/70 mm Hg
3. 170/80 mm Hg
4. 150/95 mm Hg

82. The Earth Summit was held in:

1.	Montreal, 1987	2.	Kyoto, 1997
3.	Rio de Janeiro, 1992	4.	Johannesburg, 2002

83. What percent of the human DNA actually codes for proteins?
1. Less than 2%
2. Around 20%
3. Between 35% and 40%
4. More than 98%

84. If a sample of single stranded DNA contains 23 % adenine bases of total, what is the expected percentage of guanine bases in this sample of DNA?

1.	23
2.	27
3.	46
4.	Cannot be determined on the basis of information given

85.

What is released at the time of ovulation?
1. Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
2. Primary oocyte arrested at meiosis II
3. Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis I
4. Secondary oocyte arrested at meiosis II

Biology II - Section B

86.

Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The end products of lipid, protein, and carbohydrate digestion enter the central lacteal of the villi.
2.	Sphincters are muscles that encircle tubes and act as valves.
3.	In diarrhea, too little water has been absorbed by the large intestine; in constipation, too much water has been absorbed.
4.	Essential amino acids are those that are required in the diet because the body is unable to produce them.

87. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	Despite great morphological difference between eucaryotic cells and prokaryotes, they are remarkably similar metabolically.
2.	The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are made up of 50S and 30S subunits.
3.	The rough part of rough endoplasmic reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes in the process of synthesizing ER proteins.
4.	The nucleolus is where the structural RNA for the cells ribosomes is transcribed from DNA.

88. Identify the correct statements:

I:	Non-steroid hormones are produced by the adrenal glands, the ovaries, and the testes.
II:	Non-steroid peptide hormones enter the cell.
III:	Steroid hormones do not bind to plasma membrane receptors.

1. Only I
2. Only I and II
3. Only III
4. I, II and II

89. What would not be true for nucleic acids?

1.	They are polynucleotides.
2.	Together with polysaccharides and polypeptides, these comprise the true macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell.
3.	A nucleotide has three chemically distinct components: a heterocyclic compound, a monosaccharide, and a phosphoric acid or a phosphate.
4.	The hexose sugar found in polynucleotides is either ribose or 2’deoxyribose.

90. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Humans breathe by negative pressure.
Statement II:	The respiratory center is directly affected by low oxygen levels.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

91. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Age structure can indicate whether a population is increasing, stable, or declining.
Statement II:	In general terms, a population with a very broad base would be expected to be stable.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

92.

In the human eye:
I: The sclera regulates entrance of light into the eyeball.
II: The choroid makes colour vision possible.
III: The ciliary body controls the lens shape for near and far vision.
1. Only III is incorrect
2. Only I and II are incorrect
3. Only I and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

93.

Regarding birds, the number of correct statements from the statements given will be:

I:	The forelimbs are modified into wings.
II:	Flightless birds do not have feathers.
III:	Skin is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail.
IV:	Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic).
V:	The hind limbs generally have scales.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

94. The glomerular ultrafiltrate will contain:
1. water, nitrogenous wastes, nutrients, and salts
2. blood cells, platelets and proteins
3. albumin, fats and other proteins
4. mainly blood cells

95. In an E. coli cell, the enzyme permease:

1.	is present only when glucose levels are very low
2.	is present only when lactose is freely available
3.	is present in a low amount all the time
4.	is not required for using lactose as a source of energy by the cell

96. Consider the two given statements:

Assertion (A):	Today, DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis.
Reason (R):	The use of PCR has increased the sensitivity of DNA fingerprinting.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)

97. The diagram shows a possible family tree for humans. If D is Homo sapiens, what can be A and C respectively?

1. Ramapithecus and Sivapithecus
2. Sivapithecus and Ramapithecus
3. Homo habilis and Homo erectus
4. Homo erectus and Homo habilis

98. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Antigen	P	a chemical produced by the human body in response to the presence of a foreign substance
B	Antibody	Q	a foreign substance that causes the human body to produce a special chemical in response to its presence
C	Active immunity	R	immunity acquired as a result of injection of a vaccine containing live micro-organisms
D	Passive immunity	S	immunity acquired as a result of the injection of a vaccine containing antibodies

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	R	S
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	P	Q	S	R

99.

The menstrual bleed is mainly due to the withdrawal of:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH

100. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s).
Statement II:	Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a whole set of chromosomes in an organism.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

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