Full Syllabus Test # 5 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1.

Which blue green alga can be an alternate source of proteins for animal and human nutrition?
1. Chlorella
2. Cladophora
3. Methylophilus
4. Spirulina

2. In reference to the given figure, the position of ovary and type of flowers respectively will be:

1. Superior, Hypogynous
2. Inferior, Epigynous
3. Half-inferior, Perigynous
4. Inferior, Epigynous

3.

The cell cycle in a typical eukaryotic cell is divided into:

1.	Five phases	2.	Four phases
3.	Three phases	4.	Two phases

4.

Endoparasites are generally characterised by:

1.	greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential.
2.	greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential.
3.	highly developed morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential.
4.	highly developed morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential.

5.

Taq polymerase is a:

1.	thermostable DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
2.	thermostable DNA dependent DNA polymerase.
3.	thermolabile DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
4.	thermolabile DNA dependent DNA polymerase.

6. Identify the amino acid:

1.	Glycine	2.	Serine
3.	Alanine	4.	Lysine

7. Which law is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending and that both the characters are recovered as such in the F₂ generation though one of these is not seen at the F₁ stage?
1. Law of blending Inheritance
2. Law of dominance
3. Law of segregation
4. Law of independent assortment

8. Regarding DNA replication:

I:	It is semi-conservative.
II:	It is semi-discontinuous.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

9. The reaction centres in PSI and PSII in higher plants are respectively called as:

1.	P680 and P700	2.	P700 and P680
3.	P870 and P700	4.	P680 and P870

10.

Which plant growth regulator is used to initiate flowering and synchronising fruit-set in pineapples?

1.	Gibberellins	2.	Cytokinins
3.	ABA	4.	Ethylene

11. What would not be true for a plasmid present in some bacterial cells?

1.	It is extrachromosomal DNA
2.	It is circular and double stranded
3.	It gets replicated with the help of ori of chromosomal DNA
4.	It confers characters like resistance to antibiotics to bacterial cells

12. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	At the source sugars are actively transported in to a sieve tube.
Statement II:	At the sink incoming sugars are passively transported out of the phloem.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

13. In Pisum sativum, the allele for tallness [T] is completely dominant over the allele for dwarfness [t]. What proportion of the tall progeny of the cross Tt X Tt will be homozygous tall?

1.	1/3	2.	1/4
3.	1/2	4.	3/2

14. Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first:

1.	plants with haplontic life cycle
2.	terrestrial plants with dominant gametophytic generation
3.	plants to produce flowers pollinated by insects
4.	terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues

15. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Ulothrix	P	Brown algae with diplontic life cycle
B	Ectocarpus	Q	Major pigments are chlorophyll a and b
C	Fucus	R	Brown algae with haplo-diplontic life cycle
D	Polysiphonia	S	Lack flagella

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	R	Q	S	P

16.

The RNA polymerase I does not transcribe:

1.	28S rRNA	2.	18S rRNA
3.	5.8S rRNA	4.	5S rRNA

17. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of CO₂ by a bacterium named Propionibacterium shermanii.
Statement II:	The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripened by growing a specific bacteria on them, which gives them a particular flavour.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

18. The activator of alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme is:

1.	Zinc	2.	Magnesium
3.	Manganese	4.	Molybdenum

19. In China rose stamens are:

1.	united into one bundle
2.	united into two bundles
3.	united into more than two bundles
4.	having filaments with variable length

20. In a monocot stem:

I:	hypodermis is collenchymatous
II:	vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
III:	phloem parenchyma is absent

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

21. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cyanobacteria:

1.	They have chlorophyll a (similar to green plants)
2.	They are unicellular and never colonial or filamentous
3.	They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
4.	Some of them can fix atmospheric nitrogen

22. In Whittaker’s five Kingdom classification, organisms with eukaryotic cell type and cellular body organisation are kept under:

1.	Kingdom Monera	2.	Kingdom Protista
3.	Kingdom Fungi	4.	Kingdom Plantae

23.

The chief ‘producers’ in the oceans are:
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Diatoms
4. Lichens

24.

What are the desirable traits in sugarcane for a farmer?

1.	Thin stem, long internodes, high sugar content and disease resistant
2.	Thick stem, long internodes, high sugar content and disease resistant
3.	Thick stem, short internodes, high sugar content, disease resistant
4.	Thick stem, low sugar content and disease susceptible

25. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services, which of the following accounts for maximum per cent?
1. nutrient cycling
2. soil formation
3. climate regulation
4. recreation

26. All the following are ‘ex-situ’ methods for conservation of biodiversity except:
1. Zoological parks
2. Botanical gardens
3. Wildlife safari parks
4. National parks

27. The repressor of the lac operon is synthesised:

1.	all the time
2.	only when lactose is present
3.	only when lactose is absent
4.	only when glucose is present in high amount

28. In nitrogen cycle, the bacteria carrying out nitrification are:
1. Photosynthetic autotrophs
2. Chemoautotrophs
3. Chemoheterotrophs
4. Methanogens

29.

A pea plant shows the dominant phenotype. You conduct a single gene test cross to determine the genotype of this pea plant (T = tall, t = short). All progeny of the test cross show the dominant phenotype. The genotype of the plant in question is most likely:

1.	TT.	2.	TTtt.
3.	Tt.	4.	tt.

30. All the following produce secondary tissues in a plant body except:
1. Fascicular vascular cambium
2. Interfascicular cambium
3. Cork-cambium
4. Intercalary meristem

31.

Glycerol enters the respiratory pathway after being converted to:

1.	PGAL	2.	PEP
3.	1, 3 – BPG	4.	2 – PG

32. In plants:

I:	Growth is open
II:	Differentiation is open

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

33.

The pollen intine is:

1.	a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
2.	a thick and discontinuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
3.	made up of sporopollenin and is a continuous layer.
4.	made up of sporopollenin and has prominent apertures called germ pores.

34.

Strobilanthes kunthiana [neelakurinji] flowers once in every:
1. 2 years
2. 12 years
3. 20 to 25 years
4. 50 to 100 years

35. Which stage of sewage water treatment is essentially a ‘biological’ treatment?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quaternary

Biology I - Section B

36.

Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.
Reason (R):	The peptide bond formation in prokaryotes is catalysed by a ribozyme.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A)

37. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, the productivity of the oceans is:
1. 55 billion tons.
2. 70 billion tons.
3. 100 billion tons.
4. 120 billion tons.

38. In terms of fixing carbon dioxide, when compared to a C₃ plant, a C₄ plant:

1.	is twice as efficient and loses only half as much water for the same amount of carbon dioxide fixed.
2.	is equally efficient and loses only half as much water for the same amount of carbon dioxide fixed.
3.	is twice as efficient and loses same amount of water for the same amount of carbon dioxide fixed.
4.	is equally efficient and loses same amount of water for the same amount of carbon dioxide fixed.

39. The Ladybird and Dragonflies are useful to respectively get rid of:
1. mosquitoes and aphids
2. aphids and mosquitoes
3. bollworms and corn borers
4. corn borers and bollworms

40.

Slime molds:

1.	form plasmodium that differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during unfavourable conditions.
2.	form plasmodium that differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during favourable conditions.
3.	form plasmodium under favourable conditions and the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during unfavourable conditions.
4.	form plasmodium under unfavourable conditions and the plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during favourable conditions.

41. Study the given figure and select the correct statements:

I:	In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled stage.
II:	In 40 per cent of angiosperms, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-celled stage).

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

42. NADH + H⁺ is reoxidised to NAD⁺ in:

I:	Ethanol fermentation
II:	Lactate fermentation

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

43. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Number of possible phenotypes in ABO blood group system	P	1 : 2 : 1
B	Number of possible genotypes in ABO blood group system	Q	3 : 1
C	F₂ phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance	R	4
D	F₂ phenotypic ratio in complete dominance	S	6

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

44.

Living organisms can be characterised but not defined by:

I.	Reproduction
II.	Growth
III.	Cellular organisation with metabolism
IV.	Consciousness

1. Only I and II
2. Only III and IV
3. Only I and III
4. Only II and IV

45. A constant internal environment, in spite of an ever-changing external environment, cannot be maintained by:

1.	10 per cent of animals and some plants
2.	50 per cent of animals and nearly all plants
3.	99 per cent of animals and nearly all plants
4.	100 per cent of animals and nearly 1 per cent of plants

46.

Seed dormancy can be due to the presence of chemical inhibitors which include all the following except:
1. abscisic acids
2. phenolic acids
3. para-ascorbic acid
4. gibberellic acid

47. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Iodine-KI reagent can be used to detect starch in a sample.
Reason (R):	Starch can hold iodine molecules in its helical portion and starch-iodine is blue in colour.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain(A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).

48. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In aerobic cellular respiration, the complete oxidation of pyruvate takes place in the cytoplasm.
Statement II:	The apparatus for passing electrons to molecular oxygen with simultaneous synthesis of ATP is located in the inter-membrane space

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

49. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The ‘Sixth Extinction’ presently in progress is different from the previous episodes of species extinction.
Reason (R):	The current species extinction rates are estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than in the pre-human times

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

50. How many of the given statements are correct:

I:	Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
II:	The coconut water from tender coconut is cellular endosperm.
III:	The white kernel in coconut is free nuclear endosperm.
IV:	Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in pea.
V:	Endosperm persists in the mature seed of castor.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Biology II - Section A

51. Regarding early embryonic development in humans:

I:	The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during the third month.
II:	By the end of about 24 weeks, the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are formed.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

52. Match each item in Column-I with one in Column-II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Radula	P.	Osteichthyes
B.	Operculum	Q.	Molluska
C.	Flame cell	R.	Flat worms
D.	Hair	S.	Mammalia

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	S	Q	R
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	R	Q	S	P

53.

Notochord is a:

1.	endodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development in some animals.
2.	endodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the ventral side during embryonic development in some animals.
3.	mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development in some animals.
4.	mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the ventral side during embryonic development in some animals.

54. If two genes are closely linked on the same chromosome:

1.	they will assort independently
2.	the proportion of recombinants formed will be higher than the parental types
3.	the proportion of recombinants formed will be much lower than the parental types
4.	the proportion of recombinants formed will be equal to that of the parental types

55. The part of the nephron that reabsorbs electrolytes but does not reabsorb any water is:

1.	Descending limb of loop of Henle
2.	Ascending limb of loop of Henle
3.	PCT
4.	DCT

56. What type of neuron is found in the human retina and olfactory membrane?
1. Unipolar
2. Bipolar
3. Multipolar
4. Pseudo-unipolar

57.

Restriction enzymes produced by some bacteria:

1.	cleave phosphodiester bond in the main chromosomal DNA of the bacterium.
2.	cut single stranded DNA at random positions.
3.	prevent the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria.
4.	provide resistance against antibiotics.

58. Identify A, B and C in the given figure showing sectional view of cochlea:

	A	B	C
1.	Reissener’s membrane	Tectorial membrane	Basilar membrane
2.	Basilar membrane	Reissener’s membrane	Tectorial membrane
3.	Tectorial membrane	Basilar membrane	Reissener’s membrane
4.	Reissener’s membrane	Basilar membrane	Tectorial membrane

59. Identify incorrect statement regarding Periplaneta americana:

1.	Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.
2.	Blood vascular system is of closed type.
3.	Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules.
4.	The sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles.

60.

In the five kingdom classification, the members of Kingdom Animalia:

I:	are all heterotrophs
II:	are all multicellular where cells lack a cell wall

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

61. Which of the following biomolecules makes up maximum percentage of the average composition of a cell?
1. Carbohydrates
2. Proteins
3. Lipids
4. Nucleic acids

62.

Intercalated discs are found in:

1.	Cuboidal epithelium	2.	Smooth muscles
3.	Cardiac muscles	4.	Sarcolemma

63. Which of the following organism is not uricotelic?
1. Land snails
2. Reptiles
3. Insects
4. Aquatic amphibians

64. Lysosomes:

Statement I:	are membrane bound vesicular structures formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Statement II:	are very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes optimally active at the basic pH.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

65. Opportunistic infections like tuberculosis and toxoplasmosis are seen in HIV positive patients when:

1.	The B – lymphocyte counts becomes excessive
2.	The phagocytic cells stop functioning
3.	The T helper cell count gets very low
4.	The body starts making a large number of antibodies against HIV

66. Second messengers, employed in the action on target cells in case of some hormones, include all the following except:
1. cAMP
2. Calcium
3. IP₃
4. Catabolite Activator Protein

67. In a transcription unit, the location of promoter is described as:

1.	at the 3' end, downstream of the structural gene
2.	at the 3' end, upstream of the structural gene
3.	at the 5' end, upstream of the structural gene
4.	at the 5' end, downstream of the structural gene

68. In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division properly lasts for:
1. only about 1 hour
2. approximately 90 minutes
3. between 4 and 5 hours
4. 95% time of the cell cycle

69. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Gliding joint	P	Base of thumb
B	Saddle joint	Q	Between atlas and axis
C	Pivot joint	R	Suture in skull
D	Fibrous joint	S	Between carpal bones

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

70. The bile released into the duodenum contains all the following except:
1. bile pigments
2. bile salts
3. cholesterol
4. digestive enzymes

71. Gross calorific values of carbohydrates, proteins and fats respectively are:

1.	4.0 kcal/g, 4.0 kcal/g and 9.0 kcal/g
2.	4.0 kcal/g, 4.5 kcal/g and 9.0 kcal/g
3.	4.1 kcal/g, 5.65 kcal/g and 9.45 kcal/g
4.	4.1 kcal/g, 5.0 kcal/g and 9.45 kcal/g

72. The most abundant and the least abundant of the total WBCs, respectively are:
1. Neutrophils and Monocytes
2. Eosinophils and Basophils
3. Neutrophils and Basophils
4. Monocytes and Eosinophils

73. GIFT is:

1.	Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development.
2.	Fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as those in the body.
3.	Transfer of the zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube.
4.	Artificial introduction of the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra-uterine insemination) of the female.

74. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	End products of fat digestion cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Reason (R):	Fat is neither a polymer nor a macromolecule.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

75. The cell shown in the figure is used in:

1.	capturing prey in Cnidarians
2.	generating water current in sponges
3.	osmoregulation in rotifers
4.	movement in ctenophores

76. The fungal Genus not responsible for causing ringworm in humans will be:
1. Microsporum
2. Trichophyton
3. Epidermophyton
4. Trichoderma

77.

Embryological support for evolution was proposed by:
1. Ernst Mayr
2. Ernst Haeckel
3. Hugo de Vries
4. Kary Mullis

78. Which of the following methods is especially useful for transforming animal cells?
1. Electroporation
2. Biolistics
3. Microinjection
4. Heat shock

79. Which hormone, secreted by the small intestinal mucosa in response to fatty chyme, causes contraction of the gall bladder?
1. Secretin
2. Cholecystokinin
3. Gastric inhibitory peptide
4. Gastrin

80. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration is called as:
1. Functional residual capacity
2. Vital capacity
3. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Residual volume

81. Which of the following has an ATPase activity?
1. Myosin head
2. Myosin tail
3. Troponin T
4. Tropomyosin

82. Root knot disease in tobacco is caused by:
1. Infective double stranded RNA
2. Abnormally folded proteins
3. Nematode Meloidogyne incognita
4. Nematode Caenorhabditis elegans

83. In the absence of an enzyme, the catalysed reaction:

1.	does not take place
2.	takes place at a very slow rate
3.	takes place at a higher rate
4.	is not affected at all

84.

The first form of milk produced by the mammary glands of humans immediately following delivery of the newborn is rich in:
1. IgA antibodies
2. IgG antibodies
3. IgM antibodies
4. IgE antibodies

85.

Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The broadly utilitarian argument for conserving biodiversity says that humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature.
Statement II:	The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity says that biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

Biology II - Section B

86. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	More than 25% of the drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from plants.
Statement II:	Amazon forest is estimated to produce, through photosynthesis 5 % of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

87.

The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation in prokaryotes is a part of:

1.	the larger subunit of the bacterial ribosome
2.	the smaller subunit of the bacterial ribosome
3.	the 5’ UTR of the mRNA
4.	the 3’ UTR of the mRNA

88.

Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The living state and metabolism are synonymous.
Statement II:	The living state is a non-equilibrium steady-state to be able to perform work.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

89. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Primary contaminants for accelerated eutrophication of lakes are nitrates and phosphates.
Reason (R):	Nitrates and phosphates are plant nutrients which over-stimulate the growth of algae.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

90. Cryptic colouration is:
1. warning colouration by poisonous organisms.
2. protective resemblance with the environment.
3. lack of effect of exposure of sunlight on skin colour.
4. contrasting skin colours in males and females of a species.

91.

What would not be true for cyclostomes?

1.	All are endoparasites on some fishes.
2.	They have aa circular mouth without jaw.
3.	Body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
4.	Circulation is of closed type.

92. The trait, shown by solid symbols in the given pedigree, is MOST LIKELY inherited as:

1. Autosomal recessive trait
2. Sex linked recessive trait
3. Autosomal dominant trait
4. Sex linked dominant trait

93. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, enacted by the government of India provides:

I:	A pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered grounds within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
II:	If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the required ground exist.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

94. Consider the two statements:

Assertion(A):	Periodic abstinence is the method of natural contraception in which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
Reason(R):	Implantation is expected to take place from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).

95.

Chorionic villi are derived from:

1.	Trophoblast cells	2.	Granulosa cells
3.	Theca cells	4.	Maternal tissue

96.

Cells sloughed from malignant tumors reach distant sites through blood, and wherever they get lodged in the body, they start a new tumor there. This property is called:
1. Oncogenic transformation
2. Contact inhibition
3. Metastasis
4. Metaplasia

97. How many of the given statements are correct?

I:	The major lipids in cell membrane are phospholipids that are arranged in a bilayer.
II:	The ability of lipids and carbohydrates to move laterally within the membrane is measured by its fluidity.
III:	In addition to phospholipids, the animal cell membrane also contains cholesterol.
IV:	Algae have a cell wall, made of cellulose, galactans, mannans, and minerals like calcium carbonate.
V:	In plants other than algae, cell membrane consists of cellulose, hemicellulose, pectins and proteins

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

98.

In animal cells, during the S phase:

I:	DNA replication begins in the cytoplasm
II:	The centriole duplicates in the nucleus

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

99. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	An excess of aldosterone can cause a decrease in potassium ion concentration in body fluids.
Reason (R):	Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of Na⁺ and water.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).

100. A process in which heritable variations enabling better survival are enabled to reproduce and leave greater number of progeny is called:

1.	Evolution	2.	Saltation
3.	Speciation	4.	Natural selection

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