Full Syllabus Test # 3 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1. Pusa swarnim [Karan rai] is a variety of:
1. Wheat
2. Brassica
3. Cowpea
4. Chilli

2.

Roots arising from parts of the plant other than the radical are found in all the following except:
1. Monstera
2. Banyan tree
3. Maize
4. Mango

3. Onion root tip cells have 16 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in this cell at the end of S phase?

1.	4	2.	8
3.	16	4.	32

4. All the following are limitations of ecological pyramids except:

1.	It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
2.	It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature.
3.	It does not accommodate a food web.
4.	Saprophytes are given the most important place in ecological pyramids even though they do not play a vital role in the ecosystem.

5. Adaptations in desert plants to minimise water loss through transpiration include all the following except:

1.	a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces
2.	stomata arranged in deep pits (sunken)
3.	presence of pneumatophores
4.	a special photosynthetic pathway (CAM)

6. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Lysine	P	Simplest alpha amino acid
B	Serine	Q	Aromatic amino acid
C	Glycine	R	Basic amino acid
D	Tryptophan	S	R functional group is hydroxymethyl

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	S	P	Q
2.	R	S	Q	P
3.	S	R	P	Q
4.	S	R	Q	P

7. In angiosperms, the only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is:
1. Chasmogamy
2. Cleistogamy
3. Xenogamy
4. Geitonogamy

8. Identify the correct information regarding the genetics of ABO blood group system in humans:

A:	The three alleles are all co-dominant
B:	The number of possible genotypes is 6
C:	The number of possible phenotypes is 4

1. A and B are correct
2. A and C are correct
3. B and C are correct
4. A, B and C are correct

9. In Nitrogen Cycle, Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus carry out:
1. Nitrogen fixation
2. Nitrification
3. Denitrification
4. Ammonification

10. The electron transport system in the mitochondrion is present in the:
1. Outer mitochondrial membrane
2. Inter membrane space
3. Inner mitochondrial membrane
4. Mitochondrial stroma

11. What organelles present in animal cells are absent in almost all plant cells?
1. Plastids
2. A large central vacuole
3. Ribosomes
4. Centrioles

12. The genetic variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan ranges in terms of the potency and concentration of the active chemical (reserpine) that the plant produces is an example of:
1. Genetic diversity
2. Species diversity
3. Ecological diversity
4. Global diversity

13.

Encystation in unfavourable conditions followed by sporulation on the return of favourable conditions is seen in:
1. Sponges
2. Amoeba
3. Diatoms
4. Desmids

14. A classification of living organisms based on evolutionary relationships is called as:

1.	Artificial classification system
2.	Numerical taxonomy
3.	Phylogenetic classification system
4.	Cytotaxonomy

15.

All the following statements regarding the importance of algae are correct except:

1.	Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
2.	Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are marine algae used as food.
3.	Algin and carrageen are both obtained from brown algae.
4.	Chlorella is rich in proteins and is used as a food supplement even by space travellers.

16. In a cross between a pea plant that has seeds with yellow colour and round shape and one that has seeds of green colour and wrinkled shape, the yellow and green colours are segregated in a:
1. 1 : 1 ratio
2. 3 : 1 ratio
3. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
4. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio

17. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill all the following criteria except:
1. It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
2. It should be stable chemically and structurally.
3. It should provide the scope for rapid and large-scale changes.
4. It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian Characters’.

18. Root pressure:

1.	provides a major push in the overall process of water transport.
2.	play a major role in water movement up tall trees.
3.	helps to re-establish the continuous chains of water molecules in the xylem which often break under the enormous tensions created by transpiration.
4.	accounts for the majority of water transport.

19. A plant with the given floral formula must belong to:
% ⚥ K₍₅₎ C_1+2+(2) A₍₉₎₊₁ G₁
1. Fabaceae
2. Solanaceae
3. Brassicaceae
4. Liliaceae

20.

In a dorsiventral [dicotyledonous] leaf:

I:	The abaxial epidermis generally bears more stomata than the adaxial epidermis.
II:	The palisade parenchyma is adaxially placed.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

21. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Phycomycetes	P	Ustilago and Puccinia
B	Ascomycetes	Q	Alternaria and Trichoderma
C	Basidiomycetes	R	Rhizopus and Albugo
D	Deuteromycetes	S	Aspergillus and Neurospora

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	S	P	Q
2.	R	S	Q	P
3.	S	R	P	Q
4.	S	R	Q	P

22. If you are writing the binomial name of an organism you should not:

1.	write the name in italics
2.	separately underline them
3.	start the genus name with a capital letter
4.	start the specific epithet with a capital letter

23. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	No virus contains both RNA and DNA.
Statement II:	Bacteriophages are usually single-stranded RNA viruses.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

24. The fungus used in the industrial preparation of citric acid is:

1.	Penicillium chrysogenum	2.	Clostridium butylicum
3.	Trichoderma harzianum	4.	Aspergillus niger

25. The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually:
1. Lichens
2. Phytoplanktons
3. Green algae
4. Bryophytes

26. How many of the given statements are true?

I:	More than 70 percent of all the species recorded are animals.
II:	Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group.
III:	The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

27.

A double stranded DNA is found to contain 23% thymine. What is the expected percentage of cytosine in this DNA molecule?

1.	23	2.	27
3.	46	4.	54

28.

What appear as symptoms of manganese toxicity in plants may actually be the deficiency symptoms of all the following except:
1. Nitrogen
2. Iron
3. Magnesium
4. Calcium

29. Pollen grains can persist in the fossil record for hundreds of millions of years because of the presence of:
1. Sporopollenin
2. Lignin
3. Cellulose
4. Suberin

30.

In angiosperms:

1.	the outside of the root epidermis is often covered with a waxy thick layer called the cuticle.
2.	the guard cells possess chloroplasts.
3.	the root hairs are usually multi-cellular.
4.	the trichomes in the shoot system are usually unicellular.

31. In Calvin Cycle, the first CO₂ fixation product is:
1. 3-phosphoglyceric acid
2. phosphoenolpyruvate
3. oxaloacetic acid
4. malic acid

32.

Numbers of points in the Krebs cycle where NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH + H⁺ and where FAD⁺ is reduced to FADH₂ respectively are:

1.	1 and 3	2.	3 and 1
3.	2 and 4	4.	4 and 2

33. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	PGR	Chemical nature
1.	IAA	Indole compounds
2.	Kinetin	Adenine derivatives
3.	ABA	Carotenoid derivatives
4.	GA	Fatty acids

34. The exponential growth of an organism or a part of an organism can be expressed as W₁ = W₀ e^rt, where e is:

1.	final size (weight, height, number etc.)
2.	initial size at the beginning of the period
3.	growth rate
4.	base of natural logarithms

35. All of the following are a part of biotechnology except:

1.	in vitro fertilisation leading to a ‘test-tube’ baby
2.	synthesising a gene and using it
3.	developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a defective gene
4.	insertion of an IUD for contraception

Biology I - Section B

36. In artificial hybridisation for crop improvement, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for:

I:	Emasculation
II:	Bagging

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

37.

Which of the following has been achieved regarding breeding crops for improved nutritional quality?

I:	Maize hybrids with twice the amount of the amino acids, lysine and tryptophan.
II:	Wheat variety, Atlas 66, has a high protein content.

1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

38.

RNAi is a method for:

1.	amplification of DNA
2.	detecting a gene of interest in a sample of DNA
3.	regulation of gene expression at the level of initiation of transcription
4.	post-transcriptional gene silencing

39. In bacteria, extensions of the plasma membrane:

I:	called mesosomes help in cell wall formation and DNA replication.
II:	called chromatophores contain pigments and are used to perform photosynthesis.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

40.

Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	The deficiency symptoms of nitrogen, potassium and magnesium are visible first in the young leaves.
Reason(R):	In the older leaves, biomolecules containing these elements are broken down, making these elements available for mobilising to younger leaves.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True

.

41. Identify the correct match:

1.	Racemose inflorescence	Main axis terminates in a flower
2.	Cymose Inflorescence	Flowers borne in basipetal succession
3.	Hypogynous flower	Ovary is inferior
4.	Epigynous flower	Ovary is superior

42. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	In C₄ plants, photorespiration does not occur.
Reason (R):	They have a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO₂at RuBisCO site.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

43. The 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference or Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC, more commonly referred to as COP27 was held in:
1. Glasgow, Scotland
2. Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt
3. Paris, France
4. New Delhi, India

44. Which of the following is not correct regarding differences between liverworts and mosses in general?

		Liverworts	Mosses
1.	Rhizoids	Unicellular	Multi-cellular
2.	Sporophyte	Less elaborate	More elaborate
3.	Asexual reproduction	Gemmae	Budding in secondary protonema
4.	Dominant generation	Gametophyte	Sporophyte

45. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	In a typical nucleus, some regions of chromatin are loosely packed (and stains light) and are referred to as euchromatin.
2.	The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called Heterochromatin.
3.	Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally inactive chromatin, whereas heterochromatin is active.
4.	Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in the nucleus called chromatin.

46. Incomplete dominance results in:

1.	Offspring having a trait identical to one of the parents.
2.	Offspring having a trait that is a blend of those seen in the parents.
3.	Offspring having a trait similar but not identical to one of the parents.
4.	Offspring having a different trait than both parents.

47.

In facilitated diffusion:

1.	gradient need not be present for transport to occur.
2.	there is an expenditure of ATP energy.
3.	net transport of molecules from a low to a high concentration takes place.
4.	transport rate reaches a maximum when all of the protein transporters are being used (saturation).

48. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Antibiotics like penicillin are not effective against mycoplasma.
Reason (R):	Mycoplasma are organisms that completely lack a cell wall.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

49. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes.
Reason (R):	Temperature and soil moisture affect the activities of soil microbes.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

50. Study the given diagram of phloem tissue in angiosperms and select the correct statements:

Statement I:	‘A’ at maturity lose its protoplasm and becomes dead.
Statement II:	‘B’ stores food material and other substances like resins, latex, and mucilage.

1. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

Biology II - Section A

51.

In ZIFT:

1.	zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) are transferred into the fallopian tube
2.	embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus
3.	ovum collected from a donor is transferred into the fallopian tube of the recipient
4.	semen is artificially deposited in the uterus

52. Radula, a rasping tongue like organ, is present in many members of:
1. Aschelminthes
2. Molluska
3. Echinodermata
4. Hemichordata

53. Types of cell junctions that are found in the epithelium and other tissues that facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells are:

1.	Tight junctions	2.	Adhering junctions
3.	Gap junctions	4.	Plasmodesmata

54. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Disease	Mode of transmission
1.	Typhoid	Contaminated food and water
2.	Genital warts	Sexual contact
3.	Ascariasis	Vector-borne
4.	Common cold	Droplet

55. Specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus responsible for the maintenance of a
balance of the body and posture are called:

1.	Utricle and Saccule
2.	Scala media and Scala vestibuli
3.	Basilar membrane and Reissener’s membrane
4.	Crista and Macula

56. At the time of puberty, the ovary in a female contains:

1.	primary follicles with primary oocyte arrested at prophase I of meiosis I
2.	secondary follicles with primary oocyte arrested at prophase I of meiosis I
3.	primary follicles with primary oocyte arrested at metaphase II of meiosis II
4.	mature Graafian follicle with a completely mature ovum

57. Lac operon is basically:
1. a negative inducible operon
2. a positive inducible operon
3. a negative repressible operon
4. a positive repressible operon

58. The human skull is composed of two sets of bones – cranial and facial, that count to:
1. 8 bones
2. 14 bones
3. 22 bones
4. 29 bones

59. When an enzyme denatures:

1.	the activation energy of the reaction is doubled.
2.	the activation energy of the reaction is lowered.
3.	its optimal conditions for the temperature of the enzyme are doubled.
4.	the shape of the enzyme molecule changes

60. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Ramapithecus was more man-like.
Statement II:	Dryopithecus was more ape-like.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

61.

Into which part of the human stomach does the oesophagus open?
1. Fundus
2. Cardia
3. Body [Corpus]
4. Pylorus

62. Key events during telophase include all the following except:

1.	Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
2.	Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei.
3.	Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
4.	Nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER reform.

63. Match each item in Column I [duration of pregnancy] with one in Column II [major features of embryonic development] and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	By the end of the second month	P	most of the major organ systems are formed
B	By the end of 12 weeks	Q	the foetus develops limbs and digits
C	By the end of 24 weeks	R	the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are formed

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	P	Q	R
2.	Q	P	R
3.	R	Q	P
4.	R	P	Q

64. Select the correct explanation of the structure shown in the given figure as your answer:

1.	The chromosome shown is metacentric and X is centromere
2.	The chromosome shown is metacentric and X is satellite
3.	The chromosome shown is sub-metacentric and X is centromere
4.	The chromosome shown is sub-metacentric and X is satellite

65. The plasmid of which of the following was used for the production of recombinant human insulin?
1. Yeast
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella typhimurium
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

66. The structure formed during human embryonic development is shown in the given figure:

1.	is morula and has 8 to 16 cells
2.	is the antral follicle with a fluid-filled antrum
3.	is blastocyst that gets implanted on the uterine endometrium
4.	is gastrula where the three germ layers are formed before implantation

67. The pioneering work of which of the following was the basis upon which the discipline of biotechnology was founded?
1. Severo Ochoa and Nirenberg
2. Kary Mullis
3. Beadle and Tatum
4. Cohen and Boyer

68. The breeding strategy used for the production of ‘Hisardale’ is:
1. Inbreeding
2. Cross breeding
3. Out crossing
4. Inter-specific hybridisation

69.

Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications at the location of their contact between:
1. Efferent arteriole and DCT
2. Afferent arteriole and PCT
3. Afferent arteriole and DCT
4. Efferent arteriole and PCT

70.

Human liver:

1.	secretes large amounts of digestive enzymes.
2.	has five lobes.
3.	produces urea which is carried by the hepatic portal vein to the kidneys.
4.	has hepatic lobules as its structural and functional unit.

71.

The contraction of external inter-costal muscles:

1.	lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
2.	lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.
3.	depresses the ribs and the sternum causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis.
4.	depresses the ribs and the sternum causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis.

72. The electrical event represented by P wave in an ECG leads to:

1.	the contraction of both the atria
2.	the contraction of both the ventricles
3.	the relaxation of both the atria
4.	the relaxation of both the ventricles

73.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding phenylketonuria:

1.	It is an inborn error of metabolism inherited as the autosomal recessive trait.
2.	The affected individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid tyrosine into phenylalanine.
3.	Accumulation of phenyl pyruvic acid in the brain results in mental retardation.
4.	Phenylpyruvic acid is also excreted through urine because of its poor absorption by the kidney.

74.

What would not be true regarding thyroid hormones?

1.	Thyroid hormones play an important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate.
2.	Thyroid hormones support the process of red blood cell formation.
3.	All hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are iodothyronines.
4.	Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance is also influenced by thyroid hormones.

75. Which of the following is not a feature of Reptilia?

1.	Body is covered with dermal scales or scutes.
2.	They do not have external ear openings.
3.	Heart is usually three-chambered, but four-chambered in crocodiles.
4.	They are poikilotherms.

76. Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to:
1. Habitat loss and fragmentation
2. Over-exploitation
3. Alien species invasion
4. Co-extinction

77.

The role of an adapter molecule in the translation of genetic information is performed by:
1. miRNA
2. hnRNA
3. tRNA
4. siRNA

78.

Human Genome Project was launched in the year:

1.	1990	2.	2003
3.	2006	4.	2011

79.

The increasing population of India is probably due to a decline in all of the following except:

1.	death rate
2.	maternal mortality rate (MMR)
3.	infant mortality rate (IMR)
4.	number of people in reproducible age

80. A person with type O blood group can receive blood from a person with:

1.	type A and type B blood group
2.	type A, type B and type O blood group
3.	type O blood group only
4.	type AB blood group only

81. The endoplasmic reticulum, i.e., sarcoplasmic reticulum of the skeletal muscle fibres is:

1.	an example of RER and secretes a large number of proteins.
2.	the store house of calcium ions.
3.	not bound by a membrane.
4.	organised into light and dark bands giving the muscle fibres a striated appearance.

82. In the given figure of pBR322, A, B and C are respectively the recognition sequences for:

	A	B	C
1.	Pst I	EcoR I	BamH I
2.	Pst II	EcoR I	BamH I
3.	Pst I	Hind II	BamH I
4.	Pst I	EcoR I	Hind III

83.

The beak of the original variety of Darwin finches was adapted for:
1. Seed-eating
2. Nectar sucking
3. Insect eating
4. Piercing hardwood on stem trunks

84. Cirrhosis of liver is a dangerous complication commonly associated with chronic abuse of:

1.	Morphine	2.	Cannabinoids
3.	Alcohol	4.	Atropine

85.

Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PIDs) are a recognized complication of:
1. use of barrier contraceptives
2. sexually transmitted infections
3. periodic abstinence
4. oral contraceptive pills

Biology II - Section B

86. The human body compensates for low oxygen availability at high altitudes by:

I:	increasing red blood cell production
II:	increasing the binding affinity of hemoglobin
III:	increasing breathing rate

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

87.

In a typical dihybrid cross, AaBb X AaBb [assuming complete dominance and independent assortment], what would the ratio of progeny be with the following genotypes?

AaBb : Aabb : AABb : aabb

1.	2 : 1 : 2 : 1	2.	2 : 2 : 1 : 1
3.	4 : 1 : 2 : 1	4.	4 : 2 : 2 : 1

88. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	DNA and not RNA are preferred for the storage of genetic information.
Reason (R):	DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

89. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	DDT undergoes biomagnifications in an aquatic food chain.
Reason (R):	DDT is readily biodegradable and excreted easily from animal bodies.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

90. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Reason (R):	GEAC does not allow research on any other animal.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

91. Malpighian tubules in cockroaches:

Statement I:	are a ring of 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of foregut and midgut.
Statement II:	play an important role in excretion but no role in osmoregulation.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

92. All the following are preconditions if a population is to remain in genetic [Hardy-Weinberg] equilibrium except:

1.	Population is large
2.	No mutations are occurring
3.	Mating is not random
4.	No gene migration or gene flow

93. In a test cross:

Statement I:	If any of the offspring produced, expresses the recessive trait, the individual in question is homozygous for the dominant allele.
Statement II:	If all of the offspring produced express the dominant trait, the individual in question is heterozygous for the dominant allele.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

94.

Which cells are critical for an adequate cell-mediated and humoral immune response in human beings?

1.	NK cells	2.	T helper cells
3.	Plasma cells	4.	Myeloma cells

95.

All the following statements regarding enzymes are correct except:

1.	Almost all enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
2.	Almost all enzymes are substrate specific.
3.	Enzymes provide activation energy for reactions.
4.	Enzymes may be used many times for a specific reaction.

96. Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) can increase the:

I:	rate of heartbeat
II:	strength of ventricular contraction
III:	cardiac output

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

97. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis resulting in hyperglycemia.
Statement II:	Insulin causes a rapid movement of glucose from the blood to hepatocytes and adipocytes resulting in hypoglycemia.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

98. The menstrual bleed is primarily due to the withdrawal of:
1. Oestrogen
2. Progesterone
3. LH
4. FSH

99. Besides the basic chordate characters, vertebrates have:

I:	a dorsal muscular heart with two, three or four chambers
II:	kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
III:	paired appendages which may be fins or limbs

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

100. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid.
Reason (R):	Terrestrial organisms must conserve water.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

CLICK HERE to get FREE ACCESS for 2 days of ANY NEETprep course

Please be patient as the PDF generation may take upto a minute.

Fill OMR Sheet*