Full Syllabus Test # 2 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1. If you want to isolate DNA from a fungal cell, the enzyme that should not be used for the purpose is:
1. Protease
2. RNase
3. DNase
4. Chitinase

2. Sunderbans in West Bengal is a swampy area. The plants in this area bear special kind of roots called:
1. Pneumatophores
2. Prop roots
3. Stilt roots
4. Tuberous roots

3. The cell, undergoing cell division, as shown in the given figure, is at:

1. Early Prophase
2. Transition to Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

4. Although all types of ecological pyramids are generally upright, an inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in:

1.	Forest ecosystem	2.	Marine ecosystem
3.	Grassland ecosystem	4.	Tundra ecosystem

5. Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter a stage of suspended development called as:
1. Diapause
2. Plasticity
3. Norm of the reaction
4. Developmental noise

6. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Alkaloid	P	Ricin
B	Toxin	Q	Vinblastin
C	Lectin	R	Morphine
D	Drug	S	Concanavalin A

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	S	R	Q	P
3.	R	P	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

7. The two innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are:

1.	Endothecium and tapetum
2.	Epidermis and endodermis
3.	Epidermis and middle layer
4.	Middle layer and tapetum

8. At maturity, the female gametophyte in angiosperms has:

I:	Three cells grouped together at the micropylar end constituting the egg apparatus
II:	Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

9. All the following elements required by higher plants are regarded as ‘beneficial’ except:
1. Sodium
2. Selenium
3. Cobalt
4. Nickel

10. At low light conditions, which of the following groups of plants responds to high CO₂conditions?

1.	C₃	2.	C₄
3.	Both C₃ and C₄	4.	Neither C₃ nor C₄

11. Unicellular organisms are capable of:

I:	independent existence
II:	performing the essential functions of life

1.	Only I is correct
2.	Only II is correct
3.	Both I and II are correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

12. A more conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global species diversity at about:
1. 1.8 million
2. 7 million
3. 22.22 million
4. 50 million

13. Apical dominance in plants can be overcome by the application of the PGR:

1.	Cytokinin	2.	Ethylene
3.	ABA	4.	Gibberellins

14. Thallus level of organisation, rhizoids, dominant gametophyte and dependence on water to complete its life are the characteristics seen in:

1.	Pteridophytes	2.	Gymnosperms
3.	Angiosperms	4.	Bryophytes

15. Zea mays have 20 chromosomes in its somatic cell. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm will be:

1.	10	2.	20
3.	30	4.	40

16. The nearer two genes are on a chromosome:

1.	the higher the chance of recombination between them.
2.	the lower the chance of recombination between them.
3.	the lower the chance of both being dominant alleles.
4.	the higher the chance of both being dominant alleles.

17. All the following diseases in plants are caused by a fungal pathogen except:
1. Rust of wheat
2. Smut of bajra
3. Black rot of crucifers
4. Red rot of sugarcane

18. Under what conditions guttation is most likely to take place?

	Root pressure	Rate of transpiration
1.	High	Low
2.	Low	High
3.	Low	Low
4.	High	High

19. In an epigynous flower, the ovary is situated:

1.	below other floral parts
2.	above other floral parts
3.	at the same level as other floral parts
4.	not on the thalamus

20. The alternate terms used for ‘Phellogen’ and ‘Phellem’ respectively are:

1.	cork and cork cambium
2.	cork cambium and cork
3.	secondary cortex and cork
4.	cork and secondary cortex

21. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role in:

1.	forming blooms in polluted water bodies
2.	recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur
3.	making curd from milk
4.	fixing nitrogen in legume roots

22. In the classification of plants, the taxonomic unit ‘Division’ is equivalent to which taxonomic unit in the classification of animals?

1.	Order	2.	Class
3.	Phylum	4.	Genus

23. A dikaryophase of fungus is commonly seen in the sexual reproduction of:

I:	Phycomycetes
II:	Ascomycetes
III:	Basidiomycetes

1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

24. The terms ‘baker’s yeast’ or ‘brewer’s yeast’ are used for:

1.	Saccharomyces cerevisiae
2.	Schizosaccharomyces octosporus
3.	Schizosaccharomyces pombe
4.	Candida albicans

25. The climax community established in ecological succession is best described as:

1.	the community of pioneers in ecological succession.
2.	the establishment of only one type of primary producer in the ecosystem.
3.	being in near equilibrium with the environment.
4.	rapidly changing community in its composition of species.

26. Biodiversity hotspots are characterised by all the following features except:

1.	Presence of a large number of species
2.	High degree of endemism
3.	Mostly located in the tropical region
4.	No threat of extinction of any species

27. The ‘beads-on-string’ is the description used for the structure of:

1.	nucleolus in a nucleus
2.	heterochromatic inactivated X chromosome in females
3.	nucleosome in chromatin
4.	tetrad of paired homologs in first meiosis

28. Two protein molecules move passively in opposite directions and independently of each other across a cell membrane. The transport is known as:
1. Uniport
2. Symport
3. Co-transport
4. Antiport

29. The genus, Ophioglossum, has the largest number of chromosomes in the known plant kingdom. The number of chromosomes in its meiocyte is:
1. 48
2. 96
3. 630
4. 1260

30. Transverse section of a plant part shows conjoint and open vascular bundles. The transverse section is of:

1.	monocot root	2.	monocot stem
3.	dicot root	4.	dicot stem

31. Ammonia synthesis by nitrogenase requires a very high input of energy which is:

1.	4 ATP for each NH₃ produced
2.	8 ATP for each NH₃ produced
3.	12 ATP for each NH₃ produced
4.	16 ATP for each NH₃ produced

32. Match the name of the scientist in Column I with his contribution in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Julius von Sachs	P.	O₂evolved by the green plant comes from H₂O
B.	T.W. Engelmann	Q.	Glucose is usually stored as starch by plants
C.	Cornelius van Niel	R.	Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis
D.	Jan Ingenhousz	S.	First action spectrum of photosynthesis

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	S	P	R
2.	Q	R	P	S
3.	P	Q	R	S
4.	P	S	R	Q

33. Which of the following plant parts perceives the photoperiod in plants?
1. meristem
2. flower
3. floral buds
4. leaves

34. In aerobic oxidative phosphorylation, the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain is:

1.	NAD⁺	2.	oxygen
3.	pyruvate	4.	water

35. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) involves:

1.	inducing the transcription of genes by substrate
2.	silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule
3.	repressing the transcription of genes by product
4.	increasing the rate of transcription by activator proteins

Biology I - Section B

36. Consider the given statements:

Assertion (A):	Even if a character shows multiple allelism, an individual will only have two alleles for that character.
Reason (R):	The somatic cells of an individual have only two chromosomes.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

37. Consider the given statements:

Assertion (A):	Temperature is the most important ecologically relevant environmental factor.
Reason (R):	Temperature affects the kinetics of the enzymes.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and the (R) correctly explains the (A).
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).

38. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Nutrients are never lost from the ecosystems, rather they are recycled time and again indefinitely.
Statement II:	The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any given time, is referred to as the standing crop.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

39. How many of the given statements regarding a eukaryotic cell are correct?

I:	The outer nuclear membrane usually remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum but does not bear ribosomes on it.
II:	Nucleolus is a single membrane-bound structure.
III:	Chromatin contains DNA and some acidic proteins called histones, but does not contain non-histone proteins and RNA.
IV:	Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction or the centromere on the sides of which disc-shaped structures called kinetochores are present.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

40. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
Statement II:	Chasmogamous flowers can never be autogamous.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

41. In a plant, the protoxylem lies next to the phloem. This arrangement of xylem will be called:

1.	Stelar	2.	Extrastelar
3.	Endarch	4.	Exarch

42. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called a nucleosome.
Statement II:	A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.

1.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

43. Consider the given statements:

Assertion(A):	Discharge of sewage into rivers can cause mortality of fish and other aquatic creatures downstream from the point of sewage discharge.
Reason (R):	Micro-organisms involved in the biodegradation of organic matter in the receiving water body consume a lot of oxygen, and as a result, there is a sharp decline in dissolved oxygen downstream from the point of sewage discharge.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).

44. What is the correct description of a prothallus?

1.	A structure in gymnosperms formed just after fertilisation
2.	A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
3.	A gametophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
4.	Sex organs bearing stage in Bryophytes

45. The mRNA codons for glutamic acid and valine can respectively be:
1. UAG and UGA
2. UUU and GGG
3. GAG and GUG
4. AUG and UAC

46. Consider the given statements:

Assertion (A):	On one strand the replication of DNA is continuous, while on the other, it is discontinuous.
Reason (R):	The discontinuously synthesised fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

47. What is the number of ATP molecules produced by substrate-level phosphorylation from the complete breakdown of a single molecule of glucose in the presence of oxygen?

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	6

48. The infectious agent that causes potato spindle tuber disease is:

1.	a free RNA lacking a protein coat
2.	a nucleocapsid
3.	an abnormally folded protein
4.	a ribozyme

49. Bhopal Gas Tragedy, 1984, was due to the leakage of:

1.	radioactive wastes
2.	genetically modified hazardous microbes
3.	methyl isocyanate gas
4.	chlorofluorocarbons

50. At the root tip, which of the following regions will be the most ‘distal’?

1.	Region of meristematic activity
2.	Region of root hairs
3.	Region of maturation
4.	Region of elongation

Biology II - Section A

51. The ‘family planning’ programs in India were initiated in:
1. 1951
2. 1957
3. 1961
4. 1971

52. Identify the option where all given animals belong to the same phylum:

1.	Squid, Devil fish, Flying fish, Dogfish
2.	Apple snail, Pearl oyster, Brittle star, Brain coral
3.	Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber, Sea horse
4.	Cuttlefish, Sea-hare, Tusk shell, Chiton

53. The type of epithelium shown in the given figure is not found in the lining of:

1. Blood capillaries
2. Loop of Henle
3. Fallopian tubes
4. Alveoli

54. In agarose gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their:
1. charge
2. size
3. 3-D shape
4. base composition

55. In a sarcomere, the central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the:

1.	A band	2.	I band
3.	H zone	4.	M line

56. Which gastro-intestinal hormone acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates the secretion of water and bicarbonate ions?

1.	Gastrin	2.	Cholecystokinin
3.	Gastric Inhibitory Peptide	4.	Secretin

57. There is now enough evidence to suggest that essential life processes (such as metabolism, translation, splicing, etc.), evolved around:

1.	DNA	2.	RNA
3.	Proteins	4.	Lipids

58. In a juxtamedullary nephron, which part dips deep into the renal medulla?
1. Malpighian corpuscle
2. PCT
3. DCT
4. Loop of Henle

59. Identify the incorrectly matched pair regarding the morphology of Periplaneta americana:

1.	Tegmina	Forewings
2.	Tergites	Ventral sclerites
3.	Labrum	Upper lip
4.	Hypopharynx	Tongue

60. Common cold:

1.	is caused by a bacterium
2.	affects lungs very early in the disease
3.	is not transmitted by droplets resulting from the cough or sneezes of an infected person
4.	can be transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, doorknobs, computer keyboard or mouse, etc.

61. Rates of physical and chemical processes are influenced by temperature among other factors. A general rule of thumb is that rate:

1.	doubles by half for every 10°C change in either direction
2.	decreases by half for every 10°C change in either direction
3.	doubles or decreases by half for every 10°C change in either direction
4.	doubles or decreases by half for every 5°C change in either direction

62. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in all cells.
Statement II:	Animal cells contain a non-membrane bound organelle called centrosome which helps in cell division.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

63. The axoplasm inside the axon contains:

1.	low concentration of K⁺
2.	high concentration of negatively charged proteins
3.	high concentration of Na⁺
4.	equal concentrations of Na⁺ and K⁺

64. The biomolecule shown in the given figure is:

1.	an aromatic amino acid
2.	a zwitterion
3.	a substituted pyrimidine
4.	a substituted purine

65. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	In general, species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
Statement II:	With very few exceptions, tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

66. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to a significant increase in the secretion of:
1. GnRH
2. FSH
3. LH
4. Testosterone

67. Who, amongst the following, is revered as the father of ecology in India?
1. Gurdev Singh Khush
2. M. S. Swaminathan
3. Ramdeo Misra
4. Salim Ali

68. The given diagrammatic representation of the operation of natural selection on a trait shows:

1. Stabilizing selection
2. Directional selection
3. Disruptive selection
4. Discontinuous selection

69. Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins and their primary functions are:

1.	Fibrinogen – clotting of blood; Globulins – colloid osmotic pressure; Albumins – defence mechanisms
2.	Fibrinogen – clotting of blood; Globulins – defence mechanisms; Albumins – colloid osmotic pressure
3.	Fibrinogen – prevention of clotting of blood; Globulins – colloid osmotic pressure; Albumins – defence mechanisms
4.	Fibrinogen – prevention of clotting of blood; Globulins – defence mechanisms; Albumins – colloid osmotic pressure

70. The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres in:

1.	Metaphase I of Meiosis I
2.	Anaphase I of Meiosis I
3.	Metaphase II of Meiosis II
4.	Anaphase II of Meiosis II

71. The liver:

I:	is the largest gland of the body
II:	is situated in the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm
III:	has two lobes that are its structural and functional units

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

72. Identify the correct descending order [begin with maximum value] of the partial pressure of oxygen at different parts involved in diffusion in comparison to those in the atmosphere:

1.	Atmosphere – Alveoli – Oxygenated blood – Tissues
2.	Alveoli - Atmosphere – Oxygenated blood – Tissues
3.	Atmosphere – Oxygenated blood – Alveoli – Tissues
4.	Tissues – Alveoli – Deoxygenated blood – Oxygenated blood

73. α Thalassemia is controlled by:

1.	two closely linked genes on chromosome 16
2.	two closely linked genes on chromosome 11
3.	a single gene on chromosome 11
4.	a single gene on chromosome 16

74. Which of the following joints is not an example of a synovial joint?

1.	The joint between the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb
2.	The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column
3.	The joints between the carpals
4.	The joint between the atlas and the axis

75. Members of Chondrichthyes are characterised by all the following except:

1.	Presence of a swim bladder
2.	Ventrally located mouth
3.	Lack of operculum
4.	Placoid scales

76. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act came into force in 1981, but was amended to include noise as an air pollutant in:
1. 1982
2. 1985
3. 1987
4. 1989

77. Which of the following is not true for Homo erectus?

1.	Fossils discovered in Java
2.	Lived about 1.5 mya
3.	Had a large brain around 900cc
4.	Probably, did not eat meat

78. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA which include all the following except:
1. A promoter
2. An operator
3. Structural gene
4. A terminator

79. The primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation during the:

1.	menstrual phase of the menstrual cycle
2.	follicular phase of the menstrual cycle
3.	ovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle
4.	luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

80. Trypsinogen is activated by:

1.	alkaline bile secreted by the liver cells
2.	an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa
3.	an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the duodenal Brunner’s glands
4.	a hormone, secretin, secreted by the intestinal mucosa

81. The first and the second heart sounds are produced respectively by:

1.	the closure of the atrioventricular and the opening of the semilunar valves
2.	the opening of the atrioventricular and the closure of the semilunar valves
3.	the closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves
4.	the opening of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves

82. Keoladeo National Park is in:
1. Rajasthan
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Uttarakhand
4. Assam

83. Marine fishes that are eaten include all the following except:
1. Common carp
2. Sardines
3. Mackerel
4. Pomfrets

84. The main challenge for the production of insulin using rDNA techniques was:

1.	culturing bacteria containing recombinant DNA in labs
2.	finding suitable restriction enzymes to cut human DNA
3.	isolation of DNA in pure form from a human cell
4.	getting insulin assembled into a mature form

85. All the following are recessive traits in Pisum sativum except:

1.	Green pod colour
2.	Green seed colour
3.	Terminal flower position
4.	Constricted pod shape

Biology II - Section B

86. The enzyme used in PCR:

I:	is a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
II:	extends the primers in template independent manner
III:	is thermostable

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

87. Identify the incorrect statement:

1.	The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through the rete testis.
2.	The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into the epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis.
3.	The epididymis leads to the vas deferens that ascend to the abdomen and loop over the urinary bladder.
4.	The epididymis receives a duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into the urethra as the ejaculatory duct.

88. The given pedigree shows the inheritance pattern of a rare mutant phenotype (filled-in symbols) in humans. What is the most likely mode of inheritance of the trait?

1. Autosomal recessive
2. Sex-linked recessive
3. Autosomal dominant
4. Sex-linked dominant

89. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
Reason (R):	Small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains the (A).
2.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not correctly explain the (A).

90. The given figure shows the chemical structure of a commonly abused drug. This drug:

1.	causes hallucinations in low doses
2.	is derived from the Indian hemp plant
3.	is sometimes clinically used as a pain killer
4.	is a CNS stimulant

91. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The axoneme of cilia and flagella usually has nine triplets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules, and a centrally located proteinaceous hub.
Statement II:	Each of the peripheral fibrils in a centriole is a doublet and the centriole also has a pair of centrally located microtubules.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

92. The earlier technique of DNA fingerprinting involved Southern blot and all the following except:

1.	digestion of DNA by deoxyribonuclease
2.	separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis
3.	hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
4.	detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography

93. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Saheli is a ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
Statement II:	Multiload 375 is a hormone-releasing IUD.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

94. In an area where Biston betularia is found, environmental pollution is controlled after strict law enforcement. What do you expect should happen to the colour of moths found in the area?

1.	dark-colored moths should change to light-colored
2.	light-colored moths should change to dark-colored
3.	dark-colored moths should become more common
4.	light-colored moths should become more common

95. The type of biochemical reaction shown in the figure is catalysed by a group of enzymes called as:

1.	Transferases	2.	Lyases
3.	Ligases	4.	Oxidoreductases

96. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The interphase represents the phase between two successive M phases and DNA replication takes place in the interphase.
Statement II:	The stage between the two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis and there is no replication of DNA during interkinesis.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

97. How many of the given statements are correct?

I:	The left and right cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus spongiosum.
II:	Association areas are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function.
III:	Thalamus is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
IV:	The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla.
V:	Three major regions make up the brain stem: mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

98. Regulation of gene expression or chromosome function by the interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the genome is the mechanism of action of all the following hormones except:

1.	ACTH	2.	Cortisol
3.	Oestrogen	4.	Thyroxin

99. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Hemichordata was earlier considered as a sub-phylum under non-chordata but now it is placed as a separate Class under Chordata.
Reason (R):	Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called stomochord, a structure homologous to notochord.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

100. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	ANF mechanism acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Reason (R):	ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby decrease blood pressure.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

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