Full Test - NEET PYQs

Botany - Section A

1. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statement is incorrect ?

1.	Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II.
2.	There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II.
3.	DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II.
4.	Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I.

2.

An organism used as a bio-fertilizer for raising soybean crop is:

1.	Azospirillum	2.	Rhizobium
3.	Nostoc	4.	Azotobacter

3.

The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on:
1. date of collection
2. name of collector
3. local names
4. height of the plant

4.

Loading of phloem is related to:
1. Increase of sugar in phloem
2. Elongation of phloem cell
3. Separation of phloem parenchyma
4. Strengthening of phloem fiber

5.

Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule mean that:

1.	one strand turns anti-clockwise
2.	the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
3.	the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite positions (pole)
4.	one strand turns clockwise

6.

Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?
1. They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
2. They caused increased agricultural productivity.
3. They have negative impact on agricultural land.
4. They are harmful to human health.

7.

Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in:
1. Grana
2. Pyrenoid
3. Stroma
4. Both (1) and (3)

8.

In glycolysis, during oxidation, electrons are removed by:
1. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
2. NAD⁺
3. Molecular oxygen
4. ATP

9. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1. Volvox - Starch
2. Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
3. Ulothrix - Mannitol
4. Porphyra - Floridian starch

10.

Effect of light and dark rhythm on plants is known as:
1. Photonasty
2. Phototropism
3. Photoperiodism
4. Photomorphogenesis

11.

Which of the following are the important floral rewards to animal pollinators?

1. Colour and large size of the flower
2. Nectar and pollen grains
3. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
4. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates

12.

Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are?
1. Phosphorus
2. Iron
3. Manganese
4. Cadmium

13.

In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus, and powdery mildew was brought about by:
1. Mutation breeding
2. Biofortification
3. Tissue culture
4. Hybridization and selection

14.

Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/ $m^{2}$ /yr) in a grassland ecosystem:
1. Tertiary production
2. Gross production (GP)
3. Net production (NP)
4. Secondary production

15.

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?
1. Agave - Bulbils
2. Penicillium - Conidia
3. Water hyacinth - Runner
4. Bryophyllum – Leaf buds

16.

The ovary is half inferior in flowers of:

1. cucumber
2. cotton
3. guava
4. peach

17.

In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions take place at?
1. Thylakoid lumen
2. photosystem I
3. photosystem II
4. Stromal matrix

18. Select the correct statement:
1. Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage".
2. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.
3. Spliceosomes take part in translation.
4. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

19. Western Ghats have a large number of plants and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following term is used to notify such species?
1. Threatened species
2. Keystone species
3. Endemic species
4. Vulnerable species

20.

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features:

a.	Large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.
b.	Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissue.
c.	Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
d.	Phloem parenchyma absent.

Identify the category of plant and its part :
1. Monocotyledonous root
2. Dicotyledonous stem
3. Dicotyledonous root
4. Monocotyledonous stem

21.

Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

1.	They are eukaryotic
2.	All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
3.	They are heterotrophic
4.	They are both unicellular as well as multicellular

22.

Just as a person moves from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to:
1. Western Ghat
2. Meghalaya
3. Corbett National Park
4. Keoladeo National Park

23.

In the somatic cell cycle:

1.	DNA replication takes place in S-phase
2.	A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
3.	$G_2$ phase follows the mitotic phase
4.	In the $G_1$ phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell

24.

Which of the following yields citric acid?
1. Penicillium citrinum
2. Aspergillus niger
3. Saccharomyces
4. Azospirillium

25.

Practical purpose of taxonomy or classification is to:
1. facilitate the identification of unknown species
2. explain the origin of organisms
3. know the evolutionary history
4. identify medicinal plants

26.

The movement of ions against the concentration gradient will be:

1. Active transport	2. Osmosis
3. Diffusion	4. All of the above

27.

Statement I:	The codon AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II:	AAA' and 'AAG are both codons that code for the amino acid lysine.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
2.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

28.

''Good ozone'' is found in the:
1. Ionosphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Troposphere
4. Stratosphere

29.

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
1. Peroxisomes
2. Golgi bodies
3. Polysomes
4. Endoplasmic reticulum

30. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
1. Glucose-6-phosphate
2. Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
3. Pyruvic acid
4. Acetyl Co-A

31.

Which of the following is without exception in Angiosperms:
1. Presence of vessels
2. Double fertilisation
3. Secondary growth
4. Autotrophic nutrition

32.

Coconut milk factor is:
1. An auxin
2. A gibberellin
3. Abscisic acid
4. Cytokinin

33.

Wind pollination is common:
1. lilies
2. grasses
3. orchids
4. legumes

34.

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria converts:
1. $N_{2}$ $\to$ $N H_{3}$
2. $N H_{4}^{+}$ $\to$ $N i t r a t e s$
3. $N O_{2}$ $\to$ $N O_{3}$
4. $N O_{3}$ $\to$ $N_{2}$

35.

Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers:
1. Loose smut of Wheat
2. Corn stunt
3. Covered smut of Barley
4. Soft rot of Potato

Botany - Section B

36.

The chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba is:

1.	The ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
2.	The ability to live for some time without ingesting food
3.	Protection from parasites and predators
4.	The chance to get rid of accumulated waste products

37.

Assuming that fur colour of an animal ranges from dark, intermediates shades, to white. A cross is made between a male (AABBCC) with dark fur colour and a female (aabbcc) with white fur colour. What would be the fur colour of F₁ generation?
1. All intermediate colour
2. Range of colour shade
3. All dark colour
4. All white colour

38.

Main reason for disturbance of biological diversity:
1. Greenhouse effect
2. Hunting
3. Soil erosion
4. Destruction of natural habitats

39.

During Meiosis 1, in which stage synapsis takes place?

1.	Pachytene	2.	Zygotene
3.	Diplotene	4.	Leptotene

40.

Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to:

1.	Lateral meristem	2.	Apical meristem
3.	Intercalary meristem	4.	Secondary meristem

41.

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

1.	Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment
2.	Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenan from brown algae
3.	Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
4.	Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food

42.

Function of filiform apparatus is to:

1.	Recognize the suitable pollen at the stigma
2.	Stimulate division of generative cell
3.	Producer nectar
4.	Guide the entry of the pollen tube

43.

Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are:
1. Wheat, rice, and maize
2. Rice, maize, and sorghum
3. Wheat maize, and sorghum
4. Wheat, rice, and barley

44. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
a. Mustard
b. Gulmohar
c. Cassia
d. Datura
e. Chilly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. c, d, e only
2. a, b, c only
3. b, c only
4. d, e only

45.

Which one of the following mineral elements plays an important role in biological nitrogen fixation:
1. Copper
2. Manganese
3. Zinc
4. Molybdenum

46.

The vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as:

1. divergence
2. stratification
3. zonation
4. pyramid

47. The phenomenon by which the undividing parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically during plant tissue culture is called as :
1. Differentiation
2. Dedifferentiation
3. Redifferentiation
4. Secondary growth

48.

When water moves through a semipermeable membrane then which of the following pressure develops:
1. O.P.
2. S.P.
3. T.P.
4. W.P.

49.

Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using microbes?
1. Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
2. Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
3. Bt-cotton to increase cotton yield
4. Ladybird beetle against aphids in mustard

50. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?

1.	Eight	2.	Four
3.	Six	4.	Two

Zoology - Section A

51. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A):	All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R):	Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(A) is False but (R) is True.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explain (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

52.

Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of these:

(a)	Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immunosuppressants for a long time
(b)	The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection
(c)	The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft
(d)	The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons

The two correct statements are:
1. (b) and (c)
2. (c) and (d)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a) and (b)

53.

A phosphoglyceride is always made up of:

1.	only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
2.	a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.
3.	a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule.
4.	only a saturated fatty acid is esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached.

54.

A diagram showing the axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D:

1. B- Synaptic connection; D- K⁺
2. A- Neurotransmitter; B- Synaptic cleft
3. C- Neurotransmitter; D- Ca⁺⁺
4. A- Receptor; C- Synaptic vesicles

55. Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
1. Copper releasing IUD
2. Cervical barrier
3. Vault barrier
4. Non-Medicated IUD

56.

Function of Nucleases:

1.	Break the polynucleotide chain by breaking each terminal nucleotide
2.	Breaks phosphodiester bond
3.	Breaks peptide bonds
4.	Breaks ester bonds

57.

Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones?

1.	Posterior pituitary lobe
2.	Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
3.	Hypothalamus
4.	Anterior pituitary lobe

58.

Widal test is carried out to test:

1.	Malaria	2.	Diabetes mellitus
3.	HIV/AIDS	4.	typhoid fever

59.

The extinct human who lived 100000 to 40000 years ago, in Europe, Asia, and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait, and stooped posture was:
1. Homo habilis
2. Neanderthal human
3. Cro-Magnon humans
4. Ramapithecus

60.

Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of:

1.	Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
2.	Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
3.	Relaxin from the placenta
4.	Estrogen from placenta

61.

Figure shows a schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

1.	B-Pulmonary artery- takes blood from heart to lungs, PO₂ = 90mm Hg
2.	C-Vena Cava- takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO₂ = 45mm Hg
3.	D-Dorsal aorta- takes blood from heart to body parts, PO₂ = 95mm Hg
4.	A- Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood from body parts, PO₂ = 60mm Hg

62.

Which type of tissue is correctly matched with its location?

	Tissue	Location
1.	Areolar tissue	Tendons
2.	Transitional epithelium	Tip of nose
3.	Cuboidal epithelium	Lining of stomach
4.	Smooth muscle	Wall of intestine

63.

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases

1.	(c) and (d)	2.	(a), (b) and (d)
3.	only (d)	4.	(a) and (b)

64.

Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like:
1. amino acids and glucose
2. glucose and fatty acids
3. fatty acids and glycerol
4. fructose and some amino acids

65.

The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to:

1.	The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band.
2.	The central gap between actin filaments extends through myosin filaments in the A-band.
3.	Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
4.	The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of the A-band.

66.

Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for the biosynthesis of:

1.	Vitamin-B	2.	Vitamin-C
3.	Omega 3	4.	Vitamin-A

67.

Metagenesis refers to?

1.	The presence of different morphic forms
2.	Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism
3.	Occurrence of a drastic change in the form during post-embryonic development
4.	Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenic mode of reproduction

68.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1.	The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
2.	The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
3.	The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
4.	The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

69.

Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with:

1.	Three carboxylic acid residues
2.	Two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group
3.	One carboxylic acid residue and two phosphate groups
4.	Three phosphate groups

70.

In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive:
1. K⁺ and Na⁺ out of the cell
2. Na⁺ into the cell
3. Na⁺ out of the cell
4. K⁺ into the cell

71.

Copper ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs):
1. make uterus unsuitable for implantation
2. increase phagocytosis of sperms
3. suppress sperm motility
4. prevent ovulation

72. Separation of DNA, fragments is done by a technique known as :
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction
2. Recombinant technology
3. Southern blotting
4. Gel electrophoresis

73.

CCK and secretin secreted by:
1. Stomach
2. Ileum
3. Duodenum
4. Colon

74.

Antivenom injection contains performed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:
1. harvested antibodies
2. gamma globulin
3. attenuated pathogens
4. activated pathogens

75.

Which of the following statement is true:
1. Homo erectus is direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
2. Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of modern man
3. Australopithecous is direct ancestor of modern man
4. Fossils of cromagnon man first found in Ethiopia

76.

Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as:
1. FSH
2. GH
3. Prolactin
4. LH

77.

At which point, the pulmonary artery is different from the pulmonary vein:
1. Its lumen is broad
2. Its wall is thick
3. It has valves
4. It does not possess endothelium

78.

Choose the correctly matched pair:
1. Tendon-Specialized connective tissue
2. Adipose tissue-Dense connective tissue
3. Areolar tissue- Loose connective tissue
4. Cartilage- Loose connective tissue

79.

Asthma may be attributed to?
1. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
2. inflammation of the trachea
3. accumulation of fluid in the lungs
4. bacterial infection of the lungs

80.

Kwashiorkor disease is due to:

1.	simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats
2.	simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories
3.	deficiency of carbohydrates
4.	protein deficiency not accompanied by calorie deficiency

81.

Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.

	Pairs of skeletal parts	Category
1.	Malleus and stapes	Ear ossicles
2.	Sternum and Ribs	Axial skeleton
3.	Clavicle and Glenoid cavity	Pelvic girdle
4.	Humerus and ulna	Appendicular skeleton

82.

Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures:
1. Morphine
2. Quinine
3. Insulin
4. Nicotine

83. Which of the following features is not present in the phylum–Arthropoda?
1. Metameric segmentation
2. Parapodia
3. Jointed appendages
4. Chitinous exoskeleton

84.

Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

1. Alcohol
2. Caffeine
3. Renin
4. Atrial-natriuretic factor

85.

Which of the following bond is formed as a result of reaction of carboxyl group of one amino acid with amino group of other amino acids with elimination of water?
1. Phosphodiester Bond
2. Hydrogen Bond
3. Glycosidic Bond
4. Peptide Bond

Zoology - Section B

86.

A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is:

1. melatonin
2. calcitonin
3. epinephrine
4. cortisol

87.

Which one of the following is the most likely root cause of why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?

1.	Fertilization of the ovum
2.	Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
3.	Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in the blood stream
4.	Retention of well-developed corpus luteum

88.

The drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
1. nitration of morphine
2. methylation of morphine
3. acetylation of morphine
4. glycosylation of morphine

89. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:

1. Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
2. Heart of bat, man and cheetah
3. Brain of bat, man and cheetah
4. Eye of octopus, bat and man

90.

Identify the properties of a good vector used in rDNA technology:

(a)	It should have origin of replication supporting a high copy number
(b)	It should have preferably more than '2' recognition sites
(c)	The restriction sites in vector should be in the antibiotic- resistant genes
(d)	It should have suitable marker genes
(e)	It should be easy to isolate and purify

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. (a), (c) and (e) only
2. (c), (d) and (e) only
3. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only

91.

Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in:
1. Cockroach
2. Frog
3. Humans
4. Sunflower

92.

Which of the following guards the opening of the hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
1. Ileocaecal valve
2. Pyloric sphincter
3. Sphincter of Oddi
4. Semilunar valve

93.

Figure shows a human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.

1.	B-pelvis - broad funnel-shaped space inner to the hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.
2.	C- Medulla- inner zone of kidney and contains complex nephrons.
3.	D- Cortex- outer part of the kidney and does not contain any part of nephrons.
4.	A- Adrenal gland- located at the anterior part of the kidney; secretes catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown.

94.

Match the following columns and select the correct option

	Column-I		Column-II
a.	The organ of Corti	(i)	Connects the middle ear and pharynx
b.	Cochlea	(ii)	Coiled part of the labyrinth
c.	Eustachian tube	(iii)	Attached to the oval window
d.	Stapes	(iv)	Located on the basilar membrane

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)
4.	(ii)	(i)	(i)	(iv)

95.

Which of the following disorders represents decrease in respiratory surface due to damaged alveolar walls?
1. Hypocapnia
2. Bronchitis
3. Asthma
4. Emphysema

96. Match List-I with List-II with respective to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Diaphragms	(i)	Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
(b)	Contraceptive Pills	(ii)	Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c)	Intra Uterine Devices	(iii)	Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d)	Lactational Amenorrhea	(iv)	They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)

97.

Arteries are best defined as the vessels which:

1.	carry blood away from the heart to different organs
2.	break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
3.	carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
4.	supply oxygenated blood to the different organs

98.

Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at:
1. the neuromuscular junction
2. the transverse tubules
3. the myofibril
4. the sarcoplasmic reticulum

99. Which of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
1. Breathing using lungs
2. Viviparity
3. Warm-blooded nature
4. Ossified endoskeleton

100.

Match List -I with List - II.

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Protein	I.	C-C double bonds
(b)	Unsaturated fatty acid	II.	Phosphodiester bonds
(c)	Nucleic acid	III.	Glycosidic bonds
(d)	Polysaccharides	IV.	Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	II	I	IV	III
2.	IV	III	I	II
3.	IV	I	II	III
4.	I	IV	III	II

Chemistry - Section A

101.

The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:

1. 3-Ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
2. 3-Ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
3. 3-(1-Ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
4. 4-Ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene

102.

Percentage of C, H & N of a compound is given as follows:
C=40%, H=13.33%, N=46.67%
The empirical formula of the compound will be:
1. $C H_{2} N$
2. $C_{2} H_{4} N$
3. $C H_{4} N$
4. $C H_{3} N$

103.

The reaction A → B follows first-order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mol of A to produce 0.6 mol of B is 1 hour. The time taken for the conversion of 0.9 mol of A to produce 0.675 mol of B will be:

1.	1 hour	2.	0.5 hour
3.	0.25 hour	4.	2 hour

104. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes is:
$(A) \ \left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{2}(\text { en })_{2}\right]^{2+}$
$ (B) \ \left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{4}(\mathrm{en})\right]^{2+} and$$ (C) \ \left[\mathrm{Ni}(\mathrm{en})_{3}\right]^{2+}$

1.	B > A > C	2.	A > B > C
3.	C > B > A	4.	C > A > B

105.

If the solubility of MX₂ – type electrolytes is 0.5 × 10^–4 Mole/lit. then K_sp of electrolytes will be:
1. $5 \times 10^{- 12}$
2. $25 \times 10^{- 10}$
3. $1 \times 10^{- 13}$
4. $5 \times 10^{- 13}$

106.

For the disproportionation of copper:
2Cu⁺ → C u²⁺ + C u $,$ $E °$ is:
(Given $E °$ for Cu⁺²/Cu is 0.34 V & Eº for Cu⁺²/Cu⁺is 0.15 V )
1. 0.49 V
2. – 0.19 V
3. 0.38 V
4. – 0.38 V

107.

What is the entropy change (in JK^–1 mol^–1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 0 ºC? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is 6.0 KJ mol^–1 at 0 ºC)

1.	20.13	2.	2.013
3.	2.198	4.	21.98

108.

Hyperconjugation occurs among the following compounds:

1.	I only	2.	II only
3.	III only	4.	I and III

109.

Copper has a face-centered cubic (fcc) lattice with interatomic spacing equal to 2.54Å. The value of the lattice constant for this lattice is:
1. 3.59Å
2. 2.54 Å
3. 1.27 Å
4. 5.08 Å

110.

Which of the following metal ions activates many enzymes participating in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na it is also responsible for the transmission of nerve signals:
1. Copper
2. Calcium
3. Potassium
4. Iron

111.

The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of:

1.	Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of the impurity
2.	Higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
3.	Greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
4.	Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid

112.

The correct thermal stability order for $\mathrm{{H}_2 {E}},$ $\mathrm{{ E}= {O}, {S}, {Se}, {Te}} \text { and } \mathrm{Po}$ among the following is:
1. $\mathrm{{H}_2 {Se}<{H}_2 {Te}<{H}_2 {Po}<{H}_2 {O}<{H}_2 S}$
2. $\mathrm{{H}_2 {~S}<{H}_2 {O}<{H}_2 {Se}<{H}_2 {Te}<{H}_2 {Po}}$
3. $\mathrm{{H}_2 {O}<{H}_2 {~S}<{H}_2 {Se}<{H}_2 {Te}<{H}_2 {PO}}$
4. $\mathrm{{H}_2 {Po}<{H}_2 {Te}<{H}_2 {Se}<{H}_2 {~S}<{H}_2 {O}}$

113.

Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?

1.		2.
3.		4.

114.

The correct option for the total pressure (in atm) in a mixture of 4 g O₂ and 2 g H₂ confined in a total volume of one liter at 0 $°$ C is :
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol^-1 K^-1, T=273 K]
1. 25.18
2. 26.02
3. 2.518
3. 2.602

115.

HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl₂, MgCl₂, and NaCl. Compound(s) that get crystallize is/are-
1. Only NaCl
2. Only MgCl₂
3. NaCl, MgCl₂, and CaCl₂
4. Both MgCl₂ and CaCl₂

116.

Among the following, the narrow-spectrum antibiotic is:
1. chloramphenicol
2. penicillin G
3. ampicillin
4. amoxicillin

117.

Arrange the following species in increasing order of their dipole moments:
NH₃,NF₃,BF₃,H₂O

1. $N H_{3} < B F_{3} < N F_{3} < H_{2} O$
2. $B F_{3} < N F_{3} < N H_{3} < H_{2} O$
3. $B F_{3} < N H_{3} < N F_{3} < H_{2} O$
4. $H_{2} O < N F_{3} < N H_{3} < B F_{3}$

118.

A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)Cl freezes at -0.0073 ^oC. The number of moles of ions that 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being dissolved in water will be:
(K_f = -1.86 ^oC/m)

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	1

119.

The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by:
1. azimuthal quantum number
2. spin quantum number
3. magnetic quantum number
4. principal quantum number

120.

Fog is a ______ type of colloidal solution:

1. Gas in liquid.
2. Solid in gas.
3. Gas in gas.
4. Liquid in gas.

121.

Match Column I with Column II, Columns I and II represent complexes and magnetic moment (BM) respectively.

Column I	Column II
(a) [FeCN₆]^3-	(i) 5.92 BM
(b) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺	(ii) 0 BM
(c) [Fe(CN)₆]^4-	(iii) 4.90 BM
(d) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺	(iv) 1.73 BM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iv)	(ii)	(i)	(iii)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)

122.

CH₃ — O — CH(CH₃)₂ + HI → B (Product)
The product 'B' in the above mentioned reaction is-
1. CH₃OH + (CH₃)₂CHl
2. lCH₂OCH(CH₃)₂
3. CH₃OC(CH₃)₂
4. CH₃l + (CH₃)₂CHOH

123.

The liquefied gas that is used in dry cleaning along with a suitable detergent is-
1. Water gas
2. Petroleum gas
3. NO₂
4. CO₂

124.

Which compound, upon reduction with lithium aluminium hydride, yields a secondary amine?
1. Nitroethane
2. Methylisocyanide
3. Acetamide
4. Methyl cyanide

125. Predict the order of reactivity of the following four isomers towards S_N2 reaction.
(I) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
(II) CH₃CH₂CH(Cl)CH₃
(III) (CH₃)₂CHCH₂Cl
(IV) (CH₃)₃CCl

1.	(IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
2.	(I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
3.	(I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
4.	(IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)

126.

The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on ion-exchange resins follows the order:
1. $L i^{+} < K^{+} < N a^{+} < R b^{+}$
2. $R b^{+} < K^{+} < N a^{+} < L i^{+}$
3. $K^{+} < N a^{+} < R b^{+} < L i^{+}$
4. $N a^{+} < L i^{+} < K^{+} < R b^{+}$

127.

If the oxidation numbers of A, B, and C are + 2, +5, and –2 respectively, then the possible formula of the compound is:

1.	A₂(BC₂)₂	2.	A₃(BC₄)₂
3.	A₂(BC₃)₂	4.	A₃(B₂C)₂

128. $\mathrm{Na_2B_4O_7\xrightarrow{\text{ heat }~~}X+NaBO_2 }$
in the above reaction the product "X" is :

1.	H₃BO₃	2.	B₂O₃
3.	Na₂B₂O₅	4.	NaB₃O₅

129.

The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

1.	2-Ethylhex-3-en-4-one	2.	4-Methylhex-3-en-2-one
3.	4-Ethylpent-3-en-2-one	4.	3-Methylhex -3-en-4-one

130. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?

1.	Thermosetting polymers are reusable
2.	Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
3.	Fibers possess high tensile strength
4.	Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling respectively

131. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is:
1. Ununoctium
2. Ununennium
3. Unnilennium
4. Unununnium

132.

In the following reaction,
$\mathrm{ CH_{3}C\equiv CH\xrightarrow[Red \ hot \ iron \ tube]{873 K} \ A}$
The number of ( $σ$ ) bonds present in the product (A) is:

1.	21	2.	9
3.	24	4.	18

133.

A mixture of gases contains H₂ and O₂ gases in the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). The molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture will be:

1.	1:4	2.	4:1
3.	16:1	4.	2:1

134.

A first-order reaction has a specific reaction rate of
10^–2 sec^–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

1.	138.6 sec	2.	346.5 sec
3.	693.0 sec	4.	238.6 sec

135.

A complex ion among the following can absorb visible light is:
(At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
1. [Sc(H₂O)₃(NH₃)₃]³⁺
2. [Ti(en)₂ (NH₃)₂]⁴⁺
3. [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺
4. [Zn(NH₃)₆]²⁺

Chemistry - Section B

136.

The carbonyl compound with the strongest C-O bond is:
1. Fe(CO)₅
2. [Mn(CO)₆]⁺
3. Cr(CO)₆
4. [V(CO)₆]^-

137.

The bond energy of H—H and Cl-Cl is 430 kJ
mol^-1 and 240 kJ mol^-1 respectively and ΔH_f for HCl is -90 kJ mol^-1. The bond enthalpy of HCl is:
1. 290 $k J$ $m o l^{- 1}$
2. 380 $k J$ $m o l^{- 1}$
3. 425 $k J$ $m o l^{- 1}$
4. 245 $k J$ $m o l^{- 1}$

138.

$P b O_{2}$ $\to$ $P b O$ $∆ G_{298}$ $< 0$
$S n O_{2} \to S n O$ $∆ G_{298}$ $>$ $0$
The most probable oxidation state of Pb & Sn will be:
1. ${Pb}^{+ 4},$ ${Sn}^{+ 4}$
2. ${Pb}^{+ 4}$ $,$ ${Sn}^{+ 2}$
3. ${Pb}^{+ 2}$ $,$ ${Sn}^{+ 2}$
4. ${Pb}^{+ 2}$ $,$ ${Sn}^{+ 4}$

139.

The reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in the presence of dilute NaOH is known as:
1. Cannizzaro's reaction
2. Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
3. Cross aldol condensation
4. Aldol condensation

140.

The correct order of $I^{s t}$ IP(ionization potential) among the following elements Be, B, C, N, O is:

1.	B < Be < C < O < N	2.	B < Be < C < N < O
3.	Be < B < C < N < O	4.	Be < B < C < O < N

141.

If the half-life of a substance is 77 days then it's decay constant (days^-1) will be:

1.	0.9	2.	0.09
3.	0.009	4.	0.013

142.

The number of atoms per unit cell in a BCC structure is:
1. 9
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1

143.

Which of the following reactions cannot form new carbon-carbon bonds?
1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation

144.

The catalytic activity of transition metals is due to:

1.	High enthalpy of atomization
2.	Paramagnetic behaviour
3.	Colour of hydrated ions
4.	Variable oxidation states

145.

Molar conductivities $(\land °_{m})$ at infinite dilution of
NaCl, HCl, and $C H_{3} C O O N a$ are 126.4, 425.9, and 91.0 S cm² mol^–1 respectively.
$(\land °_{m})$ for $C H_{3} C O O H$ will be:

1.	$180.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$	2.	$290.8~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$
3.	$390.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$	4.	$425.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}$

146.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Separation of aniline-water mixture	(i)	Fractional distillation
(b)	Separation of aniline-chloroform mixture	(ii)	Distillation under reduced pressure
(c)	Separation of glycerol from spent-lye	(iii)	Distillation
(d)	Separation of different fractions of crude oil	(iv)	Steam distillation

Codes:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
3.	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
4.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)

147.

The highest oxidation number of nitrogen among the following compounds is:

1.	$N_{2} H_{4}$	2.	${NH}_{3}$
3.	$N_{3} H$	4.	${NH}_{2} OH$

148.

Which of the following reactions is an example of a nucleophilic substitution reaction?
1. RX + KOH → ROH + KX
2. 2RX + 2Na →R — R + 2NaX
3. RX + H₂→RH + HX
4. RX + Mg →RMg X

149.

In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
1. $B a S O_{4}$
2. $M g S O_{4}$
3. $C a S O_{4}$
4. $S r S O_{4}$

150.

Which of the following elements is present as an impurity to the maximum extent in the pig Iron?
1. Carbon
2. Silicon
3. Phosphorus
4. Manganese

Physics - Section A

151.

Young’s modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of the same length and of the same area of cross-section, one of steel and another of brass, are suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio of:
1. $1:2$
2. $2:1$
3. $4:1$
4. $1:1$

152.

An electron moves on a straight-line path $XY$ as shown. The ${abcd}$ is a coil adjacent to the path of electrons. What will be the direction of current if any, induced in the coil?

1.	${abcd}$
2.	${adcb}$
3.	The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
4.	No current included

153.

For a black body at a temperature of 727ºC, its radiating power is 60 watts and the temperature of the surroundings is 227ºC. If the temperature of the black body is changed to 1227ºC then its radiating power will be:
1. 304 W
2. 320 W
3. 240 W
4. 120 W

154.

Rohini satellite is at a height of $500$ km and Insat-B is at a height of $3600$ km from the surface of the earth. The relation between their orbital velocity ($v_R,~v_i$) is:
1. $v_R>v_i$
2. $v_R<v_i$
3. $v_R=v_i$
4. no specific relation

155. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light $1$ m away. When the source is shifted to $2$ m then:

1.	each emitted electron carries one-quarter of the initial energy.
2.	number of electrons emitted is half the initial number.
3.	each emitted electron carries half the initial energy.
4.	number of electrons emitted is a quarter of the initial number.

156.

In the given circuit, the reading of voltmeter V₁ and V₂ are 300 V each. The reading of the voltmeter V₃and ammeter A are respectively:

1. 150 V, 2.2 A
2. 220 V, 2.2 A
3. 220 V, 2.0 A
4. 100 V, 2.0 A

157.

The angular width of the central maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction for $\lambda=6000~{\mathring{A}}$ is $\theta_0$. When the same slit is illuminated by another monochromatic light, the angular width decreases by $30\%$. The wavelength of this light is:

1.	$1800~{\mathring{A}}$	2.	$4200~{\mathring{A}}$
3.	$420~{\mathring{A}}$	4.	$6000~{\mathring{A}}$

158.

A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite directions. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of the emf of the two cells is:
1. 5 : 4
2. 3 : 4
3. 3 : 2
4. 5 : 1

159. A ball is projected with a velocity of $10~\text{m/s}$ at an angle of $60^\circ$ with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be:
1. $10~\text{m/s}$
2. zero
3. $5\sqrt{3}~\text{m/s}$
4. $5~\text{m/s}$

160.

${}_{n}X_{m}$ emitted one $α and 2 β$ particles, then it will become:
1. ${}_{n}X_{m - 4}$
2. ${}_{n - 1}X_{m - 1}$
3. ${}_{n}Z_{m - 4}$
4. None of these

161.

When a body of mass $m$ just begins to slide as shown, match List-I with List-II:

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Normal reaction	(i)	$P$
(b)	Frictional force $(f_s)$	(ii)	$Q$
(c)	Weight $(mg)$	(iii)	$R$
(d)	$mg \mathrm{sin}\theta ~$	(iv)	$S$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(ii)	(iii)	(i)
3.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

162.

To get output $Y=1$ for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

1.	$A=1,~ B= 0, ~C=0$
2.	$A=1,~ B= 1, ~C=0$
3.	$A=1,~ B= 0, ~C=1$
4.	$A=0,~ B= 1, ~C=0$

163.

A particle of mass $m,$ charge $Q,$ and kinetic energy $T$ enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction $\vec B.$ What will be the kinetic energy of the particle after seconds?

1.	$3{T}$	2.	$2{T}$
3.	${T}$	4.	$4{T}$

164.

The relation amongst the three elements of Earth's magnetic field, namely horizontal component H, vertical component V and dip angle $δ$ is: ( $B_{E}$ =total magnetic field):
1. V= $B_{E}$ tan $δ$ , H= $B_{E}$
2. V= $B_{E}$ sin $δ$ , H= $B_{E}$ cos $δ$
3. V= $B_{E}$ cos $δ$ , H= $B_{E}$ sin $δ$
4. V= $B_{E}$ , H= $B_{E}$ tan $δ$

165. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a $100~\text{kW}$ transmitter in $1~\text{hr}$ is:

1.	$1\times 10^{5}~\text J$	2.	$36\times 10^{7}~\text J$
3.	$36\times 10^{4}~\text J$	4.	$36\times 10^{5}~\text J$

166. Identify the function which represents a non-periodic motion?

1.	$e^{-\omega t}$	2.	$\text{sin}\omega t$
3.	$\text{sin}\omega t+\text{cos}\omega t$	4.	$\text{sin}(\omega t+\pi/4)$

167. The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius $5~\text{mm}$ falling through a tank of oil at room temperature is $10~\text{cm}~\text{s}^{-1}$ . If the viscosity of oil at room temperature is $0.9~\text{kg}~\text{m}^{-1}~\text{s}^{-1}$, the viscous drag force is:
1. $8.48 \times10^{-3}$ N
2. $8.48 \times10^{-5}$ N
3. $4.23 \times10^{-3}$ N
4. $4.23 \times10^{-6}$ N

168.

The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at the other end are $220$ Hz and $260$ Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
1. $20$ Hz
2. $30$ Hz
3. $40$ Hz
4. $10$ Hz

169.

If the angle between the vector $\vec{A} and \vec{B}$ is $\theta$, the value of the product $(\vec{B} \times \vec{A}) \cdot \vec{A}$ is equal to:
1. zero
2. BA²$\sin\theta \cos \theta$
3. BA²$\cos\theta$
4. BA²$\sin\theta$

170.

A Carnot engine having an efficiency of $\frac{1}{10}$ as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is $10$ J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at a lower temperature is:
1. $90$ J
2. $99$ J
3. $100$ J
4. $1$ J

171.

For which one of the following Bohr models is not valid?

1.	Singly ionised helium atom $\big(\mathrm{He}^{+}\big).$
2.	Deuteron atom.
3.	Singly ionised neon atom $\big(\mathrm{Ne}^{+}\big).$
4.	Hydrogen atom.

172.

A square surface of a side $L$ $\text{(m)}$ is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field $\vec{E}$ $\text{(V/m)},$ also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of the square surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the surface is:

1.	$EL^2/ ( 2ε_0 )$	2.	$EL^2 / 2$
3.	zero	4.	$EL^2$

173.

The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity $ε_{0}$ and permeability $μ_{0}$ is given by:
1.   $\sqrt{\frac{ε_{o}}{μ_{o}}}$
2.   $\sqrt{μ_{o} ε_{o}}$
3.   $\frac{1}{\sqrt{μ_{o} ε_{o}}}$
4.   $\sqrt{\frac{μ_{o}}{ε_{o}}}$

174.

Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, length L, time T, and current I, would be:
1. $[{ML}^{2} T^{- 3} I^{- 1}]$
2. $[{ML}^{2} T^{- 2}]$
3. $[{ML}^{2} T^{- 1} I^{- 1}]$
4. $[{ML}^{2} T^{- 3} I^{- 2}]$

175.

One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from $A$ to $B$ along a path $AB$ as shown in the figure.

The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is:

1.	$20~\text{kJ}$	2.	$-20~\text{kJ}$
3.	$20~\text{J}$	4.	$-12~\text{kJ}$

176.

A rod of length $10~\text{cm}$ lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length $10~\text{cm}$ in such a way that its end closer to the pole is $20~\text{cm}$ away from the mirror. The length of the image is:
1. $15~\text{cm}$
2. $2.5~\text{cm}$
3. $5~\text{cm}$
4. $10~\text{cm}$

177.

Four identical thin rods, each of mass $M$ and length $l$, form a square frame. The moment of inertia of this frame about an axis through the centre of the square and perpendicular to its plane is:
1. $\frac{4}{3}Ml^2$
2. $\frac{2}{3}Ml^2$
3. $\frac{13}{3}Ml^2$
4. $\frac{1}{3}Ml^2$

178.

A car moves from $X$ to $Y$ with a uniform speed $v_u$ and returns to $X$ with a uniform speed $v_d.$ The average speed for this round trip is:

1.	$\dfrac{2 v_{d} v_{u}}{v_{d} + v_{u}}$	2.	$\sqrt{v_{u} v_{d}}$
3.	$\dfrac{v_{d} v_{u}}{v_{d} + v_{u}}$	4.	$\dfrac{v_{u} + v_{d}}{2}$

179.

A capacitor of $2~\mu\text{F}$ is charged as shown in the figure. When the switch ${S}$ is turned to position $2,$ the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:

1. $20\%$
2. $75\%$
3. $80\%$
4. $0\%$

180.

When a block of mass $M$ is suspended by a long wire of length $L,$ the length of the wire becomes $(L+l).$ The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is:
1. $\frac{1}{2}MgL$
2. $Mgl$
3. $MgL$
4. $\frac{1}{2}Mgl$

181.

The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is given by the equation $\phi=5 t^2+3 t+60$. The magnitude of induced emf in the coil at $t=4$ s will be:
1. $33$ V
2. $43$ V
3. $108$ V
4. $10$ V

182.

The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii $r_1$ and $r_2$ $(r_1=1.5~r_2)$ through $1~\text{K}$ are in the ratio:

1.	$\dfrac{9}{4}$	2.	$\dfrac{3}{2}$
3.	$\dfrac{5}{3}$	4.	$\dfrac{27}{8}$

183. The time period of a geostationary satellite is $24~\text{hr}$ at a height $6R_E$ $(R_E$ is the radius of the Earth) from the surface of the earth. The time period of another satellite whose height is $2.5R_E$

from the surface will be:

1.	$6\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}$	2.	$12\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}$
3.	$\frac{24}{2.5}~\text{hr}$	4.	$\frac{12}{2.5}~\text{hr}$

184.

The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus anode potential for a photosensitive surface for three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?

1.	Curves $a$ and $b$ represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
2.	Curves $a$ and $b$ represent incident radiation of the same frequency but of different intensities.
3.	Curves $b$ and $c$ represent incident radiation of different frequencies and different intensities.
4.	Curves $b$ and $c$ represent incident radiations of the same frequency having the same intensity.

185. An inductor of inductance $2~\text{mH}$ is connected to a $220~\text{V}$, $50~\text{Hz}$ ac source. Let the inductive reactance in the circuit is $X_1$. If a $220~\text{V}$ DC source replaces the AC source in the circuit, then the inductive reactance in the circuit is $X_2$. $X_1$ and $X_2$, respectively, are:
1. $6.28~\Omega$, zero
2. $6.28~\Omega$, infinity
3. $0.628~\Omega$, zero
4. $0.628~\Omega$, infinity

Physics - Section B

186. Each of the two strings of lengths $51.6~\text{cm}$ and $49.1~\text{cm}$ is tensioned separately by $20~\text{N}$ of force. The mass per unit length of both strings is the same and equals $1~\text{g/m}.$ When both the strings vibrate simultaneously, the number of beats is:

1.	$5$	2.	$7$
3.	$8$	4.	$3$

187.

$\begin{array}{l} If | \vec{A} \times \vec{B} | = \sqrt{3} \vec{A} \cdot \vec{B}, then the value of \\ | \vec{A} + \vec{B} | is: \end{array}$
1. ${(A^{2} + B^{2} + \frac{AB}{\sqrt{3}})}^{1 / 2}$
2. A+B
3. ${(A^{2} + B^{2} + \sqrt{3} AB)}^{1 / 2}$
4. ${(A^{2} + B^{2} + AB)}^{1 / 2}$

188. Taking into account the significant figures, what is the value of $(9.99~\text{m}-0.0099~\text{m})$?
1. $9.98~\text{m}$
2. $9.980~\text{m}$
3. $9.9~\text{m}$
4. $9.9801~\text{m}$

189.

An electric dipole of moment $p$ is placed in an electric field of intensity $E.$ The dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle $\theta$ with the direction of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when $\theta = 90^{\circ}$, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively be:
1. $pE\text{sin}\theta, ~-pE\text{cos}\theta$
2. $pE\text{sin}\theta, ~-2pE\text{cos}\theta$
3. $pE\text{sin}\theta, ~2pE\text{cos}\theta$
4. $pE\text{cos}\theta, ~-pE\text{sin}\theta$

190.

A person of mass $60$ kg is inside a lift of mass $940$ kg and presses the button on the control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration of $1.0~\text{ms}^{-2}$

. If $g=10~\text{ms}^{-2}$

, the tension in the supporting cable is:
1. $9680~\text{N}$
2. $11000~\text{N}$
3. $1200~\text{N}$
4. $8600~\text{N}$

191.

A cycle wheel of radius $0.5$ m is rotated with a constant angular velocity of $10$ rad/s in a region of a magnetic field of $0.1$ T which is perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The EMF generated between its centre and the rim is:

1.	$0.25$ V	2.	$0.125$ V
3.	$0.5$ V	4.	zero

192.

Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at $100~^{\circ}\text{C},$ while the other one is at $0~^{\circ}\text{C}.$ If the two bodies are brought into contact, then assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is:

1.	$50~^{\circ}\text{C}$
2.	more than $50~^{\circ}\text{C}$
3.	less than $50~^{\circ}\text{C}$ but greater than $0~^{\circ}\text{C}$
4.	$0~^{\circ}\text{C}$

193.

If $\lambda_{v}, \lambda_{x},$ and $\lambda_{m}$ represent the wavelengths of visible light, $x\text-$rays and microwaves respectively, then:
1. $ \lambda_{m}>\lambda_{x}>\lambda_{v} $
2. $ \lambda_{v}>\lambda_{m}>\lambda_{x } $
3. $ \lambda_{v}>\lambda_{x}>\lambda_{m }$
4. $\lambda_{m}>\lambda_{v}>\lambda_{x}$

194.

A ray of light travelling in the air has wavelength $\lambda$, frequency $n$, velocity $v$, and intensity $I$. If this ray enters into water then these parameters are $\lambda', n', v'$ and $I'$ respectively. Which relation is correct?
1. $\lambda = \lambda'$
2. $n=n'$
3. $v=v'$
4. $I=I'$

195.

The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass $M$ and length $L$ about an axis passing through its mid-point and perpendicular to its length is $I_0$. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is:
1. $I_0+\frac{ML^2}{4}$
2. $I_0+2ML^2$
3. $I_0+ML^2$
4. $I_0+\frac{ML^2}{2}$

196. The electric field at a point on the equatorial plane at a distance $r$ from the centre of a dipole having dipole moment $\overrightarrow{P}$ is given by:
($r\gg$ separation of two charges forming the dipole, $\varepsilon_{0} =$ permittivity of free space)

1.	$\overrightarrow{E}=\dfrac{\overrightarrow{P}}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{3}}$	2.	$\overrightarrow{E}=\dfrac{2\overrightarrow{P}}{\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{3}}$
3.	$\overrightarrow{E}=-\dfrac{\overrightarrow{P}}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{2}}$	4.	$\overrightarrow{E}=-\dfrac{\overrightarrow{P}}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{3}}$

197.

A wire of length $L,$ area of cross section $A$ is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to ${L}_1$ when mass $M$ is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young's modulus is:

1.	$\dfrac{{Mg(L}_1-{L)}}{{AL}}$	2.	$\dfrac{{MgL}}{{AL}_1}$
3.	$\dfrac{{MgL}}{{A(L}_1-{L})}$	4.	$\dfrac{{MgL}_1}{{AL}}$

198.

The fraction of the original number of radioactive atoms that disintegrates (decays) during the average lifetime of a radioactive substance will be:
1. $\frac{1}{e}$
2. $\frac{1}{1+e}$
3. $\frac{e-1}{e+1}$
4. $\frac{e-1}{e}$

199.

If two springs, A and B $(K_{A}$ $=$ $2$ $K_{B}),$ are stretched by the same suspended weights, then the ratio of work done in stretching is equal to:
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 1
4. 1 : 4

200. If a charged particle (charge $q$) is moving in a circle of radius $R$ at a uniform speed $v$, then the value of its associated magnetic moment $\mu$ will be:
1. $\frac{qvR}{2}$
2. $qvR^{2}$
3. $\frac{qvR^{2}}{2}$
4. $qvR$

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1.	DNA replication takes place in S-phase
2.	A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
3.	\(G_2\) phase follows the mitotic phase
4.	In the \(G_1\) phase, DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the original cell

1.	\(180.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)	2.	\(290.8~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)
3.	\(390.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)	4.	\(425.5~S~cm^2~mol^{-1}\)

1.	\({abcd}\)
2.	\({adcb}\)
3.	The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
4.	No current included

1.	\(1800~{\mathring{A}}\)	2.	\(4200~{\mathring{A}}\)
3.	\(420~{\mathring{A}}\)	4.	\(6000~{\mathring{A}}\)

1.	\(A=1,~ B= 0, ~C=0\)
2.	\(A=1,~ B= 1, ~C=0\)
3.	\(A=1,~ B= 0, ~C=1\)
4.	\(A=0,~ B= 1, ~C=0\)

1.	\(1\times 10^{5}~\text J\)	2.	\(36\times 10^{7}~\text J\)
3.	\(36\times 10^{4}~\text J\)	4.	\(36\times 10^{5}~\text J\)

1.	\(e^{-\omega t}\)	2.	\(\text{sin}\omega t\)
3.	\(\text{sin}\omega t+\text{cos}\omega t\)	4.	\(\text{sin}(\omega t+\pi/4)\)

1.	Singly ionised helium atom \(\big(\mathrm{He}^{+}\big).\)
2.	Deuteron atom.
3.	Singly ionised neon atom \(\big(\mathrm{Ne}^{+}\big).\)
4.	Hydrogen atom.

1.	\(20~\text{kJ}\)	2.	\(-20~\text{kJ}\)
3.	\(20~\text{J}\)	4.	\(-12~\text{kJ}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{2 v_{d} v_{u}}{v_{d} + v_{u}}\)	2.	\(\sqrt{v_{u} v_{d}}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{v_{d} v_{u}}{v_{d} + v_{u}}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{v_{u} + v_{d}}{2}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{9}{4}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{3}{2}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{5}{3}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{27}{8}\)

1.	\(6\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}\)	2.	\(12\sqrt{2}~\text{hr}\)
3.	\(\frac{24}{2.5}~\text{hr}\)	4.	\(\frac{12}{2.5}~\text{hr}\)

1.	Curves \(a\) and \(b\) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
2.	Curves \(a\) and \(b\) represent incident radiation of the same frequency but of different intensities.
3.	Curves \(b\) and \(c\) represent incident radiation of different frequencies and different intensities.
4.	Curves \(b\) and \(c\) represent incident radiations of the same frequency having the same intensity.

1.	\(50~^{\circ}\text{C}\)
2.	more than \(50~^{\circ}\text{C}\)
3.	less than \(50~^{\circ}\text{C}\) but greater than \(0~^{\circ}\text{C}\)
4.	\(0~^{\circ}\text{C}\)

1.	\(\overrightarrow{E}=\dfrac{\overrightarrow{P}}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{3}}\)	2.	\(\overrightarrow{E}=\dfrac{2\overrightarrow{P}}{\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{3}}\)
3.	\(\overrightarrow{E}=-\dfrac{\overrightarrow{P}}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{2}}\)	4.	\(\overrightarrow{E}=-\dfrac{\overrightarrow{P}}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}r^{3}}\)

1.	\(\dfrac{{Mg(L}_1-{L)}}{{AL}}\)	2.	\(\dfrac{{MgL}}{{AL}_1}\)
3.	\(\dfrac{{MgL}}{{A(L}_1-{L})}\)	4.	\(\dfrac{{MgL}_1}{{AL}}\)

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